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Question 1
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Sarah is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with you. She is in a committed relationship with another woman and they have regular unprotected intercourse. Sarah has no medical history and is currently undergoing gender reassignment using oestrogen and antiandrogen therapy, but has not had any surgical interventions yet. What would be the most suitable form of contraception to recommend for Sarah?
Your Answer: Barrier methods such as condoms
Explanation:If a patient was assigned male at birth and is undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone, there may be a decrease or cessation of sperm production. However, this cannot be considered a reliable method of contraception. In the case of a trans female patient, who was assigned male at birth, hormonal treatments cannot be relied upon for contraception. There is a possibility of her female partner becoming pregnant, and therefore, barrier methods are recommended. Hormonal contraceptives are not suitable for this patient, and the copper IUD is not an option as she does not have a uterus.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.
For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.
For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.
In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.
Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception options. She has been relying on barrier methods but is now interested in exploring long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs), specifically the progesterone-only depo injection. What medical conditions would make this method of contraception unsuitable for her?
Your Answer: A body mass index of 40 kg/m²
Correct Answer: Current breast cancer
Explanation:Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A pair of individuals in their mid-thirties visit their GP seeking guidance on fertility. They have been engaging in unprotected sexual activity thrice a week for a year. The GP recommends conducting a semen analysis and measuring serum progesterone levels. What is the optimal time to measure serum progesterone levels?
Your Answer: On day 21 of the menstrual cycle
Correct Answer: 7 days prior to the expected next period
Explanation:To confirm ovulation, it is recommended to take a serum progesterone level 7 days before the expected next period. If the level is above 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation and other causes of infertility should be considered. However, if the level is below 30 nmol/l, it does not necessarily exclude the possibility of ovulation, but repeat testing is required. If the level remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. It is important to note that the length of a menstrual cycle can vary, so 7 days prior to the next period is a more accurate time to take the test than relying on day 21 of a 28-day cycle.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently on day 14 of her regular 28-30 day cycle and has no medical history or regular medications. She desires a method that is effective immediately and does not require daily attention. What contraceptive option would be suitable for her?
Your Answer: Progesterone only pill
Correct Answer: Intrauterine device
Explanation:If a woman is not starting her contraceptive method on the first day of her period, the time until it becomes effective varies. The only option that is effective immediately is an intrauterine device (IUD), which is a T-shaped device containing copper that is inserted into the uterus. Other methods, such as the progesterone-only pill (POP), combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, and intrauterine system (IUS), require a certain amount of time before they become effective. The POP requires 2 days, while the COC, injection, implant, and IUS all require 7 days before they become effective. It’s important to consider the effectiveness and convenience of each method before choosing the best option.
Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman undergoes a smear test, which reveals an ulcerated lesion on her cervix. The lesion was confirmed to be squamous cell carcinoma.
With which virus is this patient most likely infected?Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Explanation:Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix is often caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly strains 16 and 18. HPV infects the host and interferes with genes that regulate cell growth, leading to uncontrolled growth and inhibition of apoptosis. This results in precancerous lesions that can progress to carcinoma. Risk factors for cervical carcinoma include smoking, low socio-economic status, use of the contraceptive pill, early sexual activity, co-infection with HIV, and a family history of cervical carcinoma. HIV is not the cause of cervical squamous cell carcinoma, but co-infection with HIV increases the risk of HPV infection. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with other types of cancer, but not cervical squamous cell carcinoma. Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium associated with genitourinary infections, while herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes painful ulceration of the genital tract but is not associated with cervical carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old female visits the clinic with a complaint of urinary incontinence. She reports experiencing unintentional urine leakage when coughing or laughing. No urinary urgency or nocturia is reported, and a routine pelvic exam reveals no abnormalities. Despite consistent pelvic floor muscle exercises for the past five months, the patient's symptoms have not improved. She expresses a desire to avoid surgical interventions. What is the most suitable treatment option for this patient?
Your Answer: Retropubic mid-urethral tape procedure
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:For patients with stress incontinence who do not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and decline surgery, duloxetine may be a suitable option. However, if urge incontinence is the main issue, antimuscarinic (oxybutynin) or beta-3 agonist (mirabegron) medications may be more appropriate. In this case, since the patient has not seen improvement with pelvic floor muscle training and has declined surgery, duloxetine would be the best choice.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman, who previously had a negative HPV smear, has been requested to visit the General Practice Surgery to discuss the outcome of her recent smear. The results letter states that she is 'human papillomavirus negative'. As per NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer back to routine screening, repeat in three years
Explanation:Cervical Screening and Referral Guidelines
Routine Screening and Recall
Women between the ages of 25 and 49 are screened for cervical cancer every three years. If a smear sample is negative for high-risk (HR) human papillomavirus (HPV), the patient is referred back to routine recall according to her age group.
