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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of vaginal discomfort, itching, and pain...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of vaginal discomfort, itching, and pain during sexual intercourse. Upon excluding other possible causes of her symptoms, the doctor diagnoses her with atrophic vaginitis. What additional treatments can be used in conjunction with topical estrogen cream to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lubricants and moisturisers

      Explanation:

      When experiencing atrophic vaginitis, the dryness of the vaginal mucosa can cause pain, itching, and dyspareunia. The first-line treatment for this condition is topical oestrogen cream, which helps to restore the vaginal mucosa. However, lubricants and moisturisers can also provide short-term relief while waiting for the topical oestrogen cream to take effect. Oestrogen secreting pessaries are an alternative to topical oestrogen cream, but using them together would result in an excessive dose of oestrogen. Sitz baths are useful for irritation and itching of the perineum, but they do not address internal vaginal symptoms. Warm or cold compresses may provide temporary relief, but they are not a long-term solution.

      Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to you with complaints of bloating, unintended weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to you with complaints of bloating, unintended weight loss, dyspareunia, and an elevated CA-125. What is the most appropriate term to describe the initial spread of this cancer, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphatic spread

      Correct Answer: Local spread within the pelvic region

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer typically spreads initially through local invasion, rather than through the lymphatic or hematological routes. This patient’s symptoms, including IBS-like symptoms, irregular vaginal bleeding, and a raised CA125, suggest ovarian cancer. The stages of ovarian cancer range from confined to the ovaries (Stage 1) to spread beyond the pelvis to the abdomen (Stage 3), with local spread within the pelvis (Stage 2) in between. While lymphatic and hematological routes can also be involved in the spread of ovarian cancer, they tend to occur later than local invasion within the pelvis. The para-aortic lymph nodes are a common site for lymphatic spread, while the liver is a common site for hematological spread.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman is concerned about the risk of cancer from taking the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is concerned about the risk of cancer from taking the combined oral contraceptive pill after hearing something on the news. You have a discussion with her about evidence-based medicine. According to research, which type of cancer is believed to be reduced by taking the pill?

      Your Answer: Cervical

      Correct Answer: Ovarian

      Explanation:

      The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to have a slight increase in the risk of breast cancer, but this risk returns to normal after 10 years of stopping the pill. Additionally, the COCP may increase the risk of cervical cancer, but this could be due to a lack of barrier contraception use and increased exposure to HPV. While the COCP is associated with an increased risk of benign and malignant tumors, there is no evidence of an increased risk of lung cancer. On the other hand, the COCP has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, endometrial cancer, and bowel cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability, which typically...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability, which typically occur one week before her period and subside a few days after. She visited her GP, who prescribed a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after reviewing her symptom diary. However, after three months of treatment, she returns to her GP and reports that her symptoms have not improved during her menstrual cycle. She is feeling like a bad mother as she is losing her patience with her children easily when symptomatic and is seeking further treatment options. What is the most appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) can be helped by SSRIs, either continuously or during the luteal phase. If a patient’s symptoms are significantly impacting their day-to-day life and have not improved with first-line treatment using a combined oral contraceptive pill, antidepressant treatment with SSRIs is recommended. Co-cyprindiol, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine systems, mirtazapine, and the copper coil are not indicated for the management of PMS.

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP clinic for contraception advice. She is a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP clinic for contraception advice. She is a smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes daily, and has a BMI of 25 kg/m². She has no history of venous thromboembolism in her family or personal medical history. She underwent a right-sided salpingectomy for an ectopic pregnancy six years ago. Which of the following contraceptive methods would be unsuitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cerazette

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Women over 35 who smoke 15 or more cigarettes a day should not use any form of combined hormonal contraception, such as the pill, patch, or vaginal ring. However, the other four methods listed are safe for use in this group.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman is admitted to hospital for a hysterectomy for treatment of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is admitted to hospital for a hysterectomy for treatment of fibroids.
      What are the standard preventive measures for all women undergoing a complete abdominal hysterectomy?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav ® intravenous (iv) intraoperatively

