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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man presents with a left sided, painful groin swelling. You suspect...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a left sided, painful groin swelling. You suspect that it is an inguinal hernia.
      Which of the following examination features make it more likely to be a direct inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: It can be controlled by pressure over the deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      Indirect inguinal hernias have an elliptical shape, unlike direct hernias which are round. They are not easily reducible and do not reduce spontaneously when reclining. Unlike direct hernias that appear immediately, indirect hernias take longer to appear when standing. They are reduced superiorly and then superolaterally, while direct hernias reduce superiorly and posteriorly. Pressure over the deep inguinal ring helps control indirect hernias. However, they are more prone to strangulation due to the narrow neck of the deep inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      103.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with sharp pain while having a bowel movement....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with sharp pain while having a bowel movement. The pain usually continues for an additional 30-60 minutes afterward. She has also observed small amounts of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping. She has been experiencing constipation for the past couple of weeks.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a tear in the wall of the anal mucosa that exposes the circular muscle layer. The majority of these tears occur in the posterior midline, and they are often caused by the passage of a large, hard stool after a period of constipation. If multiple fissures are present, it may indicate an underlying condition such as Crohn’s disease or tuberculosis.

      Both men and women are equally affected by anal fissures, and they are most commonly seen in individuals in their thirties. The typical symptoms of an anal fissure include intense, sharp pain during bowel movements, which can last for up to an hour after passing stool. Additionally, there may be spots of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping, and a history of constipation.

      The initial management approach for an anal fissure involves non-operative measures such as using stool softeners and bulking agents. To alleviate the intense anal pain, analgesics and topical local anesthetics may be prescribed. According to a recent meta-analysis, first-line therapy should involve the use of topical GTN or diltiazem, with botulinum toxin being used as a rescue treatment if necessary (Modern perspectives in the treatment of chronic anal fissures. Ann R Coll Surg Engl. 2007 Jul;89(5):472-8.)

      Sphincterotomy, a surgical procedure, should be reserved for cases where the fissure does not heal with conservative measures. It has a success rate of 90%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man comes in with unintentional weight loss and a noticeable lump...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with unintentional weight loss and a noticeable lump in his abdomen. After a CT scan, it is discovered that he has a cancerous growth in his cecum.
      Where is the most likely location for this lump to be felt?

      Your Answer: Right iliac fossa

      Explanation:

      The caecum, positioned between the ileum and the ascending colon, serves as the closest segment of the large intestine. It can be found in the right iliac fossa, just below the ileocaecal junction. In case of enlargement, it can be detected through palpation. This structure is situated within the peritoneal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      4596.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She has had her bowels open four times in the past 24 hours. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable with a pulse of 80 bpm and a BP of 120/77. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there is no obvious source of anorectal bleeding on rectal examination.
      Which risk assessment tool is recommended by the British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) guidelines to assess the severity of stable lower gastrointestinal bleeds?

      Your Answer: Glasgow-Blatchford score

      Correct Answer: Oakland score

      Explanation:

      The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.

      When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).

      For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.

      Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.

      Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.

      If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.

      If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.

      If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.

      Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.

      In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      118.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of passing fresh red blood...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She has had four bowel movements in the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she is stable with a heart rate of 80 bpm and a blood pressure of 120/77. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there are no visible signs of anorectal bleeding during rectal examination.

      What is the shock index for this patient?

      Your Answer: 0.66

      Explanation:

      The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for evaluating cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are useful in determining which patients should be referred for further assessment.

      When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable is defined as having a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP). For example, if the heart rate is 80 and the systolic blood pressure is 120, the shock index would be 0.66.

      For patients with stable bleeds, they should be further classified as either major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management) based on a risk assessment tool. The BSG recommends using the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.

      Patients with a minor self-terminating bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for outpatient investigation.

      Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital for a colonoscopy, which will be scheduled based on availability.

      If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 after initial resuscitation, and/or active bleeding is suspected, CT angiography (CTA) should be considered, followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.

      If no bleeding source is identified by initial CTA and the patient is stable, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.

      If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.

      Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding source using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.

      Red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/d

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A child with a history of repeated episodes of painless rectal bleeding is...

