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  • Question 1 - The hormone CRH, which originates from the hypothalamus, triggers the release of which...

    Incorrect

    • The hormone CRH, which originates from the hypothalamus, triggers the release of which hormone?

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Correct Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone

      Explanation:

      Hormones and their Secretion

      The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) which triggers the anterior pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). ACTH then acts on the adrenal cortex to stimulate the secretion of cortisol. Meanwhile, the anterior pituitary gland also secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) which stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. On the other hand, the adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline in response to stress or danger.

      In summary, the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, adrenal cortex, and adrenal medulla work together to regulate the secretion of various hormones in the body. These hormones play important roles in maintaining homeostasis and responding to stressors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old patient with a history of phaeochromocytoma develops a neck mass. Resection...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old patient with a history of phaeochromocytoma develops a neck mass. Resection of the neck mass demonstrates a multifocal tumour with haemorrhage, necrosis and spread outside the thyroid capsule. The tumour is composed of polygonal cells in nests. Amyloid deposits are seen in the intervening fibrovascular stroma.
      What is the most likely secretion of the polygonal cells?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Correct Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Hormones and Tumors: Understanding the Link

      Calcitonin, PTH, TSH, T4, and T3 are hormones that can be produced by various tumors. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which can occur sporadically or as part of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) types IIa and IIb, is known for its local production of amyloid and secretion of calcitonin. PTH can be produced by parathyroid tumors, while PTH-related protein can be a paraneoplastic product of various tumors, including lung cancer. TSH is produced by pituitary adenomas, while T4 and T3 are produced by thyroid tumors composed of follicular cells. Understanding the link between hormones and tumors can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      119
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What are the symptoms of Addison's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the symptoms of Addison's disease?

      Your Answer: Hypopigmentation of the skin

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a condition that occurs when the adrenal cortex is destroyed, leading to a deficiency in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid. These hormones are essential for various bodily functions, including glucose production from amino acids. The symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, fatigue, muscle weakness, dizziness, fainting, non-specific abdominal pain, and gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea and vomiting. Signs of the condition include postural hypotension and hyperpigmentation.

      Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. In the United Kingdom, the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, which may be associated with other autoimmune diseases such as type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease. Worldwide, tuberculosis is the leading cause of primary adrenal insufficiency. Other rare causes of the condition include congenital adrenal hyperplasia, HIV infection, infiltrating metastases, and haemochromatosis involving the adrenal glands.

      In summary, Addison’s disease is a condition that results from the destruction of the adrenal cortex, leading to a deficiency in essential hormones. The symptoms and signs of the condition can be varied, and the biochemical features include hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. While autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex is the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in the United Kingdom, tuberculosis is the leading cause worldwide. Other rare causes of the condition include congenital adrenal hyperplasia, HIV infection, infiltrating metastases, and haemochromatosis involving the adrenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.4
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman has diabetes controlled by diet. Her sugars have been running...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman has diabetes controlled by diet. Her sugars have been running at 13 mmol/l; HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol, and she has a body mass index of 32.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Type II Diabetes: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      When a patient presents with an HbA1c of >48 mmol/mol, it is important to commence treatment for their type II diabetes. The first-line treatment for overweight individuals who are not adequately controlled with diet is metformin. However, dietary advice should always be given and reinforced, as it is clear that this patient’s diabetes is not being controlled with diet alone.

      If the HbA1c is still high on metformin monotherapy, gliclazide or pioglitazone can be used in conjunction with metformin. Insulin would only be considered if dual therapy was found to be ineffective or if there were intolerable side-effects from oral hypoglycaemic agents. It is important to note that insulin would likely worsen this patient’s obesity.

      As healthcare professionals, it is our responsibility to stay up-to-date on the latest treatment options for type II diabetes and to work with our patients to find the best course of action for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      34.9
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman visits her endocrinologist for follow-up. She has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her endocrinologist for follow-up. She has a medical history of primary hyperparathyroidism and prolactinoma. After undergoing genetic testing, she was diagnosed with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) syndrome. She is planning to start a family and wants to know the likelihood of her child inheriting MEN1. Her partner has no known medical conditions.
      What is the mode of inheritance for MEN1 syndrome?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Patterns of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Syndromes

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) syndromes are a group of rare genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the development of tumors in multiple endocrine glands. Understanding the inheritance patterns of these syndromes is crucial for genetic counseling and early detection of tumors.

