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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is found to be HPV positive. A follow-up cytology swab reveals normal cells. She is asked to return for a second HPV swab after 12 months, which comes back negative. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat HPV test in 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months shows a negative result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall for cervical cancer screening. Since the patient is over 50 years old, a smear test should be taken every 5 years as part of routine recall. It is not necessary to perform a cytology swab or refer the patient to colposcopy as a negative HPV result does not indicate the presence of cervical cancer. Additionally, repeating the HPV test in 3 years is not necessary for this patient as it is only the routine recall protocol for patients aged 25-49.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hot flashes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hot flashes that have been bothering her for the past 2 months, particularly at night, causing sleep and work disturbances. She expresses feeling exhausted and embarrassed at work, sweating profusely during the attacks, and carrying extra clothes to change. She is emotional and shares that she has been avoiding sexual intercourse due to pain. She has no medical history and is not on any medication. Her menstrual cycle is still ongoing but has become irregular, occurring once every 2-3 months. After a thorough discussion, she decides to start HRT. What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oestradiol orally once daily

      Correct Answer: Oestradiol one tablet daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone on the last 14 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) for perimenopausal Symptoms

      perimenopausal symptoms can significantly affect a woman’s daily routine, work, and mood. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is one of the treatment options available for managing these symptoms. However, before commencing HRT, patients need to be consulted and informed of the risks and benefits associated with this treatment.

      HRT can be either oestrogen replacement only or combined. Combined HRT is given to women who have a uterus, as oestrogen alone can increase the risk of developing endometrial cancer. Combined HRT can be either cyclical or continuous, depending on the patient’s menopausal status.

      For women with irregular menses, a cyclical regime is indicated. This involves taking an oestrogen tablet once daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone added on the last 14 days. Patients on this regime have a period every three months. Once a woman has completed a year on cyclical therapy or has established menopause, then she can change to combined continuous HRT.

      It is important to note that oestrogen-only HRT is only given to women who have had a hysterectomy. Oestrogen therapy alone increases the risk of developing endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma. Therefore, in women who have a uterus, combined HRT, with the addition of a progesterone, is preferred to reduce this risk.

      In summary, HRT is a treatment option for perimenopausal symptoms. The type of HRT prescribed depends on the patient’s menopausal status and whether they have a uterus. Patients need to be informed of the risks and benefits associated with HRT before commencing treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old nulliparous woman presents to her General Practice for a routine cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous woman presents to her General Practice for a routine cervical smear. Her previous smear was negative, and she is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She had one episode of gonorrhoeae treated two years ago. During the examination, the practice nurse observes a soft, pea-sized, fluctuant lump on the posterior vestibule near the vaginal opening. There is some minor labial swelling, but it is non-tender. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infected epidermal cyst

      Correct Answer: Bartholin cyst

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women

      The vaginal area in women can be affected by various lumps, which can cause discomfort and concern. Here are some of the most common causes of lumps in the vaginal area in women:

      Bartholin Cyst: This type of cyst occurs when the ducts connecting the Bartholin glands, which are located near the introitus at the 4 and 8 o’clock positions, become obstructed. Bartholin cysts are usually soft, small, and asymptomatic, but they can cause discomfort and require removal in women over 40 to rule out vaginal carcinoma.

      Lipoma: A lipoma is a benign adipose tissue that can be found on the labia majora. It is a larger and rarer lump than a Bartholin cyst.

      Bartholin Abscess: This condition arises from an infected Bartholin cyst and causes significant labial swelling, erythema, tenderness, and pain on micturition and superficial dyspareunia. Treatment includes antibiotics and warm baths, but surgical management may be necessary.

      Haematoma: A haematoma is a collection of blood cells outside the vessels, which presents as a firm, red-purple lump. It usually occurs after trauma or surgery.

      Infected Epidermal Cyst: Epidermal cysts are benign tumors that can occur in the perineal area. When infected, they cause erythema, pain, and extravasation of keratin material.

      Understanding the Different Types of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a positive urine pregnancy test...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a positive urine pregnancy test result. She underwent a medical termination of pregnancy using mifepristone and misoprostol three weeks ago when she was eight weeks pregnant. She reports no ongoing pregnancy symptoms and only slight vaginal bleeding since the procedure. What advice would you give her?