    Incorrect

    • A child with a history of repeated episodes of painless rectal bleeding is found to have a Meckel’s diverticulum during a colonoscopy.
      What is the most frequently observed type of ectopic mucosa in Meckel’s diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Jejunal

      Correct Answer: Gastric

      Explanation:

      A Meckel’s diverticulum is a leftover part of the vitellointestinal duct, which is no longer needed in the body. It is the most common abnormality in the gastrointestinal tract, found in about 2% of people. Interestingly, it is twice as likely to occur in men compared to women.

      When a Meckel’s diverticulum is present, it is usually located in the lower part of the small intestine, specifically within 60-100 cm (2 feet) of the ileocaecal valve. These diverticula are typically 3-6 cm (approximately 2 inches) long and may have a larger opening than the ileum.

      Meckel’s diverticula are often discovered incidentally, especially during an appendectomy. Most of the time, they do not cause any symptoms. However, they can lead to complications such as bleeding (25-50% of cases), intestinal blockage (10-40% of cases), diverticulitis, or perforation.

      These diverticula run in the opposite direction of the intestine’s natural folds but receive their blood supply from the ileum mesentery. They can be identified by a specific blood vessel called the vitelline artery. Typically, they are lined with the same type of tissue as the ileum, but they often contain abnormal tissue, with gastric tissue being the most common (50%) and pancreatic tissue being the second most common (5%). In rare cases, colonic or jejunal tissue may be present.

      To remember some key facts about Meckel’s diverticulum, the rule of 2s can be helpful:
      – It is found in 2% of the population.
      – It is more common in men, with a ratio of 2:1 compared to women.
      – It is located 2 feet away from the ileocaecal valve.
      – It is approximately 2 inches long.
      – It often contains two types of abnormal tissue: gastric and pancreatic.
      – The most common age for clinical presentation is 2 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman currently nursing her baby has developed a painful, red lump...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman currently nursing her baby has developed a painful, red lump in her left breast. She feels chilled and generally not well and has a temperature of 38.6°C. During examination, she has a significant red area on the outer side of the nipple on her left breast. The entire breast seems swollen and inflamed.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breast abscess

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a breast abscess that has developed as a result of lactational mastitis. When milk is not properly drained, it can lead to an overgrowth of bacteria and subsequently cause an infection in the breast. If left untreated, this infection can lead to the accumulation of pus in a specific area of the breast. It is estimated that around 5-10% of women with infectious mastitis will develop a breast abscess. The recommended treatment involves a combination of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin or co-amoxiclav, along with either aspiration or incision and drainage of the abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      65.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You evaluate a 35-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with an anal...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 35-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with an anal fissure. He has been undergoing treatment for the last two months, which includes lactulose, senna, topical creams with local anesthetics, and topical GTN ointment. However, his symptoms continue to persist, and he describes the pain during bowel movements as intolerable.
      What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Botulinum toxin injection

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a tear in the wall of the anal mucosa that exposes the circular muscle layer. The majority of these tears occur in the posterior midline. The most common cause is the passage of a large, hard stool after a period of constipation. If multiple fissures are present, it may indicate an underlying condition such as Crohn’s disease or tuberculosis.

      Both men and women are equally affected by anal fissures, and they are most commonly seen in individuals in their thirties. The typical symptoms of an anal fissure include intense, sharp pain during bowel movements, which can last up to an hour after passing stool. Additionally, there may be spots of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping, and a history of constipation.

      The initial management of an anal fissure involves non-operative measures such as using stool softeners and bulking agents. To alleviate the intense anal pain, analgesics and topical local anesthetics may be prescribed. According to a recent meta-analysis, first-line therapy should involve the use of topical GTN or diltiazem, with botulinum toxin being used as a rescue treatment if necessary (Modern perspectives in the treatment of chronic anal fissures. Ann R Coll Surg Engl. 2007 Jul;89(5):472-8.)

      Sphincterotomy, a surgical procedure, should be reserved for fissures that do not heal and has a success rate of 90%. Anal dilatation, also known as Lord’s procedure, is rarely used nowadays due to the high risk of subsequent fecal incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last two bowel movements. She has had her bowels open three times in the past 24 hours. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable with a pulse of 85 bpm and a BP of 110/70. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there is no obvious source of anorectal bleeding on rectal examination.
      Which investigation is recommended first-line for haemodynamically stable patients with lower gastrointestinal bleeds that require hospitalization?