      Explanation:

      Hysterectomy: Antibiotic Prophylaxis and Surgical Considerations

      Hysterectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the uterus and is commonly used to treat pelvic pathologies such as fibroids and adenomyosis. Antibiotic prophylaxis is crucial during the operation to prevent infection, and Co-amoxiclav ® is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is commonly used. Complications of hysterectomy include haemorrhage, trauma to the bowel, damage to the urinary tract, infection, thromboembolic disease, and an increased risk of vaginal prolapse. Vaginal hysterectomy is preferred over abdominal hysterectomy as it reduces post-operative morbidity and has a shorter recovery time. The decision to remove ovaries during abdominal hysterectomy depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, family history of breast and ovarian cancer, and plans for hormone replacement therapy. Subtotal hysterectomy is an option for women with dysfunctional uterine bleeding who have normal cervical cytology. Intraoperative prophylactic-dose heparin is not recommended as it can cause excessive bleeding. Penicillin V and trimethoprim are not suitable for intraoperative prophylaxis as they do not provide broad-spectrum cover. Amoxicillin is inadequate for this operation as it does not provide the necessary prophylaxis during the intraoperative period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and no other medications. What actions should be taken regarding her surgery and pill usage?

      Your Answer: Nothing, she can continue as normal

      Correct Answer: Stop the pill 4 weeks before surgery and restart 2 weeks after surgery

      Explanation:

      It is a common scenario for surgical patients to face an increased risk of venous thromboembolism when they are on the pill and undergoing surgery, particularly abdominal or lower limb surgery. Therefore, it is necessary to discontinue the pill.

      However, stopping the pill too early would increase the risk of pregnancy, and restarting it too soon after surgery would still pose a risk due to the surgery’s effects on coagulation. Ceasing the pill on the day of surgery would not eliminate the risk of clotting either.

      The best course of action is to stop the pill four weeks before surgery to allow for a return to normal coagulation levels. Then, restarting it two weeks after surgery would allow the procoagulant effects of surgery to subside.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old girl visits her nearby pharmacy at 11 am on Tuesday, asking...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her nearby pharmacy at 11 am on Tuesday, asking for the morning-after pill. She discloses that she had unprotected sex around 10 pm on the previous Saturday and is not using any birth control method. She specifically asks for levonorgestrel, as her friend had taken it a few weeks ago. Is it possible for her to receive levonorgestrel as an emergency contraception option?

      Your Answer: Yes, as it can be taken up to 72 hours later

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel can still be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) in this case. Ulipristal acetate can also be taken up to 120 hours later, but the efficacy of oral options may have decreased after 61 hours. The copper coil is not a suitable option as the patient has declined any form of birth control. Therefore, the correct answer is that levonorgestrel can still be taken within 72 hours of UPSI.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old female visits her primary care physician with complaints of decreased libido...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female visits her primary care physician with complaints of decreased libido and vasomotor symptoms that have persisted for three weeks. She has been experiencing vaginal dryness for the past year and has been using topical estrogen to manage it. After consulting with her doctor, they decide to discontinue the topical estrogen and start her on an oral form of estrogen-progesterone hormone replacement therapy (HRT). As a result of the addition of progesterone, what health risks is the patient more likely to face?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The addition of a progesterone to HRT raises the likelihood of developing breast cancer, making this the accurate response.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of light vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of light vaginal bleeding and mild discomfort during intercourse for the past two weeks. She reports feeling generally healthy. During a vaginal exam, she experiences tenderness and slight dryness. What is the next step to take in the clinic?

      Your Answer: Refer to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) clinic

      Correct Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound (TVUS)

      Explanation:

      Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman who was born and lives in England has received her...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who was born and lives in England has received her invitation to attend for her first cervical screening test. She has read the leaflet and has some questions regarding the population targeted for cervical screening.
      Which of the following statements best applies to the cervical screening programme?