      Your Answer: Reassure and repeat urine pregnancy test at 4 weeks post termination

      Explanation:

      It is common for HCG levels to remain positive for several weeks after a termination of pregnancy. HCG levels are typically measured every two days, and a positive result beyond four weeks may indicate a continuing pregnancy. However, in most cases, HCG levels will return to normal within four weeks.

      In this scenario, the appropriate course of action is to repeat the urine pregnancy test in one week, as the patient is currently only three weeks post-termination. There is no need for further referrals or imaging at this time, as a positive test result is unlikely to indicate a continuing pregnancy, and the patient does not exhibit any urgent symptoms such as infection or hemorrhage.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain. She...

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    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain. She also reports experiencing pain in her right shoulder. What investigation would be the most helpful in managing this patient further?

      Your Answer: Urine β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG)

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Urine Pregnancy Testing in Females with Abdominal Pain

      Any female of childbearing age who presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain should have a urinary pregnancy test performed (β-HCG). This is because a negative pregnancy test is necessary to confirm that the patient is not pregnant. It is an easy and inexpensive test to perform.

      Shoulder tip pain may indicate diaphragmatic irritation secondary to free intraperitoneal fluid, which can be caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. However, a full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U & Es) will not diagnose a potential ruptured ectopic pregnancy and, as such, will not guide subsequent management.

      An erect chest X-ray may be requested if perforation is suspected, but a urine pregnancy test would be much more useful in this scenario. An abdominal X-ray is not indicated.

      In summary, a urine pregnancy test is crucial in females of childbearing age with abdominal pain to rule out pregnancy and potentially diagnose a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of abnormal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of abnormal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She also reports experiencing dyspareunia. During a speculum examination, the GP observes a curdy, white discharge covering the vaginal walls with a non-offensive odour. The GP also notes some vulval excoriations. What infection is likely causing this woman's discharge?

      Your Answer: Candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Vaginal discharge is a common symptom experienced by women, and it can be caused by various infections. Here are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge, along with their symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options.

      Candidiasis: This infection is caused by Candida fungi, particularly Candida albicans. Symptoms include vaginal itch, thick discharge with a consistency similar to cottage cheese, vaginal discomfort, and pain during sexual intercourse. Diagnosis is usually clinical, and treatment includes good hygiene, emollients, loose-fitting underwear, and antifungal cream or pessary, or oral antifungal medication.

      Trichomoniasis: This infection is caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. Symptoms include dysuria, itch, and yellow-green discharge that can have a strong odor. Up to 50% of infected individuals are asymptomatic.

      Bacterial vaginosis: This infection is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobes in the vagina, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis. Symptoms include a thin, white discharge, vaginal pH >4.5, and clue cells seen on microscopy. Treatment of choice is oral metronidazole.

      Streptococcal infection: Streptococcal vulvovaginitis presents with inflammation, itch, and a strong-smelling vaginal discharge. It is most commonly seen in pre-pubertal girls.

      Chlamydia: Although Chlamydia infection can present with urethral purulent discharge and dyspareunia, most infected individuals are asymptomatic. Chlamydia-associated discharge is typically more purulent and yellow-clear in appearance, rather than cheese-like.

      In conclusion, proper diagnosis and treatment of vaginal discharge depend on identifying the underlying cause. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any symptoms of vaginal discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman visits the clinic for her initial cervical smear as a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits the clinic for her initial cervical smear as a part of the national screening initiative. She seeks guidance on the risk factors associated with cervical cancer. What is accurate regarding her risk?

      Your Answer: Women who smoke are at a two-fold increased risk than women who do not

      Explanation:

      Smoking doubles the risk of cervical cancer in women compared to non-smokers. Other risk factors include increased parity, use of oral contraceptives, early first intercourse, and HPV vaccination does not eliminate the need for cervical screening.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.

      The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 47-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-month history...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-month history of post-coital bleeding, vaginal discomfort and intermittent vaginal discharge. She feels lethargic and reports unintentional weight loss. She is a single mother of two children and lives in shared accommodation with one other family. She is a smoker of 30 cigarettes a day. She has not engaged with the cervical screening programme.
      Examination reveals a white lump on the cervix, associated with surface ulceration.
      Cervical carcinoma is suspected.
      Which of the following is a risk factor for developing cervical carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Cervical Carcinoma: Understanding the Role of Smoking, HPV, and Other Factors

      Cervical carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, the lower part of the uterus. While the exact causes of cervical carcinoma are not fully understood, several risk factors have been identified. In this article, we will explore some of the key risk factors associated with the development of cervical carcinoma, including smoking, HPV infection, late menopause, nulliparity, obesity, and the use of contraceptive pills.