Referral to Colposcopy
If reflex HR HPV testing is positive, the patient is referred to colposcopy for further assessment within six weeks. Women with high-grade dyskaryosis or abnormalities in glandular cells are referred to colposcopy as urgent appointments to be seen within two weeks. Women with borderline or mild dyskaryosis and who are HR HPV positive are referred to colposcopy as routine appointments to be seen within six weeks.
HPV Test of Cure
Women who have undergone treatment for cervical disease are offered an HPV test of cure six months after treatment. If the test is negative for dyskaryosis and HR HPV, the woman is recalled in three years. If the 6-month post-treatment test is negative for dyskaryosis but positive for HR HPV, the woman is re-referred to colposcopy. If there is evidence of high-grade dyskaryosis, the woman is referred back to colposcopy for reassessment.
Recall Frequency
Women aged 25-49 are recalled for routine screening every three years. Women aged 50-64 are recalled every five years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of menorrhagia. She reports that her periods have been lasting for 10 days and are very heavy. She denies any recent weight loss and her recent sexual health screening was negative. On examination, there are no abnormalities. She has completed her family and has two children. What is the initial treatment option for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena coil)
Explanation:For patients with menorrhagia who have completed their family and do not have any underlying pathology, pharmaceutical therapy is recommended. The first-line management for these patients, according to NICE CKS, is the Mirena coil, provided that long-term contraception with an intrauterine device is acceptable.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She experiences intense one-sided headaches and reports a tingling sensation that travels up her arm before the headache begins. She smokes 10-20 cigarettes on most weekends and has a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her younger sister has a history of thromboembolic disease. What specific aspect of her medical history is the most significant contraindication for prescribing the combined oral contraceptive?
Your Answer: Family history
Correct Answer: Migraine with aura
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms indicate that they may be suffering from migraine, specifically migraine with aura. This condition is classified as UKMEC 4, meaning that it poses a significant health risk when taking combined oral contraceptive pills. While visual disturbances are the most common aura symptoms, some patients may experience sensory or motor symptoms such as tingling, weakness, or difficulty speaking. While other factors in the patient’s medical history may also be relevant, migraine with aura is the primary concern when considering contraception options.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking family planning options that won't affect her sexual activity and can be reversed if needed. She reports experiencing irregular, painful, and heavy menstrual periods, but is in good health otherwise. The healthcare provider recommends starting the COCP as it is safe for her and may alleviate her symptoms. What other health advantages could this medication offer?
Your Answer: Decreased risk of cervical cancer
Correct Answer: Decreased risk of endometrial cancer
Explanation:The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is a highly effective birth control method that contains both oestrogen and progesterone. Studies have shown that the use of COCP can increase or decrease the risk of certain cancers. It has been found that the use of COCP can decrease the risk of endometrial cancer by suppressing the growth of endometrial cells. However, prolonged use of COCP has been associated with an increased risk of breast cancer, as synthetic hormones in the pill may stimulate the growth of breast cancer cells. Similarly, the use of COCP has been linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer, as it may make cervical cells more susceptible to human papillomavirus infections. It is important to note that COCP does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections. Additionally, the use of oestrogen-containing contraception has been associated with an increased risk of strokes and ischaemic heart disease, particularly in patients with additional risk factors such as smoking and diabetes. The exact mechanism for this increased risk is not yet clear, but it may be due to increased blood pressure and/or hypercoagulation.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman has been experiencing a sensation of dragging, which improves when lying down. According to the Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POPQ), her cervix is prolapsed 0.8 cm below the hymen level during straining. What is her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stage 4 prolapse
Correct Answer: Stage 2 prolapse
Explanation:Understanding Different Stages of Pelvic Organ Prolapse
Pelvic organ prolapse (POP) is a common condition among women, especially those who have given birth or gone through menopause. It occurs when the pelvic organs, such as the uterus, bladder, or rectum, descend from their normal position and bulge into the vaginal canal. The severity of POP is classified into four stages based on the distance of the prolapse from the hymen.
Stage 1 prolapse is the mildest form, where the cervix descends more than 1 cm above the hymen. Stage 2 prolapse is when the most distal prolapse is between 1 cm above and 1 cm below the level of the hymen. Stage 3 prolapse is when the prolapse extends more than 1 cm below the hymen but not completely outside the vaginal opening. Finally, stage 4 prolapse is the most severe form, where there is complete eversion of the vagina.
Another type of POP is called enterocoele or enterocele, which occurs when the small intestine descends into the lower pelvic cavity and pushes into the upper vaginal wall. This can cause discomfort, pain, and difficulty with bowel movements.
In rare cases, a condition called procidentia can occur, where the uterus and cervix protrude from the introitus, resulting in thickened vaginal mucous and ulceration. This is a severe form of POP that requires immediate medical attention.