      MEN1 is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the menin gene. This means that if one parent carries the mutation, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their children. Over 1000 mutations have been described in this gene, leading to a loss of tumor-suppressor function and an increased risk of tumors in the parathyroid, pancreas, and pituitary gland, as well as other organs.

      Cystic fibrosis, on the other hand, is an example of an autosomal recessive condition. If both parents carry the mutation, there is a 25% chance of their child inheriting the condition.

      X-linked dominant and recessive conditions are also possible, but they do not apply to MEN syndromes. In X-linked dominant conditions, affected mothers have a 50% chance of passing the condition to their children, while in X-linked recessive conditions, females can only be carriers but can still pass the condition to their sons.

      It is important to note that while most MEN syndromes are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, sporadic cases can also occur. In these cases, a family history may be absent because the parent with the disease may have died before symptoms developed. Genetic testing and counseling can help identify individuals at risk and provide appropriate management and surveillance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her annual check-up. She was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her annual check-up. She was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus at the age of 20 and is currently being treated with human mixed insulin twice daily. She has been experiencing dysuria for the past year and has received treatment with trimethoprim four times for cystitis. On examination, there are two dot haemorrhages bilaterally on fundal examination, but no other abnormalities are found. Her blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg. The following investigations were conducted: HbA1c 75 mmol/mol (20-46), fasting plasma glucose 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), serum creatinine 90 µmol/L (60-110), urinalysis glucose +, and 24-hour urine albumin 220 mg/24 hrs (<200). What is the best treatment option to prevent the progression of renal disease?

      Your Answer: Treat with ACEI

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Diabetic Nephropathy

      Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication of diabetes, affecting up to 40% of patients with type 1 diabetes and 5-40% of patients with type 2 diabetes. Without intervention, it can lead to macroalbuminuria and end-stage renal disease. Treatment options include ACE inhibitors, low dietary protein, and improved glycaemic control.

      In the case of a patient with microalbuminuria and poor glycaemic control but normal blood pressure, ACE inhibitors would be the preferred choice for renal protection. This is supported by evidence showing a 50% lower albumin excretion rate at two years in treated versus untreated patients with type 1 diabetes. However, it is important to rule out any urinary tract infections, as they can contribute to albumin excretion.

      While good glycaemic control has not shown clear benefits in treating microalbuminuria in patients with type 1 diabetes, it is still important to improve overall glycaemic control to prevent further complications. A low protein diet has been proven effective for overt proteinuria but not for microalbuminuria. Therefore, in this case, the focus should be on ACE inhibitors and glycaemic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      56.2
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  • Question 7 - What is the probable diagnosis for a 15-year-old girl who experiences recurring pelvic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable diagnosis for a 15-year-old girl who experiences recurring pelvic pain but has not yet begun menstruating?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Correct Answer: Haematocolpos

      Explanation:

      Haematocolpos: A Condition of Blood Accumulation in the Vagina

      Haematocolpos is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of blood in the vagina. This condition is usually caused by an imperforate hymen, which prevents menstrual blood from flowing out of the body. As a result, the blood accumulates in the vagina, leading to discomfort and pain. Haematocolpos is a rare condition that affects mostly young girls who have not yet started menstruating. It can also occur in women who have undergone surgery to remove the cervix or uterus. Treatment for haematocolpos usually involves surgical intervention to remove the blockage and allow the blood to flow out of the body. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, most women with haematocolpos can recover fully and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A child who is 4 years old has a height measurement that falls...

    Incorrect

    • A child who is 4 years old has a height measurement that falls below the third centile. What is the most probable cause of their stunted growth?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Causes of Short Stature

      Short stature is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. The most common cause of short stature is familial short stature, which is inherited from parents. Maternal deprivation and chronic illnesses such as congenital heart disease can also lead to short stature, but these are less frequent causes. On the other hand, Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with tall stature. This genetic disorder affects males and is characterized by an extra X chromosome.