      Smoking is a significant risk factor for cervical carcinoma, accounting for 21% of cases in the UK. Nicotine and cotinine, two chemicals found in tobacco smoke, may directly damage DNA in cervical cells and act as a cofactor in HPV-driven carcinogenesis.

      Persistent infection with HPV is the strongest risk factor for cervical carcinoma. Other risk factors include early sexual activity, low socio-economic status, co-infection with HIV, immunosuppression, and a family history of cervical carcinoma. Late menopause is a known risk factor for ovarian and endometrial carcinoma, but not cervical carcinoma. Nulliparity is associated with ovarian and endometrial carcinoma, but not cervical carcinoma. Obesity is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma, but not cervical carcinoma.

      The combined oral contraceptive pill has been associated with a small increase in the risk of developing cervical carcinoma, but there is no evidence to support an association with the progesterone-only pill.

      In conclusion, understanding the risk factors associated with cervical carcinoma is important for prevention and early detection. Quitting smoking, practicing safe sex, and getting regular cervical cancer screenings can help reduce the risk of developing this type of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history of heavy, painful periods. She reports regular periods, lasting seven days.
      During the first three days, she has to wear both a tampon and sanitary pads and has to take time off work due to the embarrassment of flooding and dizziness. She declined contraception, as she is trying for a baby.
      A pelvic ultrasound revealed two small fibroids (< 3 cm in size) in the uterus, and a full blood count was as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 390 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Iron 12 μg/dl 50 to 170 µg/dl
      Ferritin 5 μg/l 10–120 μg/l
      What is the best first-line treatment for this patient's menorrhagia if she is 29 years old?

      Your Answer: Myomectomy

      Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Menorrhagia Secondary to Fibroids

      Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids is a common gynecological problem that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. There are several management options available, depending on the severity of symptoms, the patient’s desire for fertility preservation, and the presence of other medical conditions.

      Tranexamic acid is the first-line medical management option for women with menorrhagia secondary to fibroids who do not want contraception. It is an antifibrinolytic agent that reduces bleeding by inhibiting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Hormonal therapies, such as combined oral contraceptives, are not indicated in this scenario.

      Surgical options, such as myomectomy, endometrial ablation, or hysterectomy, may be considered if medical management fails or the patient declines medication. Myomectomy is a surgical procedure that removes fibroids while preserving the uterus and fertility. However, fibroids can recur following myomectomy. Hysterectomy is the only definitive method of management, but it is only recommended for women who have completed their family.

      Iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate is appropriate for patients with iron deficiency anemia secondary to menorrhagia. Mefenamic acid, an NSAID, is contraindicated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena® coil) is recommended as the first-line treatment for menorrhagia without underlying pathology, suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, or small fibroids that do not cause uterine distortion, but it is not appropriate for women who want to conceive.

      In conclusion, the management of menorrhagia secondary to fibroids requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s symptoms, desire for fertility preservation, and medical history. A multidisciplinary team approach involving gynecologists, hematologists, and other specialists may be necessary to provide optimal care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - As you review your daily results, you come across a cervical smear test...

    Correct

    • As you review your daily results, you come across a cervical smear test for a 32-year-old patient. The result indicates that it is a repeat test and states that she is 'high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) negative'. Upon further examination of her medical records, you discover that this is her second repeat test after an abnormal result during a routine screening two years ago. Her last test was 12 months ago, where she tested 'hrHPV positive. Cytologically normal'. Interestingly, she has never been invited for a colposcopy. What would be the most appropriate next step in this situation?

      Your Answer: Return to routine recall (in 3 years)

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s 2nd repeat smear at 24 months is now negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the correct course of action is to return to routine recall in 3 years. This assumes that the patient had an initial abnormal smear 2 years ago, which showed hrHPV positive but normal cytology, and a repeat test at 12 months that was also hrHPV positive but cytologically normal. If the patient had still been hrHPV positive, they would have been referred for colposcopy. However, since they are now negative, they can go back to routine recall. The latest cervical screening programme does not require cytology to be performed if hrHPV is negative, so it would be inappropriate and impractical for the GP to request cytology on the sample. There is no need to repeat the smear in 4 weeks or 12 months, as transient hrHPV infection is common and self-resolves, and does not necessarily indicate a high risk of cervical cancer.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman visits the fertility clinic with her partner. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the fertility clinic with her partner. She has a record of consistent 35-day menstrual cycles. What is the most effective test to determine ovulation?

