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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old male with a 10 year history of hypertension and diabetes has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a 10 year history of hypertension and diabetes has been on a medication regimen for the past two years. He takes metformin 1 g bd, gliclazide 80 mg bd, rosuvastatin 10 mg daily, ramipril 10 mg daily, aspirin 75 mg daily, and amlodipine 10 mg daily. During his annual review, his blood pressure is 138/82 mmHg, and he has background diabetic retinopathy. His foot pulses are normal, but he has peripheral sensory loss to the ankles in both feet. His lab results show HbA1c of 55 mmol/mol (20-46), urea of 12.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine of 176 µmol/L (60-110), and cholesterol of 4.8 mmol/L (<5.2). Which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Gliclazide

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin Use in Patients with Chronic Renal Impairment

      Patients with chronic renal impairment may have elevated levels of creatinine and urea, which can affect the clearance of drugs like metformin. Current guidelines recommend discontinuing metformin if creatinine levels exceed 150 µmol/L to prevent life-threatening lactic acidosis. This complication was traditionally thought to be caused by an accumulation of the drug, but recent studies suggest that tissue hypoxia and other acute or chronic conditions may also play a role.

      Metformin is excreted unchanged in the urine, and its half-life is prolonged in patients with decreased creatinine clearance. This can occur chronically in patients with chronic renal impairment or acutely with dehydration, shock, or intravascular administration of iodinated contrast agents. These factors can alter renal function and increase the risk of lactic acidosis.

      While some conditions may act as triggers for lactic acidosis, such as sepsis, acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, cardiac failure, and chronic liver disease, it is unlikely that the patient in this case has renal artery stenosis requiring the withdrawal of the ACEi. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients with chronic renal impairment who are taking metformin and adjust their dosage or discontinue the drug if necessary to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled flinging movements of the right arm that ceased during sleep. What could be the probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral subthalamic nucleus infarction

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus and its Causes

      Hemiballismus is a medical condition characterized by involuntary flinging motions of the extremities, which can be violent and continuous. It usually affects only one side of the body and can involve proximal, distal, or facial muscles. The movements worsen with activity and decrease with relaxation. This condition is caused by a decrease in activity of the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia, which results in decreased suppression of involuntary movements.

      Hemiballismus can be caused by a variety of factors, including strokes, traumatic brain activity, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, hyperglycemia, malignancy, vascular malformations, tuberculomas, and demyelinating plaques. In patients with diabetes, it is likely due to a vascular event in the contralateral subthalamic nucleus.

      Treatment for hemiballismus should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause. If pharmacological treatment is necessary, an antidopaminergic such as haloperidol or chlorpromazine may be used. Other options include topiramate, intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin, and tetrabenazine. In cases where other treatments have failed, functional neurosurgery may be an option.

      In summary, hemiballismus is a condition that causes involuntary flinging motions of the extremities and can be caused by various factors. Treatment should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause, and pharmacological and surgical options may be necessary in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman is undergoing investigation by her GP for potential issues in...

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    • A 55-year-old woman is undergoing investigation by her GP for potential issues in her hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were recorded:
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.2 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l)
      fT4 8.0 pmol/l (9.0-26.0 pmol/l)
      fT3 3.5 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l)
      What condition is indicated by these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders: Understanding the Different Presentations

      Thyroid disorders can present with various symptoms and laboratory findings. Here are some of the common presentations of different thyroid disorders:

      Hypothyroidism: This condition is characterized by elevated TSH and low fT4 levels. It is more common in females and occurs mainly in middle life. The elevated TSH is due to reduced negative feedback at the level of the pituitary.

      Thyroid Hormone Resistance: In this condition, TSH and fT4 levels are raised. Thyroid hormone resistance results in decreased response to a given thyroid hormone, which prompts the thyroid axis to increase TSH and fT4 levels. The patient may not be symptomatic and may even present hypothyroid clinically.

      Hyperthyroidism: This condition is characterized by low TSH and usually raised fT4 and fT3 levels.

      Pituitary TSH-Secreting Tumour: This condition presents with raised TSH and fT4 levels.

      Subclinical Hypothyroidism: This condition presents with elevated TSH but normal fT4 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior...