      Another factor that can cause short stature is poorly controlled chronic diabetes. This condition can lead to malnutrition, delayed growth, and puberty. It is important to note that short stature does not necessarily indicate a health problem, as some people are naturally shorter than others. However, if short stature is accompanied by other symptoms such as delayed puberty or growth failure, it is important to seek medical attention. Overall, the various causes of short stature can help individuals and healthcare providers identify and address any underlying health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.6
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  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department following a fall in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department following a fall in the local supermarket. He is in an acute confusional state and unaccompanied, so a history is not available. Upon examination, the doctor noted digital clubbing and signs of a right-sided pleural effusion. The patient was euvolaemic.
      Investigations:
      Serum:
      Na+ 114 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
      K+ 3.6 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
      Urea 2.35 mmol/l (2.5–6.7 mmol/l)
      Osmolality 255 mOsmol/kg (282–295 mOsm/kg)
      Urine:
      Osmolality 510 mOsmol/kg (raised)
      Na+ 50 mmol/l (25–250 mmol/l, depending on hydration state)
      Which of the following could be the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diuretic therapy

      Correct Answer: Small cell lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis

      Hyponatraemia is a common electrolyte disturbance that can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this case, the patient’s acute confusional state is likely due to significant hyponatraemia. The low serum urea level and osmolality suggest dilutional hyponatraemia, but the raised urine osmolality indicates continued secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), known as syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).

      SIADH can be associated with malignancy (such as small cell lung cancer), central nervous system disorders, drugs, and major surgery. In this patient’s case, the unifying diagnosis is small cell lung cancer causing SIADH. Digital clubbing also points towards a diagnosis of lung cancer.

      Other conditions that can cause hyponatraemia include nephrotic syndrome, Addison’s disease, cystic fibrosis, and excessive diuretic therapy. However, these conditions have different biochemical profiles and clinical features.

      Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyponatraemia and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      77.7
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  • Question 10 - An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery....

    Incorrect

    • An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the child has congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
      What is a characteristic of 21-hydroxylase deficiency-related congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Correct Answer: Adrenocortical insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects of 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency on Health Conditions

      21-hydroxylase deficiency is a medical condition that affects the adrenal glands, resulting in decreased cortisol synthesis and commonly reducing aldosterone synthesis. This condition can lead to adrenal insufficiency, causing salt wasting and hypoglycemia, which may present as symptoms of type II diabetes mellitus. However, it is not associated with diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low ADH levels.

      While 21-hydroxylase deficiency is associated with elevated androgens, it is not a feature of hypogonadism. Instead, patients with this condition may experience stunted growth and may be treated with gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Acromegaly, on the other hand, is not typically associated with 21-hydroxylase deficiency.

      Overall, understanding the effects of 21-hydroxylase deficiency on various health conditions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.2
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old man is referred by his GP to the endocrine clinic after...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is referred by his GP to the endocrine clinic after a blood test revealed hypercalcaemia. The man originally presented to his GP following episodes of abdominal pain and loin pain.
      A thorough history from the patient reveals that his father had similar symptoms which started at the age of 49 but he later passed away from a pancreatic tumour. The patient’s grandfather also had a high calcium level, but the patient does not remember what happened to him. The Endocrinologist explains to the patient that he suffers from a disease which runs in the family and part of his treatment would involve the surgical removal of the majority of the parathyroid glands.
      Which of the following should this patient also be considered at risk of?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic islet cell tumour

      Explanation:

      The patient’s hypercalcaemia is due to a parathyroid gland issue, not a germ cell tumour of the testis, which is not related to the MEN syndromes. Pineal gland tumours can cause sleep pattern abnormalities, but this is not the case for this patient. Phaeochromocytoma, a tumour of the adrenal glands, typically presents with headaches, high blood pressure, palpitations, and anxiety, and is part of MEN 2a and 2b, but not MEN 1. Thyroid medullary carcinoma, which is part of MEN 2a and 2b, presents with diarrhoea and often metastasises by the time of diagnosis, but is not associated with MEN 1. Pancreatic islet cell tumours, also known as pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours, are part of MEN 1 and can cause hypoglycaemia if they arise from insulin-producing cells. These tumours can be benign or malignant, with the majority being benign. MEN syndromes are rare and characterised by adenomas and adenocarcinomas, with specific pathologies varying depending on the type of MEN syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which gland produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) in the endocrine system? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which gland produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) in the endocrine system?