It is important for women to be aware of the different stages of POP and seek medical advice if they experience any symptoms, such as pelvic pressure, discomfort, or difficulty with urination or bowel movements. Treatment options may include pelvic floor exercises, pessaries, or surgery, depending on the severity of the prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood during her menstrual cycle. She has been experiencing symptoms for the past 8 months despite making lifestyle changes. The week before her period, she notices a significant change in her mood, feeling extremely low and anxious with poor concentration. Her irritability is starting to affect her work as a primary school teacher. She has no other physical symptoms and feels like her usual self for the rest of the month. She has a medical history of migraine with aura.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mirena intrauterine system (IUS)
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman is considering artificial insemination. What is the most reliable blood hormone marker for predicting ovulation?
Your Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH)
Explanation:Hormones Involved in the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is regulated by a complex interplay of hormones. Here are the key hormones involved and their functions:
Luteinising hormone (LH): This hormone triggers ovulation by causing the release of an egg from the ovary. An LH surge occurs prior to ovulation, and ovulation occurs about 12 hours after the peak in LH.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): FSH stimulates the development of follicles in the ovary. It peaks on day 3 of the menstrual cycle.
Oestrogen: Oestrogen is responsible for the growth of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus.
Progesterone: After ovulation, progesterone induces secretory activity of the endometrial glands in anticipation of implantation.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG): If fertilisation occurs, the developing conceptus begins to secrete hCG from the syncytiotrophoblast. This hormone is a convenient marker for pregnancy, not ovulation.
Understanding the roles of these hormones can help women better understand their menstrual cycle and fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for her routine cervical smear, which is performed without any complications. She receives a notification that her cervical smear is negative for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV).
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 5 years
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years
Explanation:If the sample is negative for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient should return to routine recall for their next cervical smear in 3 years, according to current guidance. Cytological examination is not necessary in this case as it is only performed if the hrHPV test is positive. Repeating the cervical smear in 3 months or 5 years is not appropriate as these are not the recommended timeframes for recall. Repeating the cervical smear after 12 months is only indicated if the previous smear was hrHPV positive but without cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman visits her GP 10 days after giving birth and reports a continuous pink vaginal discharge with a foul odor. During the examination, the GP notes a pulse rate of 90 / min, a temperature of 38.2ºC, and diffuse suprapubic tenderness. The uterus feels generally tender upon vaginal examination, while the breast examination is unremarkable. The urine dipstick shows blood ++. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Arrange urgent ultrasound to exclude retained products + send MSSU + take high vaginal swab
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Understanding Puerperal Pyrexia
Puerperal pyrexia is a condition that occurs when a woman experiences a fever of more than 38ºC within the first 14 days after giving birth. The most common cause of this condition is endometritis, which is an infection of the lining of the uterus. Other causes include urinary tract infections, wound infections, mastitis, and venous thromboembolism.
If a woman is suspected of having endometritis, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics such as clindamycin and gentamicin until the patient is afebrile for more than 24 hours. It is important to note that puerperal pyrexia can be a serious condition and should not be ignored. By understanding the causes and seeking prompt medical attention, women can receive the necessary treatment to recover from this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of feeling generally unwell. She reports discomfort and distension in her abdomen, as well as loose stools and dyspnea on exertion. Upon examination, there is generalised abdominal tenderness without guarding, and all observations are within normal range. The patient is currently undergoing fertility treatment and received a gonadorelin analogue injection the previous week. What is the most probable diagnosis based on this information?
Your Answer: Ovarian cyst rupture
Correct Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
Explanation:Ovulation induction can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) as a potential side effect. The symptoms of OHSS often involve gastrointestinal discomfort such as bloating, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Additionally, patients may experience shortness of breath, fever, peripheral edema, and oliguria. OHSS can range in severity from mild to life-threatening, with complications such as dehydration, thromboembolism, acute kidney injury (AKI), and pulmonary edema. Severe OHSS typically has a delayed onset compared to milder cases. In the given scenario, the patient received a GnRH agonist injection within the past week, indicating that her symptoms may be less severe.
Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman goes to her doctor's office. She had a termination of pregnancy two weeks ago at 8 weeks gestation. She calls the doctor's office, worried because her home pregnancy test is still positive. What is the maximum amount of time after a termination that a positive pregnancy test is considered normal?
Your Answer: 6 weeks
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. However, if the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it could indicate an incomplete abortion or a persistent trophoblast, which requires further examination. Therefore, any other options suggesting otherwise are incorrect.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits your gynaecology clinic for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with a symptomatic 6mm intramural fibroid. She has been experiencing this issue for several months and is being considered for surgery as a result. Since she has not yet finished having children, an open myomectomy has been determined to be the best surgical option. What is a typical complication that can occur after this procedure?