      Your Answer: Day 28 progesterone

      Explanation:

      The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle remains constant at 14 days, while the follicular phase can vary. The serum progesterone level reaches its peak 7 days after ovulation. For a 35-day cycle, the follicular phase would be 21 days (with ovulation occurring on day 21) and the luteal phase would be 14 days, resulting in the progesterone level peaking on day 28 (35-7). However, relying on day 21 progesterone levels would only be useful for women with a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days. While basal body temperature charting can be used to track ovulation, it is not the recommended method by NICE. An increase in basal temperature after ovulation can indicate successful ovulation.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of not having had a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of not having had a period for 7 months. She stopped taking the pill 9 months ago to try to conceive. She reports having always had irregular and heavy periods, which is why she started taking the pill at 16. She admits to gaining around 4 kg recently. She took a pregnancy test yesterday, which was negative. There is no other relevant medical or family history. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Women who would otherwise experience symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome may not realize they have the condition if they are using the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.

      To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.

      To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman without previous pregnancies visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman without previous pregnancies visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating and diarrhea. She has a family history of irritable bowel syndrome. During the examination, the doctor notes a soft and non-tender abdomen with a detectable pelvic mass. What is the most appropriate next course of action?

      Your Answer: Measure CA125 and refer her urgently to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of ovarian cancer and an abdominal or pelvic mass is present, it is not necessary to perform a CA125 and US test. Instead, the patient should be immediately referred to gynaecology. Prescribing loperamide and buscopan for symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in women over 50 years old is not appropriate as these symptoms could indicate ovarian cancer and require investigation. While waiting for the results of CA125 and ultrasound tests is usually recommended for suspected ovarian cancer patients, urgent referral to gynaecology is necessary in this case due to the presence of an abdominal mass. Although CA125 measurement should still be performed, waiting for test results to determine the need for urgent referral is not appropriate as guidelines already recommend it.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old woman visits an Infertility clinic with a complaint of irregular periods...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits an Infertility clinic with a complaint of irregular periods and difficulty conceiving for the past 2 years. During the examination, she is found to be obese (BMI 32) and hirsute. Mildly elevated androgen levels are also observed.
      What is the probable reason for her condition?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is showing signs of polycystic ovarian syndrome, which is characterized by elevated androgen levels, obesity, and hirsutism. Diagnosis requires meeting two of the following three criteria: polycystic ovaries, oligo-ovulation or anovulation, and clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism. Blood tests may show raised LH and free testosterone levels, and it is important to rule out other potential causes and assess for insulin resistance/diabetes and lipid levels. Hypothyroidism, anorexia nervosa, Turner syndrome, and prolactinoma are all potential causes of subfertility, but they do not present with the same symptoms as polycystic ovarian syndrome.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old woman has been diagnosed with stress incontinence. Her BMI is 30...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman has been diagnosed with stress incontinence. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2 and she has a history of hypertension and osteoporosis. She presents to you today with worsening symptoms despite reducing her caffeine intake and starting a regular exercise routine. She has had a normal pelvic exam and has completed three months of pelvic floor exercises with only mild improvement. She is hesitant to undergo surgery due to a previous severe reaction to general anesthesia. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Stress Incontinence: A Case-Based Discussion

      Stress incontinence is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. In this scenario, a female patient has attempted lifestyle changes and pelvic floor exercises for three months with little effect. What are the next steps in management?

      Duloxetine is a second-line management option for stress incontinence when conservative measures fail. It works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline, leading to continuous stimulation of the nerves in Onuf’s nucleus and preventing involuntary urine loss. However, caution should be exercised in patients with certain medical conditions.

      Continuing pelvic floor exercises for another three months is unlikely to yield significant improvements, and referral is indicated at this stage.

      Intramural urethral-bulking agents can be used when conservative management has failed, but they are not as effective as other surgical options and symptoms can recur.

      The use of a ring pessary is not recommended as a first-line treatment option for stress incontinence.