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    • A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior medical history has been unremarkable and his immunisations are up-to-date. The mother is concerned about his growth. After you determine that the baby has grown appropriately since the last visit and is unchanged from the 50th centile, you provide the mother with advice regarding growth.
      What signalling pathway does growth hormone (GH) use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A tyrosine kinase receptor that uses the JAK/STAT pathway

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Second Messenger Systems and Receptor Types in Hormonal Signaling

      Hormones utilize various signaling pathways to transmit their messages to target cells. One important aspect of hormonal signaling is the use of second messengers, which relay the hormone signal from the cell surface to the intracellular environment. Here, we compare and contrast the second messenger systems and receptor types used by different hormones.

      Growth hormone (GH) and prolactin both use the tyrosine kinase receptor, followed by activation of Janus kinase (JAK), signal transduction, and activation of transcription (STAT). In contrast, platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), fibroblast growth factor (FGF), insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and insulin use the MAP kinase or RAS system. Aldosterone uses steroid receptors, while GH uses the tyrosine kinase receptor.

      Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) works as a second messenger for hypothalamic hormones such as gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), and pituitary hormones such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin.

      Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) is a second messenger that activates protein kinases and mediates endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), and nitric oxide.

      Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) is a second messenger of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and several other hormones, but not GH.

      In summary, different hormones use distinct second messenger systems and receptor types to transmit their signals, highlighting the complexity and diversity of hormonal signaling pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of sweating, tremors, and palpitations that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of sweating, tremors, and palpitations that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. The patient is currently 7 months pregnant and has no significant medical history. Upon examination, the patient has bulging eyes, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and a small goitre. The following laboratory results were obtained:
      - Free T4: 42 pmol/l (normal range: 11-22 pmol/l)
      - Free T3: 16 pmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5 pmol/l)
      - Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): <0.01 µU/l (normal range: 0.17-3.2 µU/l)
      - TSH receptor antibody (TRAb): 20 U/l (normal range: <0.9 U/l)
      What treatment should be recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing signs of an overactive thyroid, likely due to Graves’ disease. Propranolol can provide temporary relief, but long-term treatment involves blocking the thyroid gland with carbimazole or replacing thyroid hormones with thyroxine. Ibuprofen is not indicated for this condition. Tri-iodothyronine is more potent than thyroxine but less stable, making thyroxine the preferred hormone replacement medication. Propylthiouracil can also be used to block thyroid hormone formation, but its use in the first trimester of pregnancy is avoided due to potential teratogenic effects. PTU can be used in pregnancy, but only at the lowest effective dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of tingling in both hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has been progressively worsening. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum IGF1 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for investigating pituitary tumors, which are a common cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to assess whether a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not specific to acromegaly and is part of the physical exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old male with a six year history of type 2 diabetes has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a six year history of type 2 diabetes has been diagnosed with ischaemic heart disease and started taking atorvastatin 80 mg daily to manage his cholesterol level of 6.2 mmol/L. However, he has returned to the clinic complaining of muscle aches and pains, and his liver function tests have shown elevated levels from his baseline. His pre-treatment ALT was 60 IU/L, and now it is 95 IU/L. He is concerned about the side effects of the statin and asks if he should stop taking it. What is the most appropriate next step to manage his hypercholesterolaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 40 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Statin Intolerance in Patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus are recommended to receive high-dose statins to manage their elevated cholesterol levels. However, some patients may experience intolerance to statins, such as myalgia and raised liver function tests. In such cases, NICE advises reducing the dose or considering an alternative statin. Fibrate and ezetimibe are generally not recommended for these patients, and referral to a specialist may be necessary if statins are completely not tolerated.

      To minimize the risk of side effects, starting at a low dose and gradually titrating up can be helpful. Rosuvastatin and pravastatin may have a lower incidence of myalgia compared to other statins. However, cautious monitoring of liver function tests should be performed if starting another statin. If a patient has a history of statin-related hepatitis or rhabdomyolysis, statins should generally be avoided in the future if possible.