Your Answer: Adhesions
Explanation:Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss contraception options. She expresses interest in using the progesterone-only pill as her preferred method of birth control. During the consultation, the doctor informs her about the potential benefits and risks of this contraceptive method, including an elevated risk of ectopic pregnancy. What other factor is known to increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy?
Your Answer: Corpus luteal cyst
Correct Answer: Use of intrauterine device
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition where a fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. While there are several risk factors associated with ectopic pregnancy, some common misconceptions exist. Here are some important facts to keep in mind:
Methods of contraception, such as intrauterine devices (IUDs), do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. However, IUDs can cause side effects such as irregular bleeding and pelvic pain.
The combined oral contraceptive pill can cause various side effects, but ectopic pregnancy is not one of them.
Subserosal fibroids and corpus luteal cysts can cause abdominal pain and other symptoms, but they do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Previous miscarriage is not a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy, but it can increase the risk of future miscarriages.
It’s important to understand the true risk factors for ectopic pregnancy in order to make informed decisions about contraception and reproductive health. If you experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or shoulder pain, seek medical attention immediately as these could be signs of ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her long-term partner approximately 12 hours ago. She has no medical or family history worth mentioning and is not currently using any form of contraception. Her BMI is 30 kg/m², and she does not smoke. What is the most efficient emergency contraception method for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral levonorgestrel
Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:According to the BNF, the copper intra-uterine device is the most efficient option for emergency contraception and should be offered to all eligible women seeking such services. Unlike other medications, its effectiveness is not influenced by BMI. Additionally, it provides long-term contraception, which is an added advantage for the patient. If the copper intra-uterine device is not appropriate or acceptable to the patient, oral hormonal emergency contraception should be offered. However, the effectiveness of these contraceptives is reduced in patients with a high BMI. A double dose of levonorgestrel is recommended for patients with a BMI of over 26 kg/m² or body weight greater than 70kg. It is unclear which of the two oral hormonal contraceptives is more effective for patients with a raised BMI. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system and ethinylestradiol with levonorgestrel are not suitable for emergency contraception. In conclusion, the copper intrauterine device is the most effective method for this patient because it is not affected by BMI, unlike oral hormonal emergency contraceptives.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An 18 year old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain that occurs towards the end of every month. Despite having secondary sexual characteristics, she has not yet started menstruating. She confirms that she is not sexually active and a pregnancy test comes back negative. What is the most probable diagnosis for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Bicornuate uterus
Correct Answer: Imperforate hymen
Explanation:Based on the given history, it appears that there is a blockage preventing the normal flow of menstrual blood. This is indicated by the presence of secondary sexual characteristics and recurring abdominal pain. It can be ruled out that the cause of this condition is a bicornuate uterus, dermoid cysts, endometriosis, or pelvic inflammatory disease, as these are not associated with primary amenorrhoea.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. She had her last menstrual period at the age of 48 and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding since then. The patient has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. She is currently taking a tiotropium/olodaterol inhaler and lansoprazole. She used to take the combined oral contraceptive pill for 20 years but did not undergo hormone replacement therapy. The patient has never been pregnant and has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. What is the most significant risk factor for her possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Use of the combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Nulliparity
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is more likely to occur in women who have never given birth. One of the warning signs of endometrial cancer is bleeding after menopause. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a known risk factor for endometrial cancer, but conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and polycystic ovary syndrome are. While late menopause can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, this patient experienced menopause at around age 50, which is slightly earlier than average. Smoking is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer, but it is associated with an increased risk of other types of cancer such as cervical, vulval, and breast cancer. On the other hand, taking the combined oral contraceptive pill can lower the risk of endometrial cancer, but it may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old student contacts the GP telephone clinic seeking advice. Her housemate has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis and she has been prescribed ciprofloxacin as a preventive measure. However, she is hesitant to take it as she fears it may interfere with the effectiveness of her contraceptive pill. She has a medical history of migraine with aura, but no allergies. Although she is unsure about the type of contraceptive pill she uses, she takes it daily without any breaks. What precautions should she take regarding her contraceptive pill while taking ciprofloxacin?
Your Answer: Use barrier contraception during the course
Correct Answer: No change
Explanation:The patient is likely taking the progesterone-only contraceptive pill due to her history of migraine with aura and daily use of the contraceptive pill. According to the BNF, antibacterials that do not induce liver enzymes do not affect the effectiveness of oral progesterone-only preparations. As ciprofloxacin is a cytochrome P450 inhibitor and not an inducer, the patient’s contraception is not affected, and she does not require additional barrier contraception. However, if the patient were taking rifampicin, an alternative for meningococcal contact prophylaxis, she would need to use barrier contraception during and for four weeks after stopping treatment. Rifampicin is a potent enzyme inducer, which can decrease the plasma concentration and efficacy of contraceptive pills.
Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman had gone for her routine cervical smear and the result came back as inadequate. It was noted in her medical history that she had an inadequate smear 4 years ago but subsequent smears were fine. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 months
Explanation:If a cervical smear is inadequate, it is recommended to repeat the test within 3 months. This is the correct course of action for the patient in question, as her routine smear was deemed inadequate. Referral for colposcopy is not necessary at this stage, as it is only indicated if there are two consecutive inadequate smears that are 3 months apart. Waiting for 3 years to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as this is the interval for routine recall for a patient of her age. Similarly, waiting for 6 or 12 months to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as these timeframes are only indicated for specific circumstances such as testing for cure following treatment or if the most recent smear was hrHPV positive without cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 38-year-old African-Caribbean woman presents to Gynaecology Outpatients with heavy periods. She has always experienced heavy periods, but over the past few years, they have become increasingly severe. She now needs to change a pad every hour and sometimes experiences leaking and clots. The bleeding can last for up to 10 days, and she often needs to take time off work. Although there is mild abdominal cramping, there is no bleeding after sex. She is feeling increasingly fatigued and unhappy, especially as she was hoping to have another child. She has one child who is 7 years old, and she had a vaginal delivery. Her periods are regular, and she is not using any contraception. On examination, she appears well, with a soft abdomen, and a vaginal examination reveals a uterus the size of 10 weeks. Her blood tests show a haemoglobin level of 9, and the results of a pelvic ultrasound scan are pending.
What is the most appropriate management option based on the clinical information and expected ultrasound results?Your Answer: Myomectomy
Explanation:Treatment options for menorrhagia caused by fibroids in a patient hoping to conceive
Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, can be caused by fibroids in the uterus. In a patient hoping to conceive, treatment options must be carefully considered. One option is myomectomy, which involves removing the fibroids while preserving the uterus. However, this procedure can lead to heavy bleeding during surgery and may result in a hysterectomy. Endometrial ablation, which destroys the lining of the uterus, is not suitable for a patient hoping to have another child. Tranexamic acid may help reduce bleeding, but it may not be a definitive treatment if the fibroids are large or in a problematic location. Laparoscopic hysterectomy, which removes the uterus, is a definitive treatment for menorrhagia but is not suitable for a patient hoping to conceive. The Mirena® intrauterine system is an effective treatment for menorrhagia but is not suitable for a patient hoping to conceive. Ultimately, the best treatment option for this patient will depend on the size and location of the fibroids and the patient’s desire to conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 26-year-old female presents with a one day history of dysuria and urinary frequency. She was diagnosed with a simple urinary tract infection and prescribed a three day course of ciprofloxacin. She returns two weeks later with new onset vaginal discharge. A whiff test is negative and no clue cells are observed on microscopy.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: The patients vaginal discharge is most likely caused by a fungal infection
Explanation:Thrush, also known as candidal infection, is a prevalent condition that is often triggered or worsened by recent use of antibiotics. Therefore, it is the most probable reason for the symptoms in this case. It should be noted that urinary tract infections do not typically cause vaginal discharge.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your GP office on Monday morning, concerned that she removed her week 2 contraceptive patch on Friday evening and was unable to get a replacement over the weekend. She has not engaged in sexual activity in the past two weeks.
What is the best course of action to take?Your Answer: Replace patch immediately, no additional precautions required
Correct Answer: No emergency contraception required, but apply new patch and advise barrier contraception for the next 7 days
Explanation:If there has been a delay in changing the patch for over 48 hours but no sexual activity has occurred within the past 10 days, emergency contraception is not necessary. However, the individual must use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and replace the patch immediately. If there is no sexual activity planned for the next 7 days, no further action is required, but it is important to advise the individual to use barrier contraception during this time. It is crucial to replace the patch as soon as possible to ensure effective contraceptive coverage.
The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman has been experiencing bloating and weight loss for the past 6 months. Her blood tests reveal a high CA-125 level. What type of cancer is typically associated with an elevated CA-125 in this age group?
Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:Tumour Markers for Different Types of Cancer
Tumour markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by the body in response to cancer. They can be detected in blood, urine, or tissue samples and can help in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some tumour markers for different types of cancer:
– Ovarian cancer: CA125 is highly suggestive of ovarian cancer.
– Colorectal cancer: CEA is a tumour marker for bowel cancer.
– Breast cancer: CA 15–3 is a tumour marker for breast cancer.
– Pancreatic cancer: CA19–9 is a tumour marker for pancreatic cancer.
– Rectal cancer: Unfortunately, there is no specific marker for rectal cancer.It is important to note that tumour markers are not always reliable and can be elevated in non-cancerous conditions as well. Therefore, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A mother of three brings her youngest daughter, aged 15, to the general practitioner (GP) as she is yet to start menstruating, whereas both her sisters had menarche at the age of 12.