      A retropubic mid-urethral tape procedure is a successful surgical option, but it may not be appropriate for high-risk patients who wish to avoid surgery.

      In conclusion, the management of stress incontinence requires a tailored approach based on the patient’s individual circumstances and preferences.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and reports having taken each pill regularly for the first 7 days of her cycle. However, she forgot to pack her contraception while on a weekend trip and missed 2 doses. She had unprotected sexual intercourse during this time. Upon returning home, she resumed taking her COCP on day 10 of her cycle. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: No emergency contraception required and barrier contraception for next 7 days

      Explanation:

      If a woman misses two COCP doses between days 8-14 of her menstrual cycle, emergency contraception is not necessary as long as the previous seven doses were taken correctly. In this case, the woman missed doses on days 8 and 9 but resumed taking the medication on day 10, so emergency contraception is not needed. However, until seven consecutive days of the COCP are taken, using barrier contraception or abstaining from sex is recommended to prevent pregnancy. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception, and introducing it in this situation is unnecessary. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraception option that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex, but it is not needed in this case. If the patient had missed more than two COCP doses, levonorgestrel and barrier contraception for seven days would be appropriate. Ulipristal acetate is another emergency contraception option that must be taken within five days of unprotected sex, but it is also not necessary in this situation. If it were indicated, barrier contraception would need to be used for the next seven days until the COCP takes effect.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood during her menstrual cycle. She has been experiencing symptoms for the past 8 months despite making lifestyle changes. The week before her period, she notices a significant change in her mood, feeling extremely low and anxious with poor concentration. Her irritability is starting to affect her work as a primary school teacher. She has no other physical symptoms and feels like her usual self for the rest of the month. She has a medical history of migraine with aura.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mirena intrauterine system (IUS)

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman has presented to your clinic for postmenopausal bleeding. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has presented to your clinic for postmenopausal bleeding. During the medical history, you inquire about her medical and family history to identify any factors that may elevate her risk of endometrial cancer. What factors are linked to an increased risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena coil)

      Correct Answer: HNPCC/Lynch syndrome

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is strongly linked to HNPCC/Lynch syndrome, while the use of combined oral contraceptives can help reduce the risk. Other factors that increase the risk of endometrial cancer include obesity, a higher number of ovulations (due to factors such as early menarche, late menopause, and fewer pregnancies), certain medications like tamoxifen, and medical conditions like diabetes and polycystic ovarian syndrome. Anorexia, the Mirena coil, and familial adenomatous polyposis are not considered risk factors for endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. She had...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. She had her last menstrual period at the age of 48 and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding since then. The patient has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. She is currently taking a tiotropium/olodaterol inhaler and lansoprazole. She used to take the combined oral contraceptive pill for 20 years but did not undergo hormone replacement therapy. The patient has never been pregnant and has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. What is the most significant risk factor for her possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nulliparity

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is more likely to occur in women who have never given birth. One of the warning signs of endometrial cancer is bleeding after menopause. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a known risk factor for endometrial cancer, but conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and polycystic ovary syndrome are. While late menopause can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, this patient experienced menopause at around age 50, which is slightly earlier than average. Smoking is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer, but it is associated with an increased risk of other types of cancer such as cervical, vulval, and breast cancer. On the other hand, taking the combined oral contraceptive pill can lower the risk of endometrial cancer, but it may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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  • Question 20 - A 20-year-old female patient visits your clinic after having unprotected sex 3 days...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient visits your clinic after having unprotected sex 3 days ago. She is concerned about the possibility of getting pregnant as she is not using any form of contraception. The patient has a medical history of severe asthma and major depression, and is currently taking sertraline 25mg once daily, salbutamol inhaler 200 micrograms as needed, beclomethasone 400 micrograms twice daily, and formoterol 12 micrograms twice daily. She is currently on day 26 of a 35-day menstrual cycle. What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy in this patient?

      Your Answer: Intra-uterine device

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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  • Question 21 - During your work in the Gynaecology outpatient department, you come across a 59...