      In summary, managing statin intolerance in patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of alternative options and cautious monitoring of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of headaches and tiredness during exercise for the past three weeks. He is a smoker of five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol each week. There is no significant family history. On examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 182/102 mmHg. However, there are no abnormalities on examination of heart, chest, or abdomen. The investigations reveal a sodium level of 144 mmol/L (137-144), haemoglobin level of 155 g/L (130-180), potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), white cell count of 8.2 ×109/L (4-11), urea level of 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), platelet count of 188 ×109/L (150-400), creatinine level of 90 µmol/L (60-110), and glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). The ECG shows tall R waves in leads V5-6 and deep S waves in leads V1-2. The chest x-ray is reported as normal. What possible diagnosis would you consider for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hypertension and Hypokalaemia: Possible Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      This patient is showing signs of hypertension, as indicated by the left ventricular hypertrophy on their ECG. Additionally, their hypertension is accompanied by hypokalaemia, which may suggest a diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome. This condition is caused by excessive production of aldosterone from either an adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, resulting in salt and water retention, hypertension, and potassium excretion leading to hypokalaemia. In some cases, primary hyperaldosteronism has been detected in up to 5% of patients in hypertension clinics. It is important to investigate potential secondary causes for hypertension, particularly in young or difficult-to-control hypertensive patients. Renal artery stenosis is unlikely to cause such severe hypokalaemia, and one would expect a mildly elevated creatinine if it were severe enough to cause hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe depression and a radical mastectomy...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe depression and a radical mastectomy for breast carcinoma one year ago presents with complaints of polyuria, nocturia, and excessive thirst. Her laboratory values show a serum sodium of 130 mmol/L (133-145), serum potassium of 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-5), serum calcium of 2.2 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), glucose of 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-6), urea of 4.3 mmol/L (3-8), and urine osmolality of 150 mosmol/kg (350-1000). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic polydipsia

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic Polydipsia

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a rare condition where a person drinks excessive amounts of water without any physiological reason to do so. This disorder is usually well-tolerated unless it leads to hyponatremia. Psychogenic polydipsia is commonly observed in hospitalized schizophrenics, depressed patients, and children. The diagnosis of this condition is made by excluding other possible causes and requires specialized investigation and management. The water deprivation test is the most important test for diagnosing psychogenic polydipsia.

      In contrast, diabetes insipidus is a condition caused by a lack of action of ADH, which results in high osmolality and high sodium levels, leading to dehydration. This condition causes inappropriately dilute urine. To exclude diabetes insipidus, a water deprivation test is required. However, in patients with psychogenic polydipsia, the urine becomes appropriately concentrated upon water deprivation, whereas in diabetes insipidus, the urine remains dilute.

      In this patient, the history of depression, relative dilution of sodium, and low urine osmolality suggest a diagnosis of psychogenic polydipsia. The presence of hyponatremia further supports this diagnosis. Therefore, it is important to consider psychogenic polydipsia as a possible cause of excessive water drinking in patients with hyponatremia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of his type 2 diabetes. He was diagnosed with diabetes eight months ago and has been taking metformin 1 g twice daily. His BMI is 30 kg/m2. The results of his laboratory tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      HbA1C 62 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 92 ml/min > 90 ml/min
      What would be the most appropriate choice for managing this patient's diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Comparing Anti-Diabetic Medications: Choosing the Best Option for a Patient with High BMI

      When selecting an anti-diabetic medication for a patient with a high BMI, it is important to consider the potential for weight gain and hypoglycaemia. Here, we compare four options:

      1. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor: This medication sustains the release of insulin and lowers blood sugar levels without causing weight gain.

      2. Sulfonylurea: This medication stimulates the release of insulin and is often used as a second-line agent, but can cause weight gain.

      3. Acarbose: This medication does not significantly improve glucose control and can exacerbate gastrointestinal side-effects when used with metformin.

      4. Insulin basal bolus regimen and pre-mixed insulin 70:30: These options provide optimal glucose control but carry the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.