      Your Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.

      When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).

      For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.

      Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.

      Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.

      If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.

      If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.

      If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.

      Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.

      In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      112.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient with a history of recurrent episodes of painless rectal bleeding is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of recurrent episodes of painless rectal bleeding is found to have a Meckel's diverticulum during a colonoscopy.

      What is the most common location for Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Caecum

      Correct Answer: Ileum

      Explanation:

      A Meckel’s diverticulum is a leftover part of the vitellointestinal duct, which is no longer needed in the body. It is the most common abnormality in the gastrointestinal tract, found in about 2% of people. Interestingly, it is twice as likely to occur in men compared to women.

      When a Meckel’s diverticulum is present, it is usually located in the lower part of the small intestine, specifically within 60-100 cm (2 feet) of the ileocaecal valve. These diverticula are typically 3-6 cm (approximately 2 inches) long and may have a larger opening than the ileum.

      Meckel’s diverticula are often discovered incidentally, especially during an appendectomy. Most of the time, they do not cause any symptoms. However, they can lead to complications such as bleeding (25-50% of cases), intestinal blockage (10-40% of cases), diverticulitis, or perforation.

      These diverticula run in the opposite direction of the intestine’s natural folds but receive their blood supply from the ileum mesentery. They can be identified by a specific blood vessel called the vitelline artery. Typically, they are lined with the same type of tissue as the ileum, but they often contain abnormal tissue, with gastric tissue being the most common (50%) and pancreatic tissue being the second most common (5%). In rare cases, colonic or jejunal tissue may be present.

      To remember some key facts about Meckel’s diverticulum, the rule of 2s can be helpful:
      – It is found in 2% of the population.
      – It is more common in men, with a ratio of 2:1 compared to women.
      – It is located 2 feet away from the ileocaecal valve.
      – It is approximately 2 inches long.
      – It often contains two types of abnormal tissue: gastric and pancreatic.
      – The most common age for clinical presentation is 2 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient with a previous history of painless rectal bleeding episodes is found...

    Correct

    • A patient with a previous history of painless rectal bleeding episodes is found to have a Meckel's diverticulum during a colonoscopy.

      Which ONE statement about Meckel's diverticulum is accurate?

      Your Answer: They receive their blood supply from the mesentery of the ileum

      Explanation:

      A Meckel’s diverticulum is a leftover part of the vitellointestinal duct, which is no longer needed in the body. It is the most common abnormality in the gastrointestinal tract, found in about 2% of people. Interestingly, it is twice as likely to occur in men compared to women.

      When a Meckel’s diverticulum is present, it is usually located in the lower part of the small intestine, specifically within 60-100 cm (2 feet) of the ileocaecal valve. These diverticula are typically 3-6 cm (approximately 2 inches) long and may have a larger opening than the ileum.

      Meckel’s diverticula are often discovered incidentally, especially during an appendectomy. Most of the time, they do not cause any symptoms. However, they can lead to complications such as bleeding (25-50% of cases), intestinal blockage (10-40% of cases), diverticulitis, or perforation.

      These diverticula run in the opposite direction of the intestine’s natural folds but receive their blood supply from the ileum mesentery. They can be identified by a specific blood vessel called the vitelline artery. Typically, they are lined with the same type of tissue as the ileum, but they often contain abnormal tissue, with gastric tissue being the most common (50%) and pancreatic tissue being the second most common (5%). In rare cases, colonic or jejunal tissue may be present.