      Your Answer: Cervical screening is offered to women aged 50–64 every five years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cervical Screening: Guidelines and Options

      Cervical screening, also known as a smear test, is a vital tool in detecting precancerous cell changes in the cervix and preventing cervical cancer. Here are some important guidelines and options to keep in mind:

      Age and Frequency: In the UK, women aged 25-64 are invited for screening, with those aged 25-49 screened every three years and those aged 50-64 screened every five years. In Scotland, screening is recommended every five years for women aged 25-65.

      Hysterectomy: Women who have had a total hysterectomy (removal of the uterus and cervix) do not require cervical screening. However, those who have had a partial hysterectomy (removal of the uterus but not the cervix) should continue to be screened according to age guidelines.

      Age Limit: Women over the age of 65 may still be eligible for screening if they have had recent abnormal results or have not been screened since the age of 50.

      Opting Out: While cervical screening is not obligatory, it is highly recommended. Patients can opt out by speaking to their doctor and signing an ‘opting out’ form, but this decision can be reversed at any time. It is important to understand the benefits and risks associated with screening before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing postcoital bleeding for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing postcoital bleeding for the past three months. She denies any pain during intercourse and has not noticed any abnormal vaginal discharge except for the bleeding. She continues to have regular menstrual cycles. What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Uterine fibroids

      Correct Answer: Cervical polyps

      Explanation:

      Postcoital Bleeding

      Postcoital bleeding is a condition that occurs when there is trauma to superficial lesions within the vaginal tract. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including cervical trauma, cervical polyps, endometrial and cervical carcinoma, cervicitis, and vaginitis. In some cases, invasive cervical carcinoma may be found in those who are referred to the hospital, accounting for 3.8% of cases.

      Vaginitis is also a possibility, but it is more common in elderly patients with low estrogen levels. On the other hand, salpingo-oophoritis, which is usually caused by pelvic inflammatory disease from sexually transmitted infections, typically presents with deep dyspareunia and purulent vaginal discharge. However, post-coital bleeding is highly unlikely to be caused by salpingo-oophoritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman is being staged for her ovarian cancer diagnosis. The scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is being staged for her ovarian cancer diagnosis. The scan reveals that the tumor has extended beyond the ovary, but remains within the pelvic region. What is the stage of her cancer?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. During the US examination, ascites is detected. Her blood test results are as follows:
      - Hb: 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - WBC: 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Na+: 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - K+: 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - CRP: 8 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Haematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48; normal range for males: 0.4-0.54)

      What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?

      Your Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy

      Explanation:

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a possible adverse effect of ovulation induction. The symptoms of this syndrome, such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit, are typical. There are various medications used for ovulation induction, and the risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is higher with gonadotropin therapy than with clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. Therefore, it is probable that the patient received gonadotropin therapy.

      Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 62-year-old mother of three presents to the Gynaecology Clinic, having been referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old mother of three presents to the Gynaecology Clinic, having been referred by her general practitioner. She describes a dragging sensation and the feeling of a lump in her vagina. In addition, she also reports several embarrassing incidences of incontinence following coughing and sneezing. The clinician performs an examination which reveals a cystourethrocele. Both medical and surgical treatment options are discussed with the patient.
      Which of the following surgical procedures could be treatment options for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vaginal hysterectomy

      Correct Answer: Anterior colporrhaphy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cystourethrocele: Conservative and Surgical Approaches