The patient has developed secondary female sexual characteristics and has a normal height. She reports struggling with headaches and one episode of galactorrhoea.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals an intracranial tumour measuring 11 mm in maximal diameter.
Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the first-line management option?Your Answer: Surgery to remove the tumour
Correct Answer: Medical treatment with cabergoline
Explanation:The patient has primary amenorrhoea due to a macroprolactinoma, which is a benign prolactin-secreting tumor of the anterior pituitary gland. Treatment in the first instance is with a dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine or cabergoline. Surgery is the most appropriate management if conservative management fails or the patient presents with visual field defects. Radiotherapy is rarely used. Exclusion of pregnancy is the first step in every case of amenorrhoea. Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and a cause of hyperprolactinaemia, so it should not be used to treat this patient. Thyroxine is not appropriate as hyperprolactinaemia is secondary to a pituitary adenoma. Indications for surgery are failure to respond to medical therapy or presentation with acute visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill. He appears to have Gillick competency, but he reveals that his girlfriend is 24 and a teacher at a nearby private school. He confirms that she is not pregnant and that her last period was 3 weeks ago. He specifically requests that you do not inform anyone, including his mother who is also a patient of yours. How do you proceed?
Your Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent but explain you will still need to tell them if she doesn't consent
Explanation:According to the GMC guidelines in good medical practice for individuals aged 0-18 years, it is important to disclose information regarding any abusive or seriously harmful sexual activity involving a child or young person. This includes situations where the young person is too immature to understand or consent, there are significant differences in age, maturity, or power between sexual partners, the young person’s sexual partner holds a position of trust, force or the threat of force, emotional or psychological pressure, bribery or payment is used to engage in sexual activity or keep it secret, drugs or alcohol are used to influence a young person to engage in sexual activity, or the person involved is known to the police or child protection agencies for having abusive relationships with children or young people.
Failing to disclose this information or simply prescribing contraception and waiting for a review can put both the patient and other students at the boyfriend’s school in harm’s way due to his position of trust. While informing the boyfriend or his school may breach confidentiality and not address the issue of his job and relationship, it is important to take appropriate action to protect the safety and well-being of the young person involved.
When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.
It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history of heavy, painful periods. She reports regular periods, lasting seven days.
During the first three days, she has to wear both a tampon and sanitary pads and has to take time off work due to the embarrassment of flooding and dizziness. She declined contraception, as she is trying for a baby.
A pelvic ultrasound revealed two small fibroids (< 3 cm in size) in the uterus, and a full blood count was as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 390 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Iron 12 μg/dl 50 to 170 µg/dl
Ferritin 5 μg/l 10–120 μg/l
What is the best first-line treatment for this patient's menorrhagia if she is 29 years old?Your Answer: Myomectomy
Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:Management Options for Menorrhagia Secondary to Fibroids
Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids is a common gynecological problem that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. There are several management options available, depending on the severity of symptoms, the patient’s desire for fertility preservation, and the presence of other medical conditions.
Tranexamic acid is the first-line medical management option for women with menorrhagia secondary to fibroids who do not want contraception. It is an antifibrinolytic agent that reduces bleeding by inhibiting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Hormonal therapies, such as combined oral contraceptives, are not indicated in this scenario.
Surgical options, such as myomectomy, endometrial ablation, or hysterectomy, may be considered if medical management fails or the patient declines medication. Myomectomy is a surgical procedure that removes fibroids while preserving the uterus and fertility. However, fibroids can recur following myomectomy. Hysterectomy is the only definitive method of management, but it is only recommended for women who have completed their family.
Iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate is appropriate for patients with iron deficiency anemia secondary to menorrhagia. Mefenamic acid, an NSAID, is contraindicated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena® coil) is recommended as the first-line treatment for menorrhagia without underlying pathology, suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, or small fibroids that do not cause uterine distortion, but it is not appropriate for women who want to conceive.
In conclusion, the management of menorrhagia secondary to fibroids requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s symptoms, desire for fertility preservation, and medical history. A multidisciplinary team approach involving gynecologists, hematologists, and other specialists may be necessary to provide optimal care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 35-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of abnormal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She also reports experiencing dyspareunia. During a speculum examination, the GP observes a curdy, white discharge covering the vaginal walls with a non-offensive odour. The GP also notes some vulval excoriations. What infection is likely causing this woman's discharge?
Your Answer: Candidiasis
Explanation:Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Vaginal discharge is a common symptom experienced by women, and it can be caused by various infections. Here are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge, along with their symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options.
Candidiasis: This infection is caused by Candida fungi, particularly Candida albicans. Symptoms include vaginal itch, thick discharge with a consistency similar to cottage cheese, vaginal discomfort, and pain during sexual intercourse. Diagnosis is usually clinical, and treatment includes good hygiene, emollients, loose-fitting underwear, and antifungal cream or pessary, or oral antifungal medication.