    Incorrect

    • During your work in the Gynaecology outpatient department, you come across a 59 year old patient who has been referred to you for abnormal vaginal bleeding. The patient informs you that she underwent menopause at the age of 54. As a medical professional, you know that postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) is a common issue. What is the leading cause of PMB?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Causes of postmenopausal Bleeding: Understanding the Different Aetiologies

      postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) can be a concerning symptom for women, and it is important to understand the different causes that may be responsible. One of the most common causes is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a decrease in oestrogen levels after menopause. This can lead to thinning and drying of the vaginal mucosa, as well as other symptoms such as vaginal dryness and an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Treatment options include non-hormonal approaches such as lubricants and moisturisers, as well as hormonal treatments like topical preparations or systemic oestrogen replacement.

      Another potential cause of PMB is endometrial hyperplasia, which involves abnormal proliferation of the endometrium and is associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer. While this is not the most common cause of PMB, ruling it out is important in order to identify any potential issues. Endometrial cancer itself is also a significant concern, with a 10% probability of being the cause of PMB. Urgent referral to a gynaecology outpatient is necessary to exclude this possibility.

      Cervical cancer is not typically the cause of PMB, but it is important to discuss the cervical cancer screening programme with patients and any history of abnormal smears. Finally, the use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) can also trigger menstruation and lead to PMB, although this is not the most common cause. By understanding these different aetiologies, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat PMB in their patients.

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  • Question 22 - A 19-year-old woman presents with sudden onset lower abdominal pain and nausea. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman presents with sudden onset lower abdominal pain and nausea. Upon examination, she is stable and has a temperature of 37.8 °C. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa. Urinalysis reveals the presence of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC), but no nitrites. What is the most suitable subsequent test?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG))

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

      Abdominal pain in women of childbearing age requires a thorough diagnostic workup to rule out gynaecological emergencies such as ectopic pregnancy. The following diagnostic tests should be considered:

      1. Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG)): This test should be the first step in the diagnostic workup to rule out ectopic pregnancy. A positive result requires urgent referral to the gynaecological team.

      2. Full blood count: This test may indicate an ongoing infective process or other pathology, but a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.

      3. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis: Imaging may be useful in determining the cause of the pain, but a pregnancy test should be done first before considering imaging studies.

      4. Urine culture and sensitivity: This test may be useful if a urinary tract infection and possible pyelonephritis are considered, but an ectopic pregnancy has to be ruled out first.

      5. Erect chest X-ray: This test can show free air under the diaphragm, indicating a ruptured viscus and a surgical emergency. However, a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.

      In conclusion, a thorough diagnostic workup is necessary to determine the cause of abdominal pain in women of childbearing age, with a pregnancy test being the first step to rule out gynaecological emergencies.

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  • Question 23 - A 17-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea for 6 months. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea for 6 months. She has a history of irregular periods with a cycle ranging from 25-39 days long and has missed a whole cycle before. She is concerned about the potential impact on her future fertility. The patient denies being sexually active and has no syndromic features on examination. There is no significant acne or excess body hair. She has a BMI of 20 kg/m² and is currently training for a half marathon. What is the probable cause of her condition?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic hypogonadism

      Explanation:

      Secondary amenorrhoea is a common issue in highly athletic women, often caused by hypothalamic hypogonadism. This is the case for a young woman who is training for a marathon and has experienced oligomenorrhoea in the past. When a woman’s body has low levels of fat, the hypothalamus releases less gonadotrophin-releasing hormone, leading to hypogonadism. This is believed to occur because very low-fat levels are not conducive to successful pregnancy in females.

      While an ultrasound may reveal many cysts on the ovaries, this woman does not meet the Rotterdam criteria for a diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Although she experiences oligomenorrhoea, she does not exhibit signs of hyperandrogenism and has a lower-normal weight. It is also possible that she is pregnant, and a urine or serum pregnancy test should be conducted to rule out this possibility, even if she claims not to be sexually active.

      While primary ovarian failure is a potential cause, it is not the most likely explanation in this case. However, it should still be investigated with gonadotrophins. If ovarian failure is present, gonadotrophin levels will be elevated, indicating that the hypothalamus and pituitary gland are not providing negative feedback on hormone release.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 32–38 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2 and is hirsute. She has short hair distributed in a male pattern of baldness.
      Examination reveals brown, hyperpigmented areas in the creases of the axillae and around the neck. A glucose tolerance test is performed and shows the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Fasting plasma glucose 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) plasma glucose 9.2 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate monitoring plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: The above results indicate diabetes and treatment should be initiated

      Correct Answer: Annual glucose tolerance testing as there is evidence of impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Annual Monitoring for Diabetes in Women with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to monitor these patients for diabetes. The monitoring approach depends on the patient’s risk stratification, which is determined by factors such as BMI, family history of diabetes, and personal history of gestational diabetes.