      To remember some key facts about Meckel’s diverticulum, the rule of 2s can be helpful:
      – It is found in 2% of the population.
      – It is more common in men, with a ratio of 2:1 compared to women.
      – It is located 2 feet away from the ileocaecal valve.
      – It is approximately 2 inches long.
      – It often contains two types of abnormal tissue: gastric and pancreatic.
      – The most common age for clinical presentation is 2 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A concerned parent brings his 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned parent brings his 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department. He was previously healthy, but suddenly began vomiting this morning, and the father mentions that the last vomit was a vivid shade of green. The baby has been crying uncontrollably for periods of 15-20 minutes and then calming down in between. Upon examination, the child appears slightly pale, and there is no detectable bowel in the lower right quadrant.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception occurs when a section of the bowel folds into another section, causing a blockage. This can be due to a specific underlying issue, like a Meckel’s diverticulum, or it can happen without any specific cause. The condition is most commonly seen in boys between the ages of 5 and 10 months. Symptoms include sudden vomiting and episodes of abdominal pain that come and go. The vomit quickly becomes greenish-yellow in color. Dance’s sign, which is the absence of bowel in the lower right part of the abdomen, may be observed. Redcurrant jelly-like stools are a late indication of the condition. It is believed that more than 90% of cases are caused by a non-specific underlying issue, often viral infections like rotavirus, adenovirus, and human herpesvirus 6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - a 49-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presenting with sepsis, right upper...

    Incorrect

    • a 49-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presenting with sepsis, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice is diagnosed with ascending cholangitis. Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition is true?

      Your Answer: The white cell count is usually normal

      Correct Answer: It occurs when the common bile duct becomes infected

      Explanation:

      Ascending cholangitis occurs when there is an infection in the common bile duct, often caused by a stone that has led to a blockage of bile flow. This condition is characterized by the presence of Charcot’s triad, which includes jaundice, fever with rigors, and pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. It is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening, with some patients also experiencing altered mental status and low blood pressure due to septic shock, known as Reynold’s pentad. Urgent biliary drainage is the recommended treatment for ascending cholangitis.

      In acute cholecystitis, Murphy’s sign is typically positive, indicating tenderness in the right upper quadrant when the gallbladder is palpated. However, it is negative in cases of biliary colic and ascending cholangitis. The white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated in ascending cholangitis, along with the presence of jaundice and significantly increased levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and bilirubin.

      To differentiate between biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis, the following can be helpful:

      Biliary colic:
      – Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
      – Fever: Absent
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Normal
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
      – Bilirubin: Normal

      Acute cholecystitis:
      – Pain duration: More than 12 hours
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Positive
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
      – Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevated

      Ascending cholangitis:
      – Pain duration: Variable
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated
      – Bilirubin: Elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      257.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old woman comes in with a history of passing fresh red blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She is experiencing low blood pressure, and her shock index is calculated to be 1.4.

      Which initial investigation is recommended for hospitalized patients with lower gastrointestinal bleeding who are in a state of hemodynamic instability?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound scan abdomen

      Correct Answer: CT angiography

      Explanation:

      The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.

      When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).

      For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.

      Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.

      Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.

      If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.

      If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.

      If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.

      Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.

      In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      96.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 62-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. On examination, he has marked abdominal tenderness that is maximal in the epigastric area. Following his blood results, you make a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. He is a non-drinker.

      His venous bloods are shown below:

      Hb: 13.5 g/dL
      White cell count: 14.2 x 109/L
      Blood glucose 7.9 mmol/L
      AST 275 IU/L
      LDH 290 IU/L
      Amylase: 980 IU/L

      What is his Ranson score at admission?

      Your Answer: Four

      Correct Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause the organ to digest itself. The symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, and pain that may radiate to the T6-T10 dermatomes or shoulder tip due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Other signs include fever, tenderness in the epigastric area, jaundice, and the presence of Gray-Turner and Cullen signs, which are ecchymosis of the flank and peri-umbilical area, respectively.

      To determine the severity of acute pancreatitis, the Ranson criteria are used as a clinical prediction rule. A score greater than three indicates severe pancreatitis with a mortality rate of over 15%. The criteria assessed upon admission include age over 55 years, white cell count above 16 x 109/L, blood glucose level higher than 11 mmol/L, serum AST level exceeding 250 IU/L, and serum LDH level surpassing 350 IU/L.

      In this particular case, the patient’s Ranson score is three. This is based on the fact that she is 56 years old, her white cell count is 16.7 x 109/L, and her AST level is 358 IU/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      4125
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old truck driver presents with a painful, tender lump near his coccyx....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old truck driver presents with a painful, tender lump near his coccyx. Your examination findings are consistent with a diagnosis of a pilonidal sinus.
      Which SINGLE factor is NOT a recognized risk factor for this condition?