      Cystourethrocele, the descent of the anterior part of the vagina attached to the urethra and the base of the bladder, can cause disruption of the continence mechanism and stress incontinence. Conservative measures such as pelvic floor exercises, pessaries, and oestrogen therapy may be used prior to surgery or as a therapeutic test to improve symptoms. However, the surgical treatment of choice is an anterior repair, also known as anterior colporrhaphy, which involves making a midline incision through the vaginal skin, reflecting the underlying bladder off the vaginal mucosa, and placing lateral supporting sutures into the fascia to elevate the bladder and bladder neck. Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy is a procedure to surgically correct lacerations or tears in the vagina and perineum. Sacrocolpopexy and sacrospinous fixation are not relevant for this patient. Approximately 50% of patients may experience post-operative urinary retention following anterior colporrhaphy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and nausea...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and nausea for the past few hours. She has irregular menstrual cycles and cannot recall her last period. The patient appears distressed and unwell, with tenderness noted in the right iliac fossa upon examination. Speculum examination is unremarkable, but cervical excitation and right adnexal tenderness are present on vaginal examination. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 37.8 °C, blood pressure of 90/60, heart rate of 110 bpm, and respiratory rate of 22 with oxygen saturations of 100% on room air. A positive urine beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG) test is obtained, and the urine dipstick shows 1+ leukocytes and 1+ blood. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Abdominal Pain and Signs of Shock in Women: Differential Diagnosis

      When a woman presents with abdominal pain and signs of shock, it is important to consider several possible causes. One of the most urgent and life-threatening conditions is ectopic pregnancy, which should be suspected until proven otherwise. A positive pregnancy test and pain localized to one side, especially with evidence of shock, are key indicators. The patient should be given intravenous access, blood tests, serum β-HCG, group and save, and a transvaginal ultrasound scan if stable. If necessary, she may need to undergo a laparoscopy urgently.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain in women include urinary tract infection, acute appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and miscarriage. However, these conditions are less likely to present with signs of shock. Urinary tract infection would show leukocytes, nitrites, and protein on dipstick. Acute appendicitis would cause pain in the right iliac fossa, but cervical excitation and signs of shock would be rare unless the patient is severely septic. Pelvic inflammatory disease would give rise to pain in the right iliac fossa and cervical excitation, but signs of shock would not be present on examination. Miscarriage rarely presents with signs of shock, unless it is a septic miscarriage, and the cervical os would be open with a history of passing some products of conception recently.

      In summary, when a woman presents with abdominal pain and signs of shock, ectopic pregnancy should be considered as the most likely cause until proven otherwise. Other conditions may also cause abdominal pain, but they are less likely to present with signs of shock. A thorough differential diagnosis and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide timely and effective treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old woman is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with abdominal distension due...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with abdominal distension due to ascites. On examination, there is symmetrical distension of the abdomen and a palpable pelvic mass in the left iliac fossa. On closer questioning, she also admits to being ‘off her food’ and has lost a stone in weight over the last 3 weeks.
      Which one of the following types of ovarian mass is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Teratoma

      Correct Answer: Serous adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Ovarian tumours are mostly epithelial in nature, comprising 90% of all cases. Serous tumours are the most common type, accounting for 50% of ovarian cancers and 20% of benign tumours. Although the 5-year survival rate is improving, it remains low at around 40% in the UK. These tumours typically affect postmenopausal women, with over 80% of cases occurring in those over 50 years old. Ovarian tumours can be benign, invasive or malignant, with different pathological subtypes. Mucinous cystadenomas are common in women aged 20-50 years and can be large and multilocular, with a risk of pseudomyxoma peritonei if they rupture. Brenner tumours are rare and often found incidentally, while teratomas are non-seminomatous germ cell tumours that may contain multiple types of tissue. Clear cell carcinomas are rare and have a worse prognosis than serous tumours, growing rapidly and being associated with endometriosis. Surgical removal is the preferred treatment for most ovarian tumours.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 31-year-old female patient complains of painful and heavy periods since discontinuing the...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old female patient complains of painful and heavy periods since discontinuing the combined oral contraceptive pill eight months ago. She is distressed as she desires to conceive but the pain is hindering sexual intercourse. The patient seeks to identify the underlying cause of her symptoms. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without palpable masses. However, a bimanual pelvic examination is challenging due to the pain. What is the definitive diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      When it comes to patients with suspected endometriosis, laparoscopy is considered the most reliable investigation method. This is because it enables direct visualization and biopsy of the endometrial deposits. While a CT scan may also be used to detect such deposits, it is less specific compared to MRI scans. Ultrasound can be useful in detecting endometriomas, but it is important to note that a normal scan does not necessarily rule out the possibility of endometriosis.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman, who has completed her family, visits the Gynaecology Clinic following...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman, who has completed her family, visits the Gynaecology Clinic following the detection of abnormal cervical cytology on a cervical smear screen. A biopsy is taken from a lesion found on the ectocervix during clinical examination under anaesthesia. Further investigations and histology confirm stage 1b cervical cancer.