      Your Answer: Thyroid

      Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      The Thyroid Hormone Axis

      The thyroid hormone axis is a complex system that involves the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and thyroid gland. The hypothalamus produces a hormone called thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH then stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release the thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and tri-iodothyronine (T3).

      Both T4 and T3 are primarily bound to proteins in the bloodstream, but it is the free, unbound hormones that are biologically active. The secretion of TSH is inhibited by the presence of thyroid hormones in the bloodstream. This negative feedback loop helps to regulate the levels of thyroid hormones in the body.

      In summary, the thyroid hormone axis is a tightly regulated system that involves multiple hormones and glands working together to maintain proper levels of thyroid hormones in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      19.6
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  • Question 13 - Under what circumstances would the bone age match the chronological age? ...

    Correct

    • Under what circumstances would the bone age match the chronological age?

      Your Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Bone Age

      Bone age is affected by various factors such as hypothyroidism, constitutional delay of growth and puberty, growth hormone deficiency, precocious puberty, and familial short stature. In hypothyroidism, bone age is delayed due to the underproduction of thyroid hormones. On the other hand, constitutional delay of growth and puberty causes delayed physiological maturation, including secondary sexual characteristics and bone age. Growth hormone deficiency also results in delayed skeletal maturation. In contrast, precocious puberty causes advanced bone age. Lastly, in familial short stature, bone age is equal to chronological age, but linear growth is poor, resulting in a short stature. these factors is crucial in diagnosing and managing growth and development issues in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help ensure optimal growth and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.6
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  • Question 15 - With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated? ...

    Correct

    • With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated?

      Your Answer: Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

      Explanation:

      Sipple Syndrome (MEN 2A)

      Sipple syndrome, also known as Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 2A, is a group of endocrine disorders that occur together in the same patient and are typically inherited. This syndrome is caused by a defect in a gene that controls the normal growth of endocrine tissues. As a result, individuals with Sipple syndrome may develop bilateral medullary carcinoma or C cell hyperplasia, phaeochromocytoma, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Sipple syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, which means that if a person has the defective gene, they have a 50% chance of passing it on to their offspring. This syndrome affects both males and females equally, and the peak incidence of medullary carcinoma in these patients is typically in their 30s.

      In summary, Sipple syndrome is a rare inherited disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands. It is important for individuals with a family history of this syndrome to undergo genetic testing and regular screenings to detect any potential tumors or abnormalities early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      48.9
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  • Question 16 - A 54-year-old truck driver weighing 104 kg visits your clinic. The practice nurse...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old truck driver weighing 104 kg visits your clinic. The practice nurse conducted a fasting glucose test, which showed a reading of 7.9 mmol/L. The test was repeated, and the result was 8.6 mmol/L. Despite receiving diet and lifestyle advice, the patient's HbA1c level is 69 mmol/mol (8.5%) after three months. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Commence insulin

      Correct Answer: Commence metformin

      Explanation:

      Primary Care Management of Type 2 Diabetes

      The primary focus in diabetes care is to manage patients with type 2 diabetes in primary care. For individuals who are likely to be insulin resistant, the preferred treatment option is insulin sensitising therapy with minimal weight gain. Metformin is a medication that induces a small amount of weight loss and has a low risk of hypoglycaemia, which is particularly important for those who have jobs that require them to be alert and focused. To ensure that healthcare professionals are up to date with the latest management strategies for type 2 diabetes, the American Diabetes Association has recently published a comprehensive management pathway. By following this pathway, healthcare providers can ensure that their patients receive the best possible care and achieve optimal health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.7
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  • Question 17 - A patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his...

    Correct

    • A patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his regular blood test.
      Which of the following results would you expect?