      For this patient, a DPP4 inhibitor is the best option as it provides additional glucose control without causing weight gain. Sulfonylurea may also be considered, but the risk of weight gain should be monitored. Insulin regimens are not necessary at this time, but may be considered in the future if oral medications do not provide adequate control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or treatment history. Her fasting blood glucose is 7.3 mmol/l. Other significant medical history included occasional diarrhoea in the last 4 months, for which she took repeated courses of tinidazole. She also had an episode of severe leg pain three months ago, for which she takes warfarin. She is presently very depressed, as her sister has had renal calculus surgery, which has not gone well; she is in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with sepsis.
      What is the most appropriate next test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genetic study

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Possible Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 Syndrome

      A woman presents with new-onset diabetes, diarrhoea, and a past episode of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), along with a family history of renal calculi at a young age. These symptoms suggest the possibility of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) 1 syndrome, an autosomal dominant disease characterized by endocrine hyperfunction in various glands, particularly the parathyroid gland and enteropancreatic tumors. The most common tumors in the latter group are gastrinoma and insulinoma, with glucagonoma occurring rarely. Other symptoms may include depression, anemia, glossitis, and in rare cases, a skin manifestation called necrolytic migratory erythema.

      To confirm a diagnosis of MEN 1, a genetic study to detect MEN 1 gene mutation on chromosome 11 is the best option. A family history of renal stones, as in this case, is the most common manifestation of MEN 1.

      Other diagnostic tests, such as protein C assessment, colonoscopy, and blood test for Giardia antigen, are not relevant to this particular case. Measuring C-peptide levels can help distinguish between type I and type II diabetes or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), but it will not help in detecting the underlying disease. Giardiasis symptoms may include diarrhea, fatigue, abdominal cramps, bloating, gas, nausea, and weight loss, but tinidazole should have eliminated Giardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - What is the most frequent organic cause of anxiety symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent organic cause of anxiety symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Organic Causes of Anxiety

      Anxiety can be caused by various factors, including organic causes. One of the more common organic causes of anxiety is hypoglycaemia. However, there are other organic causes that can also lead to anxiety. These include alcohol withdrawal, drug intoxication or withdrawal, thyroxine, and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias. While phaeochromocytoma is a rare cause of anxiety, carcinoid does not cause anxiety at all. It is important to note that carcinoma of the bronchus and hyperparathyroidism are more likely to present with depression rather than anxiety.

      It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of anxiety to provide appropriate treatment. If an organic cause is suspected, further evaluation and testing may be necessary to determine the root cause of the anxiety. By addressing the underlying cause, it may be possible to alleviate or even eliminate the symptoms of anxiety. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible causes of anxiety, including organic causes, to provide the best possible care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old female presents with symptoms of weight loss and irritability. Upon conducting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents with symptoms of weight loss and irritability. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results reveal a Free T4 level of 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1), TSH level of <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50), and Free T3 level of 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5). During examination, the patient exhibits a fine tremor, pulse of 95 beats per minute, a smooth goitre with a bruit, and lid lag without any other eye signs. What is the most likely cause for these thyroid function test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      TFTs and Hyperthyroidism

      Thyroid function tests (TFTs) can help diagnose hyperthyroidism, which can be caused by Graves’ disease, Hashitoxicosis, or Multinodular goitre. However, the presence of a thyroid bruit, which suggests increased vascularity due to stimulation by a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibody, is a distinguishing feature of Graves’ disease. This condition is the only one where a thyroid bruit is expected. While eye signs such as proptosis, chemosis, and exophthalmos are common in Graves’ disease, they are not always present.

      Overall, TFTs are a useful tool in identifying hyperthyroidism, and the presence of a thyroid bruit can help differentiate between the different causes. However, other symptoms and signs, such as eye changes, may also be present and should be taken into consideration when making a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses worry about osteoporosis. He has questions about bone formation and calcium homeostasis, and you explain the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in regulating calcium levels.
      Which of the following statements about PTH is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It causes indirect osteoclastic activation via RANK-L

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) indirectly activates osteoclasts by increasing the production of RANK-L by osteoblasts. This leads to bone degradation and the release of calcium. PTH also decreases the release of osteoprotegerin, which is a decoy receptor for RANK-L. This further enhances osteoclast activity and bone degradation. Additionally, PTH causes a decrease in serum calcium by promoting calcium release from bone. It also enhances renal phosphate excretion by decreasing phosphate reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 39-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of sudden headaches accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of sudden headaches accompanied by sweating and palpitations. Upon examination, the patient appears anxious and has a pale complexion. His blood pressure measures 240/200 mmHg, and a 24-hour urine collection shows increased levels of catecholamines. What is the probable cause of this man's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hypertension: A Brief Overview

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common medical condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many possible causes of hypertension, some are more common than others. In this article, we will discuss some of the most common causes of hypertension and how to differentiate them.

      Phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the adrenal gland that can cause hypertension, headache, sweating, and anxiety. It is often associated with the 10% rule, which states that 10% of cases are extramedullary, 10% are malignant, 10% are familial, and 10% are bilateral.

      Conn syndrome, or primary aldosteronism, is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis. The most common causes are aldosterone-producing adenomas and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.

      Renal artery stenosis (RAS) is a major cause of renovascular hypertension. However, it is not associated with elevated catecholamines or the symptoms described.

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that can cause hypertension due to progressive kidney enlargement. However, patients with PKD do not have elevated catecholamine levels.

      Cushing syndrome is caused by prolonged hypercortisolism and can cause centripetal obesity, secondary hypertension, glucose intolerance, proximal myopathy, and hirsutism. Sweating, palpitations, and elevated catecholamines are not typical of hypercortisolism.

      In conclusion, hypertension can have many different causes, and it is important to differentiate them to provide appropriate treatment. By understanding the characteristic features of each condition, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting and dehydration. He reports a two-month history of weight loss and excessive thirst. Upon examination, the patient is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis, with a blood glucose level of 29.3 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), a pH of 7.12 (7.36-7.44) on blood gas analysis, and +++ ketones in the urine. What is the percentage of individuals with type 1 diabetes who are initially diagnosed after presenting with diabetic ketoacidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Dangerous Complication of Type 1 Diabetes

      Approximately one quarter of patients with type 1 diabetes will experience their first symptoms in the form of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). However, it is important to note that these individuals may have previously ignored symptoms such as thirst, frequent urination, and weight loss. DKA is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of diabetes that is characterized by high blood sugar levels, lactic acidosis, vomiting, and dehydration. It is crucial for individuals with type 1 diabetes to be aware of the signs and symptoms of DKA and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may be experiencing this condition. Proper management and treatment of DKA can help prevent serious complications and improve overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 44-year-old chronic smoker was diagnosed with lung cancer 6 months ago after...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old chronic smoker was diagnosed with lung cancer 6 months ago after presenting with weight loss, haemoptysis, and shortness of breath. He returns to the Emergency Department complaining of nausea and lethargy that have been worsening over the past 3 weeks. While waiting to see the doctor, he has a seizure. He has a history of hypertension. The following are the results of his investigations:
      Investigations Results Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 120 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Serum osmolality 250 mOsmol/kg 280–290 mOsmol/kg
      Urine osmolality 1500 mOsmol/kg 50–1200 mOsmol/kg
      Haematocrit 27%

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic secretion (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Secretion (SIADH)

      The patient in this scenario is likely experiencing a seizure due to hyponatremia caused by Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Secretion (SIADH). SIADH is characterized by hyponatremia, serum hypo-osmolality, urine hyperosmolality, and a decreased hematocrit. The patient’s history of lung cancer is a clue to the underlying cause.

      Epilepsy is unlikely as there is no history of seizures mentioned. Central diabetes insipidus presents with hypernatremia, serum hyperosmolality, and urine hypo-osmolality, while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus presents with the same clinical picture. Psychogenic polydipsia is also ruled out as patients with this condition produce hypotonic urine, not hypertonic urine as seen in this patient’s presentation.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of SIADH is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute agitation, fever, nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute agitation, fever, nausea and vomiting. On examination, she is disorientated and agitated, with a temperature of 40 °C and heart rate of 130 bpm, irregular pulse, and congestive cardiac failure. She has a history of hyperthyroidism due to Graves’ disease, neutropenia and agranulocytosis, and cognitive impairment. She lives alone. Laboratory investigations reveal the following results:
      Test Result Normal reference range
      Free T4 > 100 pmol/l 11–22 pmol/l
      Free T3 > 30 pmol/l 3.5–5 pmol/l
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) < 0.01 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      TSH receptor antibody > 30 U/l < 0.9 U/l

      What should be included in the management plan for this 68-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propylthiouracil, iodine, propranolol, hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Thyroid Storm in Graves’ Disease Patients

      Thyroid storm is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention in patients with Graves’ disease. The following are some treatment options for thyroid storm and their potential effects on the patient’s condition.