      What treatment option would be most suitable for this patient, taking into account the stage of the cancer?

      Your Answer: Radical hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cervical Carcinoma: A Comparison

      Cervical carcinoma is a type of cancer that primarily affects the squamous cells of the cervix. Its main symptoms include abnormal bleeding or watery discharge, especially after sexual intercourse. The risk of developing cervical cancer increases with sexual activity.

      The disease is staged based on the extent of its spread, with stages 0 to 4 indicating increasing severity. For stage 1b cervical cancer, the recommended treatment is a Wertheim’s radical abdominal hysterectomy. This procedure involves removing the uterus, tubes, ovaries, broad ligaments, parametrium, upper half or two-thirds of the vagina, and regional lymph glands. However, in older patients, the surgeon may try to preserve the ovaries to avoid premature menopause.

      Other treatment options include simple hysterectomy, which is not suitable for cervical cancer that has spread beyond the cervix, and radical trachelectomy, which is appropriate for stage 1 cancers in women who wish to preserve their fertility. Close cytological follow-up is not recommended for confirmed cases of cervical cancer, while platinum-based chemotherapy is typically used only when surgery is not possible.

      In summary, the choice of treatment for cervical carcinoma depends on the stage of the disease, the patient’s age and fertility preferences, and the feasibility of surgical intervention.

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  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old woman comes in for her routine cervical smear. She reports discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman comes in for her routine cervical smear. She reports discomfort during the insertion of the speculum and reveals that she has been experiencing dyspareunia and a burning sensation when using tampons for the past few months. The pain can persist for several hours after sexual intercourse. She denies having any vaginal discharge, and her skin appears normal. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Provoked vulvodynia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vulvodynia: Types, Causes, and Associated Conditions

      Vulvodynia is a chronic pain condition that affects the vulvovaginal region and lasts for at least three months without any identifiable cause. There are two types of vulvodynia: provoked and unprovoked. Provoked vulvodynia is triggered by sexual intercourse or tampon insertion, while unprovoked vulvodynia is a spontaneous chronic pain that is present most of the time.

      Vulvodynia can be localised or generalised and can be primary or secondary. It can affect women of any age and is associated with various factors such as neurological conditions, chronic pain syndromes, genetic predisposition, pelvic muscle overactivity, anxiety, and depression. The exact mechanism of vulvodynia is not yet understood, but it is believed to be multifactorial and complex.

      Other conditions that can cause pain in the vulvovaginal region include sexually transmitted infections, lichen sclerosus, and lichen planus. Sexually transmitted infections usually present with dyspareunia, abnormal bleeding, and a vaginal discharge. Lichen sclerosus presents with itching and burning, while lichen planus presents with purple-red lesions and overlying lacy markings.

      Vulvodynia is a dysfunctional pain syndrome that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. It is essential to seek medical attention if you experience any pain or discomfort in the vulvovaginal region to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She typically takes the combined contraceptive pill but missed her pills on days 2 and 3 of the first week of her current packet. On day 4, she engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). As a solution, you prescribe ulipristal acetate as an emergency contraceptive.