      For patients with evidence of impaired glucose tolerance, defined as a fasting glucose of < 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour OGTT of ≥ 7.8 but < 11.1 mmol/l, dietary and weight loss advice should be given, and a repeat glucose tolerance test is indicated annually. For patients with a normal glucose tolerance test, with a BMI of < 30 kg/m2, no family history of diabetes, and no personal history of gestational diabetes, annual random fasting glucose testing is appropriate. If the result is ≥ 5.6 mmol/l, then a glucose tolerance test should be performed. For patients with a BMI of ≥ 30 kg/m2, annual glucose tolerance testing is recommended. If diabetes is suspected based on symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, a random serum glucose of ≥ 11.0 mmol/l or a fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l is diagnostic. In asymptomatic patients, two samples of fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l are adequate for diagnosis. In conclusion, annual monitoring for diabetes is important in women with PCOS to prevent complications and morbidity associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The monitoring approach should be tailored to the patient’s risk stratification.

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  • Question 25 - A 14-year-old girl has had apparently normal appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, except...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl has had apparently normal appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, except that she has not menstruated. A pelvic examination reveals a mobile mass in her left labium major and a shallow, blind-ending vagina without a cervix, but otherwise normal female external genitalia. Ultrasound reveals no cervix, uterus or ovaries. Karyotype analysis reveals 46,XY.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)

      Explanation:

      Disorders of Sexual Development: An Overview

      Disorders of sexual development (DSD) are a group of conditions that affect the development of the reproductive system. Here are some of the most common DSDs:

      Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS)
      AIS is a condition where cells cannot respond to androgens, resulting in disrupted sexual development. Patients with complete AIS have a female phenotype with male internal genitalia, while those with partial or mild AIS may have a mix of male and female characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.

      Turner Syndrome
      Turner syndrome is a condition where patients are missing all or part of an X chromosome, resulting in premature ovarian failure and delayed puberty. Patients are phenotypically female with normal external genitalia.

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome
      Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where patients have an extra copy of an X chromosome, resulting in hypogonadism and infertility. Patients are phenotypically male with normal external genitalia.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later present with symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome or hyperpigmentation.

      5-α Reductase Deficiency
      5-α reductase deficiency is a condition where patients have a mutation in the SDR5A2 gene, resulting in disrupted formation of external genitalia before birth. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later show virilisation during puberty. Patients are infertile.

      Treatment for DSDs involves hormone replacement therapy and supportive care. It is important to provide psychosocial support for patients and their families.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pain...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in her left lower quadrant. Upon conducting a pregnancy test, it is discovered that she is pregnant. Her medical history reveals that she had an appendectomy at the age of 18 due to a ruptured appendix.

      After undergoing a vaginal ultrasound, it is revealed that she has an unruptured tubal pregnancy on the left side. The ultrasound also shows adhesions at the distal end of the right fallopian tube.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: salpingostomy

      Explanation:

      When a woman with risk factors for infertility, such as damage to the contralateral tube, has an ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, it is recommended to consider salpingostomy instead of salpingectomy. In this case, the woman has a left-sided ectopic pregnancy and a damaged right tube, making salpingostomy a more appropriate option to preserve her fertility. Methotrexate is not suitable for this case due to the severity of pain, and monitoring for 48 hours is not appropriate either. Expectant management is only recommended for small, asymptomatic ectopic pregnancies without cardiac activity.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraceptive options as she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraceptive options as she is in a committed relationship. She has been diagnosed with partial epilepsy and takes carbamazepine regularly. Additionally, she has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding. Apart from this, her medical history is unremarkable. What would be the most suitable contraception method for her at present?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine device (Copper coil)

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Explanation:

      When choosing a contraceptive method, individual preferences and any cautions or contraindications must be taken into account. In this case, the priority is to find a method that won’t be affected by carbamazepine’s enzyme-inducing effect, such as the intrauterine system. While the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) could help with heavy bleeding, its failure rate would be high due to enzyme induction. Nexplanon may cause heavy bleeding and its low progesterone dose would also be affected by enzyme induction. Depo-Provera is an option, but prolonged use in young individuals could lead to reduced bone density. The Mirena intrauterine system would be effective in reducing heavy bleeding and providing reliable contraception alongside the anti-epileptic medication.