      Propylthiouracil, iodine, propranolol, hydrocortisone:
      This combination of medications can help inhibit the synthesis of new thyroid hormone, tone down the severe adrenergic response, and prevent T4 from being converted to the more potent T3. Propylthiouracil and iodine block the synthesis of new thyroid hormone, while propranolol and hydrocortisone help decrease the heart rate and blood pressure.

      Carbimazole, iodine, tri-iodothyronine:
      Carbimazole and iodine can inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormone, but tri-iodothyronine is very potent and would do the opposite of the therapeutic aim.

      Esmolol, thyroxine, dexamethasone:
      Esmolol and dexamethasone can tone down the severe adrenergic response and prevent T4 from being turned into T3. However, thyroxine would do the opposite of the therapeutic aim and make the situation worse.

      Lugol’s iodine, furosemide, thyroxine:
      Lugol’s iodine can be used to treat hyperthyroidism, but furosemide is not appropriate for addressing thyroid storm. Thyroxine would make the situation worse.

      Prednisolone, paracetamol, tri-iodothyronine:
      Prednisolone can prevent T4 from being converted to T3, but it is usually available in oral form and may not be efficient in addressing thyroid storm. Tri-iodothyronine would exacerbate the patient’s condition, and paracetamol is not indicated for this condition.

      In conclusion, the treatment options for thyroid storm in Graves’ disease patients depend on the patient’s condition and medical history. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

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  • Question 19 - Which hormone is responsible for the excess in Cushing's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is responsible for the excess in Cushing's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s Disease

      Cushing’s disease is a condition characterized by excessive cortisol production due to adrenal hyperfunction caused by an overproduction of ACTH from a pituitary corticotrophin adenoma. This results in both adrenal glands producing more cortisol and cortisol precursors. It is important to differentiate between primary and secondary hypercortisolaemia, which can be done by measuring ACTH levels in the blood. If ACTH levels are not suppressed, it indicates secondary hypercortisolaemia, which is driven by either pituitary or ectopic ACTH production. the underlying cause of hypercortisolaemia is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for individuals with Cushing’s disease.

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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of weight loss, fatigue, heart palpitations,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of weight loss, fatigue, heart palpitations, excessive sweating, and a lump in her throat that has been present for 2 months. After conducting tests, the doctor discovers a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Thyroid Disorders: Carbimazole, Thyroxine, Carbamazepine, Surgery, and Radionuclide Iodine

      Thyroid disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and require different treatment options depending on the diagnosis. Primary hyperthyroidism, caused by a disorder of the thyroid gland itself, is confirmed with raised serum levels of fT3/fT4 and a suppressed/reduced TSH. Symptoms include sweating, weight loss, palpitations, a goitre, hyperactivity, insomnia, emotional lability, reduced libido, heat intolerance, diarrhoea, increased appetite and menstrual irregularities. First-line treatment is with a thionamide such as carbimazole, which inhibits the thyroid peroxidase enzyme involved in the production and release of thyroid hormones. However, carbimazole is associated with serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, angioedema, lymphadenopathy, hepatic disorders and acute pancreatitis.

      Thyroxine is prescribed for patients with hypothyroidism, in which case the TSH would be raised and the T3/T4 hormones low. Symptoms of hypothyroidism include weight gain, constipation, oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea, cold intolerance, tiredness, depression, brittle hair and nails, as well as muscle weakness. Thyroxine is contraindicated in patients with hyperthyroidism as it worsens their symptoms and might precipitate a thyroid storm.

      Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication used in the treatment of epilepsy. It is a sodium channel blocker that prevents sodium binding and repetitive firing of action potentials. However, one of the most serious side effects associated with the use of carbamazepine is Stevens–Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. It can be licensed for use in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy and treatment of patients with bipolar disorder that is resistant to lithium.

      Surgery is not first line for hyperthyroidism unless there is compression or compromise of the airway, medication has failed to control symptoms, or there is a concurrent suspicious or malignant thyroid nodule. Thyroidectomy has complications such as hypocalcaemia due to the removal of the parathyroid glands, vocal cord paralysis and hypothyroidism. Following a thyroidectomy, the patient will need to go on lifelong thyroid replacement therapy.

      Radionu

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