      What is the appropriate time for her to resume her regular hormonal contraception?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: Wait 5 days

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before resuming regular hormonal contraception. This is because hormonal contraception may be less effective when taken with ulipristal acetate, which could compromise its ability to prevent ovulation. However, there is an exception to this rule. If a patient is already taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has missed pills later than the first week of taking them, they can resume the COCP immediately after taking ulipristal acetate. Otherwise, patients should wait for 5 days before restarting hormonal contraception and use barrier methods during this period. It is not necessary to take a pregnancy test after taking ulipristal acetate unless the patient’s next period is more than 7 days late or lighter than usual. It is not contraindicated to use hormonal contraception with ulipristal acetate, but it is recommended to wait for 5 days before resuming it.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old postmenopausal woman with three previous vaginal deliveries presents to her general...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old postmenopausal woman with three previous vaginal deliveries presents to her general practitioner (GP) with a 2-week history of urinary incontinence. She was recently diagnosed with hypertension and was commenced on doxazosin therapy one month ago. She reports that these episodes occur during the day when she is walking to work and while she is working. She is a volunteer at the hospital shop and frequently lifts boxes as part of this role. She denies any preceding symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Functional incontinence

      Correct Answer: Stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Types of Urinary Incontinence and Their Causes

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many people, particularly women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own causes and management options.

      Stress incontinence is the most common form of urinary incontinence in women. It occurs when there is either loss of muscle tension of the pelvic floor muscles or damage to the urethral sphincter, leading to leakage of urine with stress. Risk factors include vaginal delivery, obesity, previous pelvic surgery, increasing age, family history, and use of certain medications.

      Functional incontinence occurs when one cannot make it to the toilet in time due to physical or environmental problems. This is not applicable to the patient in the scenario.

      Overflow incontinence occurs in the presence of a physical obstruction to bladder outflow, which may be caused by a pelvic tumour, faecal impaction, or prostatic hyperplasia. The patient in the scenario has no known obstructive pathology.

      True incontinence is a rare form of urinary incontinence and is associated with the formation of a fistula between the bladder or the ureter and the vagina, resulting in leakage of urine through the vagina. It is associated with cases of trauma following surgery or the presence of a pelvic cancer that has invaded through the wall resulting in damage to adjacent organs.

      Urge incontinence is the second most common form of urinary incontinence in women. It is defined as urinary leakage that is preceded by a strong desire to pass urine, a symptom referred to as urgency. It can be the result of detrusor instability or an overactive bladder. Management options include lifestyle modifications, bladder training, medications, and referral to secondary care for more advanced options.

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  • Question 23 - A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of intense dysmenorrhoea and deep...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of intense dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia. She reports having a consistent menstrual cycle and no significant medical or gynaecological history. During the examination, the physician observes a retroverted uterus that is immobile. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is characterized by pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility. The symptoms experienced by the patient in this case suggest the presence of intra-pelvic pathology, including a retroverted uterus and age-related factors. Chlamydia infection is often asymptomatic and does not typically cause dysmenorrhoea, although dyspareunia may occur. Lower abdominal pain may be caused by ovarian cysts, while ectopic pregnancy is associated with amenorrhoea and lower abdominal pain.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old patient has a history of irregular menstrual cycles over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient has a history of irregular menstrual cycles over the past few years. She is well known to you and has seen you regularly with regard to her weight problem, oily skin and acne. She presents to you on this occasion with a 6-month history of amenorrhoea and weight gain.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation in the above scenario?

      Your Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH) : follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels

      Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      The Most Appropriate Initial Investigation for Amenorrhoea: Urine Pregnancy Test

      When a patient presents with amenorrhoea, the most appropriate initial investigation is always a pregnancy test. If pregnancy is excluded, further investigations may be necessary to determine the underlying cause. For example, a diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) may be supported by high levels of free testosterone with low levels of sex-hormone binding globulin, which can be tested after excluding pregnancy. A pelvic ultrasound is also a useful investigation for PCOS and should be done following β-HCG estimation. While a raised LH: FSH ratio may be suggestive of PCOS, it is not diagnostic and not the initial investigation of choice here. Similarly, an oral glucose tolerance test might be useful in patients diagnosed with PCOS, but it would not be an appropriate initial investigation. Therefore, a urine pregnancy test is the most important first step in investigating amenorrhoea.