      Your Answer: Age over 40

      Explanation:

      A pilonidal sinus is a small cyst found near the crease between the buttocks. It contains a clump of hairs and is most commonly seen in young males with thick, dark hair. This condition is rare in individuals over the age of 40. Several factors increase the risk of developing a pilonidal sinus, including being male, having excessive hair growth, having a job that involves prolonged sitting, being overweight, and having a family history of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain and a high temperature. During the examination, he experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa, leading to a working diagnosis of acute appendicitis. However, he adamantly refuses to flex his thigh at the hip. When his thigh is passively extended, his abdominal pain intensifies significantly.

      What is the probable location of the appendix in this particular patient?

      Your Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      This patient is exhibiting the psoas sign, which is a medical indication of irritation in the iliopsoas group of hip flexors located in the abdomen. In this particular case, it is highly likely that the patient has acute appendicitis.

      The psoas sign can be observed by extending the patient’s thigh while they are lying on their side with their knees extended, or by asking the patient to actively flex their thigh at the hip. If these movements result in abdominal pain or if the patient resists due to pain, then the psoas sign is considered positive.

      The pain occurs because the psoas muscle is adjacent to the peritoneal cavity. When the muscles are stretched or contracted, they rub against the inflamed tissues nearby, causing discomfort. This strongly suggests that the appendix is positioned retrocaecal.

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      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl comes in with sudden abdominal pain. She has a high...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl comes in with sudden abdominal pain. She has a high temperature and feels very nauseous. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa. You suspect she may have acute appendicitis.
      What is the most frequent location of the appendix's tip?

      Your Answer: Transverse retrocaecal

      Correct Answer: Ascending retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      The appendix is a slender and curved tube that is attached to the back and middle part of the caecum. It has a small triangular tissue called the mesoappendix that holds it in place from the tissue of the terminal ileum.

      Although it contains a significant amount of lymphoid tissue, the appendix does not serve any important function in humans. The position of the free end of the appendix can vary greatly. There are five main locations where it can be found, with the most common being the retrocaecal and subcaecal positions.

      The distribution of these positions is as follows:

      – Ascending retrocaecal (64%)
      – Subcaecal (32%)
      – Transverse retrocaecal (2%)
      – Ascending preileal (1%)
      – Ascending retroileal (0.5%)

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      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presents with right upper quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presents with right upper quadrant pain and fever. She is diagnosed with acute cholecystitis. Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?

      Your Answer: The white cell count is usually normal

      Correct Answer: The gallbladder fills with pus, which is usually sterile initially

      Explanation:

      Acute cholecystitis occurs when a stone becomes stuck in the outlet of the gallbladder, causing irritation of the wall and resulting in chemical cholecystitis. This leads to the accumulation of pus within the gallbladder, which is typically sterile at first. However, there is a possibility of secondary infection with enteric organisms like Escherichia coli and Klebsiella spp.

      The clinical features of acute cholecystitis include severe pain in the right upper quadrant or epigastrium, which can radiate to the back and lasts for more than 12 hours. Fevers and rigors are often present, along with common symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Murphy’s sign is a useful diagnostic tool, as it has a high sensitivity and positive predictive value for acute cholecystitis. However, its specificity is lower, as it can also be positive in biliary colic and ascending cholangitis.

      In cases of acute cholecystitis, the white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated. AST, ALT, and ALP may also show elevation, but they can often be within the normal range. Bilirubin levels may be mildly elevated, but they can also be normal. If there is a significant increase in AST, ALT, ALP, and/or bilirubin, it may indicate the presence of other biliary tract conditions such as ascending cholangitis or choledocholithiasis.

      It is important to note that there is some overlap in the presentation of biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis. To differentiate between these diagnoses, the following list can be helpful:

      Biliary colic:
      – Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
      – Fever: Absent
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Normal
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
      – Bilirubin: Normal

      Acute cholecystitis:
      – Pain duration: More than 12 hours
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Positive
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
      – Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevated

      Ascending cholangitis:
      – Pain duration: Variable
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal discomfort and rectal bleeding. An...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal discomfort and rectal bleeding. An abdominal CT scan is conducted and reveals a diagnosis of diverticulitis.
      Which part of her large intestine is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      Diverticulitis primarily affects the sigmoid colon in about 90% of cases. As a result, it is more commonly associated with pain in the left iliac fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
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