Trichomoniasis: This infection is caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. Symptoms include dysuria, itch, and yellow-green discharge that can have a strong odor. Up to 50% of infected individuals are asymptomatic.
Bacterial vaginosis: This infection is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobes in the vagina, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis. Symptoms include a thin, white discharge, vaginal pH >4.5, and clue cells seen on microscopy. Treatment of choice is oral metronidazole.
Streptococcal infection: Streptococcal vulvovaginitis presents with inflammation, itch, and a strong-smelling vaginal discharge. It is most commonly seen in pre-pubertal girls.
Chlamydia: Although Chlamydia infection can present with urethral purulent discharge and dyspareunia, most infected individuals are asymptomatic. Chlamydia-associated discharge is typically more purulent and yellow-clear in appearance, rather than cheese-like.
In conclusion, proper diagnosis and treatment of vaginal discharge depend on identifying the underlying cause. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any symptoms of vaginal discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman has received her cervical screening report and wants to discuss it with you. Her last smear was 2 years ago and showed normal cytology and negative HPV. However, her latest report indicates normal cytology but positive HPV. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat smear in 1 year
Explanation:To follow up on a positive hrHPV result with a cytologically normal sample, it is recommended to repeat the smear after 12 months as HPV can be naturally cleared by the immune system within this timeframe.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has reached out for a phone consultation to discuss her recent cervical smear test results. She underwent the routine screening programme and is currently not experiencing any symptoms. Her last cervical smear was conducted 2 years ago and was reported as normal. She has not received the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination. The results of her recent test are as follows: High-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) - POSITIVE and Cytology - ABNORMAL (high-grade dyskaryosis). What would be the next course of action in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Referral to colposcopy for consideration of large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Explanation:The appropriate technique to treat cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2 or CIN3) is urgent large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ). Cryotherapy may also be considered as an alternative. Offering the HPV vaccination is not a suitable option for individuals who have already been diagnosed with CIN2 or CIN3. A repeat cervical smear within 3 months may be offered if the high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) test result is unavailable or cytology is inadequate. Routine referral to gynaecology is not necessary as the patient would already be under the care of the colposcopy service.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 30-year-old married woman has been struggling with infertility for a while. Upon undergoing an ultrasound, it was discovered that her ovaries are enlarged. She has also been experiencing scant or absent menses, but her external genitalia appears normal. Additionally, she has gained weight without explanation and developed hirsutism. Hormonal tests indicate decreased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and increased luteinising hormone (LH), increased androgens, and undetectable beta human chorionic gonadotropin. What is the most likely cause of her condition?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:Understanding Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) and Related Conditions
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a hormonal disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by enlarged ovaries with many atretic follicles but no mature antral follicles. This leads to increased production of luteinizing hormone (LH), which stimulates the cells of the theca interna to secrete testosterone. Peripheral aromatase then converts testosterone to estrogen, which suppresses follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion and upregulates LH secretion from the adenohypophysis. This results in decreased aromatase production in granulosa cells, low levels of estradiol, and failure of follicles to develop normally.
To remember the signs and symptoms of PCOS, use the mnemonic PCOS PAL. PCOS is associated with male pattern balding (alopecia), hirsutism, obesity, hypertension, acanthosis nigricans (thickening and hyperpigmentation of the skin), and menstrual irregularities (oligo- or amenorrhea). It can also cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which is characterized by impaired secretion of gonadotropins from the pituitary, including FSH and LH. This condition can be caused by various factors, such as Kallmann syndrome and GnRH insensitivity. Gonadal dysgenesis, monosomy X variant, is another condition that affects sexually juvenile women with an abnormal karyotype (45, X). It results in complete failure of development of the ovary and therefore no secondary sexual characteristics. Chronic adrenal insufficiency (or Addison’s disease) is another condition that can cause anorexia, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin in sun-exposed areas.
It is important to note that early pregnancy is not a possibility in women with PCOS who are not ovulating. Additionally, if a woman with PCOS were pregnant, she would have elevated beta human chorionic gonadotropin. Understanding these conditions and their associated symptoms can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage PCOS effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 36
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A 32-year-old woman visits the gynaecology department with complaints of painful, heavy periods and difficulty getting pregnant. She is worried as she and her partner plan to start a family soon. Upon examination, an ultrasound scan shows a submucosal uterine fibroid measuring 4.5 cm. What is the most suitable treatment option for her fibroids?