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  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old presents with pain in the right iliac fossa. She reports that...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old presents with pain in the right iliac fossa. She reports that the pain began a few hours ago while she was playing soccer and has been getting worse. The patient is negative for Rovsing's sign. An ultrasound reveals the presence of free pelvic fluid with a whirlpool sign. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian torsion

      Explanation:

      The whirlpool sign is indicative of an ovarian torsion or a volvulus caused by the twisting of the bowel. An enlarged ovary located in the midline and free pelvic fluid may also be observed on the ultrasound scan. Additionally, a doppler scan may reveal little or no ovarian venous flow with absent or reversed diastolic flow. On the other hand, Rovsing’s sign is characterized by increased tenderness in the right iliac fossa upon palpation of the left iliac fossa. This sign is often associated with cases of appendicitis.

      Causes of Pelvic Pain in Women

      Pelvic pain is a common complaint among women, with primary dysmenorrhoea being the most frequent cause. Mittelschmerz, or pain during ovulation, may also occur. However, there are other conditions that can cause pelvic pain, which can be acute or chronic in nature.

      Acute pelvic pain can be caused by conditions such as ectopic pregnancy, urinary tract infection, appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion. Ectopic pregnancy is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in women with a history of 6-8 weeks of amenorrhoea. Urinary tract infection may cause dysuria and frequency, while appendicitis may present with pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa. Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause pelvic pain, fever, deep dyspareunia, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and menstrual irregularities. Ovarian torsion, on the other hand, may cause sudden onset unilateral lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a tender adnexal mass on examination.

      Chronic pelvic pain, on the other hand, may be caused by conditions such as endometriosis, irritable bowel syndrome, ovarian cysts, and urogenital prolapse. Endometriosis is characterized by chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, deep dyspareunia, and subfertility. Irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition that presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and change in bowel habit. Ovarian cysts may cause a dull ache that is intermittent or only occurs during intercourse, while urogenital prolapse may cause a sensation of pressure, heaviness, and urinary symptoms such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency.

      In summary, pelvic pain in women can be caused by various conditions, both acute and chronic. It is important to seek medical attention if the pain is severe or persistent, or if there are other concerning symptoms present.

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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain and heavier bleeding in the past year. During a bimanual pelvic exam, an enlarged, non-tender uterus is palpated. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals a 2 cm fibroid. The patient is nulliparous and desires to have children in the future but not within the next three years. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

      Correct Answer: Progesterone-releasing intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Fibroids in Women

      Fibroids are a common gynecological condition that can cause symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. There are several management options available for women with fibroids, depending on their individual circumstances.

      Progesterone-releasing intrauterine system: This is recommended as a first-line treatment for women with fibroid-associated menorrhagia, where the fibroids are < 3 cm and do not distort the uterine cavity. It also provides a long-term form of contraception for up to two years. Combined oral contraceptive pill: This can be used as a management option for fibroids and is a suitable option for women who do not wish to conceive at present. However, the intrauterine system is more effective and provides longer-term contraception. Expectant management: This can be considered for women who have asymptomatic fibroids. However, it is not appropriate for women who are experiencing symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. Hysterectomy: This is a surgical option for women with symptomatic fibroids who do not wish to preserve their fertility. It is not appropriate for women who wish to become pregnant in the future. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): These can be a useful management option for fibroid-related dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. However, hormonal contraceptives may be more appropriate for women who do not wish to conceive. Management Options for Women with Fibroids

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  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old woman visits her gynaecologist with complaints of discomfort and a dragging...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her gynaecologist with complaints of discomfort and a dragging sensation, as well as a feeling of a lump in her genital area. Upon examination, the clinician notes a prolapse of the cervix, uterus, and vaginal wall, along with bleeding and ulceration of the cervix. Based on Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POPQ) grading, what type of prolapse is indicated by this patient's symptoms and examination results?