      Contraception for Women with Epilepsy

      Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. Firstly, they need to consider how the contraceptive may affect the effectiveness of their anti-epileptic medication. Secondly, they need to consider how their anti-epileptic medication may affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Lastly, they need to consider the potential teratogenic effects of their anti-epileptic medication if they become pregnant.

      To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends that women with epilepsy consistently use condoms in addition to other forms of contraception. For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP and POP as UKMEC 3, the implant as UKMEC 2, and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1.

      For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP as UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol. By considering these recommendations, women with epilepsy can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and ensure the safety and effectiveness of their chosen method.

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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old women with her 34-year-old partner have come to see you regarding...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old women with her 34-year-old partner have come to see you regarding the inability to conceive over the last year. She has regular cycles over 28 days.
      Which test will best see if she is ovulating?

      Your Answer: Day 21 progesterone

      Explanation:

      Methods for Checking Ovulation

      There are several methods for checking ovulation, but not all of them are definitive. The easiest way to check for ovulation is through a day-21 progesterone level test, which measures the progesterone released by the corpus luteum after ovulation. However, an increase in basal body temperature is not a definitive indicator of ovulation.

      Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) are released from the pituitary gland and cause the development of the follicle ready for ovulation. However, if the day-21 progesterone level is normal, then FSH and LH will also be normal. An endometrial biopsy may confirm the absence of any uterine abnormality, but it does not ensure ovulation has taken place.

      The cervical fern test is an assessment of cervical mucous, which is dependent on hormone levels. However, there is diagnostic uncertainty with this method, and measuring hormone levels directly is a more reliable indicator of ovulation. Overall, a combination of these methods may be used to confirm ovulation.

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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old woman is being consented for a diagnostic laparoscopy for endometriosis. Apart...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is being consented for a diagnostic laparoscopy for endometriosis. Apart from dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia and difficulty conceiving, she has no past medical history. She takes ibuprofen during menses, but does not take any other medication. She has never had surgery before, and appears nervous.
      What common side-effect of laparoscopy should she be cautioned about prior to the procedure?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Correct Answer: Shoulder pain

      Explanation:

      During laparoscopy, carbon dioxide gas is used to inflate the abdomen for better visibility and access to abdominal organs. However, after surgery, the remaining gas can cause referred pain in the C3-5 nerve distribution by pressing on the diaphragm. While pulmonary embolus is a potential side effect of any surgery, it is unlikely in a young patient who is not immobilized for long periods. Incontinence is also unlikely in a young, nulliparous woman, even with the risk of urinary tract infection from the catheter used during surgery. Flatulence is not a common side effect as the gas is not passed into the colon. Finally, sciatic nerve damage is not a concern during abdominal surgery as it is a common side effect of hip arthroplasty, which involves a posterior approach to the hip.

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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old nulliparous woman has presented to her General Practitioner (GP), requesting an...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old nulliparous woman has presented to her General Practitioner (GP), requesting an appointment to discuss contraceptive options. She has previously relied on condoms for contraception but would now prefer alternative means of contraception. Her last menstrual period was one week ago. Her previous cervical smears were normal, and she denies any symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection. She has a past medical history of epilepsy, for which she takes regular carbamazepine, and menorrhagia secondary to several large uterine fibroids, for which she takes tranexamic acid. She does not wish to have children in the near future. She does not smoke. The GP decides to take a blood pressure reading and calculates the patient’s body mass index (BMI):
      Investigation Result
      Blood pressure 132/71 mmHg
      BMI 28 kg/m2
      Which of the following would be the contraceptive most suited to the patient?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system

      Correct Answer: progesterone-only injectable

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Patients with Uterine Fibroids and Carbamazepine Use

      Patients with uterine fibroids and concurrent use of carbamazepine may have limited contraceptive options due to drug interactions and uterine cavity distortion. The progesterone-only injectable is a suitable option as it does not interact with enzyme inducers and is not affected by uterine cavity distortion. The copper intrauterine device and levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system are not recommended in this case. The progesterone-only implant and combined oral contraceptive pill have severe interactions with carbamazepine, reducing their efficacy. It is important to consider individual patient factors and discuss all available contraceptive options with them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      66
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (17/30) 57%
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