Your Answer: Myomectomy
Explanation:If a woman is experiencing fertility issues due to large fibroids, the most effective treatment is myomectomy. In the case of a woman with a large submucosal fibroid that is distorting the shape of her uterus, options such as levonorgestrel-releasing IUS and tranexamic acid may provide symptomatic relief but will not address the underlying fertility issue. Medical treatment may also be ineffective due to the size of the fibroid. Hysterectomy and hysteroscopic endometrial ablation are not appropriate for women who wish to conceive in the future.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the Menstrual Disturbance Clinic with a complaint of abnormal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding for the past 5 years. She reports that the pain is most severe just before and during the first day of her period and that she has been passing clots. During the examination, the physician notes thickening of the uterosacral ligament and enlargement of the ovaries. Laparoscopic examination reveals the presence of 'chocolate cysts'.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Understanding Pelvic Conditions: Endometriosis, Adenomyosis, Fibroids, PCOS, and Chronic Pelvic Infection
Pelvic conditions can cause discomfort and pain for many women. Endometriosis is a common condition where tissue resembling the endometrium grows outside the endometrial cavity, often in the pelvis. Laparoscopy may reveal chocolate cysts and a thickened uterosacral ligament. Symptoms include continuous pelvic pain, colicky dysmenorrhoea, heavy menstrual loss, and clotting.
Adenomyosis occurs when endometrial tissue infiltrates the uterus muscle. Symptoms include dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. Laparoscopy may reveal subserosal endometrium, but no chocolate cysts or thickened uterosacral ligament.
Fibroids cause a bulky uterus on bimanual examination and menorrhagia, but not chocolate cysts or a bulky uterine ligament.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) symptoms include oligomenorrhoea, hirsutism, weight gain, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. Chocolate cysts and a thickened uterosacral ligament are not associated with PCOS.
Chronic pelvic infection presents with deep dyspareunia and chronic discharge, but not chocolate cysts or a thickened uterosacral ligament. Understanding these conditions can help women seek appropriate treatment and manage their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer, requiring a lumpectomy two years ago, is currently on tamoxifen therapy and presents to her follow-up clinic with her partner.
She is feeling down, has a low mood and reports difficulty sleeping due to hot flashes. She is seeking assistance in improving her mood.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: A 2-week trial of fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Menopausal Symptoms in Breast Cancer Patients
Breast cancer patients experiencing mood disturbance, anxiety, and depression related to menopausal symptoms can benefit from cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and lifestyle modifications. A 2-week trial of fluoxetine may be an option, but it is contraindicated in patients receiving tamoxifen therapy. Combined cyclic hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) is not routinely offered due to the increased risk of breast cancer recurrence, but can be prescribed in exceptional circumstances. Over-the-counter herbal products like black cohosh are not recommended due to safety concerns and potential interactions with medications. Lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine and alcohol consumption, using a handheld fan, and regular exercise can also help alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of vaginal itching and a change in discharge. She has been experiencing thick, white discharge for the past 3 days and the itching has become unbearable today. She is sexually active with her partner and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. She denies having a fever, abdominal pain, painful intercourse, or any new sexual partners. What is the most suitable course of action for managing the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral fluconazole once daily for 3 days
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole single dose
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for non-pregnant women with symptoms of vaginal thrush, such as a curd-like discharge and itching, is a single dose of oral fluconazole. This medication can often be obtained directly from a pharmacist without needing to see a GP. Using low dose topical corticosteroids until symptoms improve is not an appropriate treatment for managing the fungal infection. Similarly, taking oral cetirizine daily for two weeks is not the recommended course of action, although it may be used for treatment-resistant thrush. Oral fluconazole should be tried first before considering cetirizine. Lastly, a three-day course of oral fluconazole is not the appropriate duration of treatment for this patient population.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A woman aged 74 comes in with a 2-cm unilateral, invasive vulvar carcinoma, without signs of lymph node involvement. What is the suggested course of action?
Your Answer: Simple vulvectomy
Correct Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Surgery, Radiation Therapy, and Chemotherapy
Vulval cancer is a type of cancer that affects the external female genitalia. The lymphatic drainage of the vulva is to the inguinal nodes, which means that even if there is no clinical evidence of lymphatic involvement, the inguinal nodes should be removed. This is done through a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy. Radiation therapy can also be used for T2 or greater lesions, when combined with surgery. The role of radiation is often to shrink tumours to make a surgical excision more likely to succeed or to increase the chance of remission.
It is important to note that vulvectomy without lymph node surgery or biopsy is inappropriate. Only in stage 1a cancer with a depth of invasion of <1 mm can lymph nodes safely not be biopsied or removed. Chemotherapy largely plays a role as neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy in vulval cancer. This is particularly important for tumours which extend within 1 cm of structures that would not be surgically removed such as the urethra, clitoris and anus. It can also be used where repeat surgery in positive margins may not be feasible. Wide local excision, also termed radical local excision, is appropriate, depending on the staging of the lesion. If the tumour is localised, ie T1 staging, then a radical local excision is a viable option, regardless of the location. As the tumour is described as invasive, it must be T2 or greater in staging and therefore needs more invasive surgery. In summary, treatment options for vulval cancer include surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy, depending on the staging and location of the tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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