      Your Answer: Fourth-degree

      Explanation:

      Prolapse refers to the descent of pelvic organs into the vagina, which can be categorized into different degrees. First-degree prolapse involves the descent of the uterus and cervix, but they do not reach the vaginal opening. Second-degree prolapse is when the cervix descends to the level of the introitus. Third-degree prolapse is the protrusion of the cervix and uterus outside of the vagina. Fourth-degree prolapse is the complete prolapse of the cervix, uterus, and vaginal wall, which can cause bleeding due to cervix ulceration. Vault prolapse is the prolapse of the top of the vagina down the vaginal canal, often occurring after a hysterectomy due to weakness of the upper vagina. The causes of urogenital prolapse are multifactorial and can include factors such as childbirth, menopause, chronic cough, obesity, constipation, and suprapubic surgery for urinary continence.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman, presenting with a 4-month history of severe mood swings, breast...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman, presenting with a 4-month history of severe mood swings, breast tenderness and reduced cognitive ability to perform functions at work, comes for a review with her diary of symptoms corresponding to a period of three cycles. She attends work regularly during these episodes and goes out with friends, but does not enjoy it as much and is less productive.
      Going through the diary, symptoms occur during the luteal phase and resolve 2–3 days into menstruation.
      Blood tests, including thyroid function tests, are normal. She has tried the progesterone implant, which made her symptoms worse; therefore, she is not currently using any contraception.
      A diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is made.
      Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

      Explanation:

      Management of Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) is a diagnosis of exclusion, characterized by cyclical psychological, behavioral, and physical symptoms during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. The exact causes are not yet identified, but studies suggest that the effects of hormones on serotonin and GABA signaling may have a significant role, in addition to psychological and environmental factors.

      For moderate PMS, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of new-generation combined oral contraceptives, which prevent the natural cyclical change in hormones seen in the physiological menstrual cycle. Continuous use, rather than cyclical, showed better improvement. Response is unpredictable, and NICE suggests a trial of three months, and then to review.

      Referral to a specialist clinic is reserved for women who have severe PMS, resistant to medication, that cannot be managed in the community. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has been used successfully in the treatment of women with severe PMS symptoms or in women with moderate PMS that fails to respond to other treatments.

      Lifestyle modification advice is given to patients with mild PMS, including regular exercise, restriction in alcohol intake, smoking cessation, regular meals, regular sleep, and stress reduction. St John’s wort, an over-the-counter herbal remedy, has shown improvement of symptoms in some studies, but its safety profile is unknown, and it can interact with prescribed medication. Its use is at the discretion of the individual, but the patient needs to be warned of the potential risks.

      Management Options for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman presents for her routine cervical smear. The GP informs her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents for her routine cervical smear. The GP informs her that the result is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and schedules a follow-up smear in 12 months. At the second smear, the same result is obtained, and the GP schedules another follow-up smear in 12 months. However, at the third smear (now 37 years old), the hrHPV result is negative. The patient has no significant medical or family history.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat smear in 3 years

      Explanation:

      The correct course of action for a patient who has a second repeat smear at 24 months that is hrHPV negative is to return to routine recall in 3 years. If the result had been positive, the patient would need to be recalled in 12 months for a repeat smear. Referring for colposcopy would only be necessary if the patient had tested positive for hrHPV. Repeating the smear in 3 months or 12 months would also be incorrect, as the patient has already had two smears and the third result will determine the next course of action. Repeating the smear in 5 years would only be appropriate for older women during routine screening.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 30 - You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 24-year-old female about...

    Incorrect

    • You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 24-year-old female about the contraceptive patch.

      What are the proper steps to ensure the effective use of the contraceptive patch?

      Your Answer: Wear patch continually for 1 month then have 1 week break

      Correct Answer: Change patch weekly with a 1 week break after 3 patches

      Explanation:

      The contraceptive patch regime involves wearing one patch per week for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. This method is gaining popularity due to its flexibility, as the patch can be changed up to 48 hours late without the need for backup contraception. Additionally, the patch’s transdermal absorption eliminates the need for extra precautions during episodes of vomiting or diarrhea. Similar to the pill, this method involves three weeks of contraceptive use followed by a one-week break, during which the woman will experience a withdrawal bleed.

      The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.

      If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

      If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.

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