      Your Answer: Elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lipoprotein Lipase and its Effects on Lipid Levels

      Lipoprotein lipase plays a crucial role in the metabolism of lipids in the body. Its deficiency can result in various lipid abnormalities, which can be classified according to the Fredrickson classification of hyperlipoproteinaemias. Familial hyperchylomicronaemia, a type I primary hyperlipidaemia, is characterized by elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs due to lipoprotein lipase deficiency. On the other hand, lipoprotein lipase is not directly involved in LDL levels, which are influenced by LDL-receptor and lipoprotein lipase C. Similarly, low VLDL levels are not expected in the absence of lipoprotein lipase, as it is important in hydrolysing both chylomicrons and VLDLs. Overall, understanding the role of lipoprotein lipase can help in identifying and managing lipid abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.5
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man is being evaluated by his physician for possible issues with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is being evaluated by his physician for possible issues with his hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were recorded:
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.5 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l)
      fT3 3.5 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l)
      What condition is indicated by these results?

      Your Answer: Need more information

      Explanation:

      The Importance of fT4 in Thyroid Diagnosis

      When diagnosing thyroid conditions, the fT4 level is a crucial piece of information that cannot be overlooked. A patient with high TSH could be hyperthyroid, hypothyroid, or euthyroid with this TSH level, and the fT4 level is needed to determine the correct diagnosis. While a normal fT3 level can rule out hyperthyroidism, it cannot exclude the diagnosis if the fT4 level is high. Similarly, fT3 levels are of no use in diagnosing hypothyroidism, as they can be normal in a hypothyroid patient due to increased T4 to T3 conversion. Without the fT4 level, a diagnosis of primary or secondary hypothyroidism or a TSH-secreting tumor cannot be made. Therefore, it is crucial to obtain the fT4 level when evaluating thyroid function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 57-year-old woman presents to the diabetic clinic with concerns about her worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to the diabetic clinic with concerns about her worsening blood sugar control. She was diagnosed with diabetes three years ago and has had hypertension for five years. Her current medications include atenolol, amlodipine, and metformin.

      During the examination, her weight is recorded as 98.5 kg, which is 5 kg more than her previous weight after losing 4 kg. Her BMI is 34.6, and her blood pressure is 156/94 mmHg. There are no signs of neuropathy or retinopathy. Her fasting glucose is 8.2 mmol/L (148 mg/dL), and her HbA1c has increased by 1% to 77 mmol/mol (20-42) since her last visit six months ago.

      The patient expresses difficulty adhering to her diet and requests assistance with her weight. What would be your recommendation for treating her obesity?

      Your Answer: Gastric bypass surgery

      Correct Answer: Orlistat

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Obesity and Diabetes

      This patient is dealing with both obesity and diabetes, and it is common for their glycaemic control to worsen as their weight increases. While bariatric surgery and sibutramine have been recommended in the past, they are not suitable options for this patient due to their medical history and potential risks. Instead, the pancreatic lipase inhibitor orlistat is recommended as it can reduce the absorption of dietary fat by 30%. However, it is important to note that this medication can cause side effects such as flatulence and diarrhoea.

      Previously, it was recommended that patients demonstrate at least a 2.5 kg weight loss with diet before starting orlistat. However, this is no longer necessary. Weight loss is expected to improve glycaemic control, but it is important to note that the sulphonylurea gliclazide may cause weight gain. Overall, a combination of medication and diet changes can help manage obesity and diabetes in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      81.4
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He reports consuming five cans of lager per week, which is believed to be the cause of his abnormal liver function tests. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis affecting his hips and knees. What tests should be performed to determine the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI scan pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: Serum ferritin and iron studies

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis as a Cause of Hypogonadism

      The patient’s medical history suggests that haemochromatosis may be the underlying cause of their hypogonadism. While their moderate alcohol consumption of 10 units per week may contribute to liver dysfunction, other potential explanations should be explored. Additionally, the patient’s history of type 2 diabetes and seronegative arthropathy are consistent with iron storage diseases. Haemochromatosis can lead to reduced insulin production, resulting in a presentation similar to type 2 diabetes. To confirm the diagnosis, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be evaluated, as elevated levels of both are highly indicative of haemochromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      34
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (8/20) 40%
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