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  • Question 1 - A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She enjoys walking her dog but has noticed a decrease in exercise tolerance. She reports experiencing fast, irregular palpitations at various times throughout the day.

      During the examination, you observe flushed cheeks, a blood pressure reading of 140/95, and a raised JVP. You suspect the presence of a diastolic murmur. In a subsequent communication from the cardiologist, they describe a loud first heart sound, an opening snap, and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral Stenosis and Palpitations

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension. Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap. Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures. AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

      Spacing:

      The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension.

      Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap.

      Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures.

      AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

    Currently,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

      Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.

      What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a red and painful leg. He sustained a cut while jogging in the park. Upon examination, his left leg is warm and tender. You diagnose him with cellulitis and inquire about any allergies. He reports having a widespread rash to amoxicillin in the past. What antibiotic would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have cellulitis can receive clarithromycin, erythromycin (during pregnancy), or doxycycline. Penicillins are known to cause allergies, and current guidelines recommend clarithromycin for patients with cellulitis who are allergic to penicillin. Clindamycin is an alternative, but it has more adverse effects than clarithromycin. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav contain penicillin, and ceftriaxone is not used for cellulitis. Although ciprofloxacin can be given to children with varicella who have cellulitis and are allergic to penicillin, it is not appropriate for this patient.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of appetite of recent origin. Her serum creatinine is 230 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and urea is 13.5 mmol/l (2.5-6.5 mmol/l). She has taken diclofenac for pain relief for several years.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this side-effect of diclofenac.

      Your Answer: It is not dose related

      Correct Answer: It is likely to be reversible if the drug is stopped

      Explanation:

      The Renal Risks of NSAIDs

      One of the most common renal problems is sodium retention, which leads to water retention and oedema. This issue is particularly concerning for patients with pre-existing heart failure, as it can worsen their condition. Additionally, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone, especially in patients with diabetes, heart failure, or multiple myeloma. If the patient is taking potassium-sparing diuretics or ACE inhibitors, the hyperkalaemia may be more severe.

      NSAIDs can cause two types of acute renal failure. The first is haemodynamically mediated, where inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis can lead to reversible renal ischemia, a fall in GFR, and acute renal failure. The second is direct toxic effects on the kidney, such as acute tubular necrosis and acute interstitial nephritis. Adverse renal effects are generally reversible upon discontinuation of NSAID treatment. Glomerulosclerosis, typically caused by diabetes, can also be caused by drug-induced glomerular disease, including that caused by NSAIDs.

      High-dose NSAID use may significantly increase the risk of accelerated renal function decline in patients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, caution should always be exercised when using NSAIDs, and they should be given at the lowest effective dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      87.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old man comes to you complaining of bilateral sneezing, watery nasal discharge,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man comes to you complaining of bilateral sneezing, watery nasal discharge, and nasal itching. He reports experiencing these symptoms at this time of year for the past few years, but this year they are worse and are interfering with his college attendance. He has no trouble breathing, no other medical issues, and takes no regular medications. His mother suggested he try putting vaseline around his nose, and he has taken some cetirizine, but it has not been effective thus far.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start oral prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Intranasal fluticasone furoate and continue regular antihistamine

      Explanation:

      For individuals with moderate-to-severe or persistent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, intranasal steroids are the recommended first-line treatment. They have been found to be more effective than oral antihistamines. Combining intranasal steroids with oral antihistamines can provide even better results.

      If a person experiences persistent watery rhinorrhea despite using both intranasal steroids and oral antihistamines, an intranasal anticholinergic like ipratropium bromide can be added to the treatment plan.

      In cases where symptoms are severe and significantly impacting quality of life despite optimal treatment, a short course of oral steroids may be considered. However, this should only be used for important life events.

      If symptoms remain uncontrolled despite optimal management, immunotherapy may be considered as a future option.

      Understanding Allergic Rhinitis

      Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.

      The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.

      In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - One morning you go to see a 20-year-old female patient on the ward...

    Incorrect

    • One morning you go to see a 20-year-old female patient on the ward who has a painful eye. She was admitted yesterday with a broken arm, for which she had a successful surgery and is due to be discharged today, past medical history is unremarkable except for being nearsighted and wearing contact lenses. The patient explains her right eye has been sore since she woke up. She cannot recall if she removed her contact lenses the night before. An examination reveals diffuse redness of her right eye with both contact lenses in place but is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Wash out both eyes with 0.9% saline and remove contact lenses

      Correct Answer: Refer immediately to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      If the patient is using contact lenses, there is a possibility that she has a corneal ulcer. This is a serious eye condition that requires urgent attention from an ophthalmologist. Therefore, the other options are not appropriate. Removing the contact lenses could aggravate the situation, and asking her to visit an optician would only delay the diagnosis.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. Some causes of red eye require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some key distinguishing features of different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and a semi-dilated pupil. The patient may also see haloes and have a hazy cornea.

      Anterior uveitis has an acute onset and is accompanied by pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may be worse on movement. It may be associated with an underlying autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by purulent discharge, while viral conjunctivitis has a clear discharge.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and is characterized by a red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      2601.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What type of prescribing error is the most frequently occurring? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of prescribing error is the most frequently occurring?

      Your Answer: Dosage error

      Correct Answer: Incomplete information on the prescription

      Explanation:

      GMC Study Reveals High Rate of Prescription Errors

      A recent study conducted by the General Medical Council (GMC) has found that almost 5% of the 6,000 prescriptions assessed had some form of prescribing or monitoring error. The most common error identified was incomplete information on the prescription, accounting for a third of all errors.

      This study highlights the importance of accurate and complete information when prescribing medication. Such errors can have serious consequences for patients, including adverse reactions and ineffective treatment. It is crucial that healthcare professionals take the time to ensure that all necessary information is included on prescriptions and that they are monitored appropriately. By doing so, they can help to reduce the risk of errors and improve patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a history of breast cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a history of breast cancer and a right-sided mastectomy with subsequent lymphoedema of the right arm. She reports the development of a new painful rash on her right arm over the past 24 hours. On examination, there is mild chronic lymphoedema to the arm with an area of mild erythema and warmth measuring approximately 3x3cm that is tender to the touch. You suspect erysipelas. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Penicillin V

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      This patient is suffering from erysipelas, a skin infection caused by beta-hemolytic group A streptococcus. It affects the superficial layer of the skin and is different from cellulitis, which affects deeper tissues. Flucloxacillin is the recommended first-line treatment for erysipelas, unless the patient has a penicillin allergy, in which case clarithromycin is used. Co-amoxiclav is preferred if the infection affects the tissues around the nose or eyes, while fusidic acid is used to treat impetigo, a superficial skin infection.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What is the probable reason for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Drugs and Pancytopenia in Ulcerative Colitis: Understanding the Risks

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for the condition, various drugs can help manage symptoms and induce remission. However, some of these drugs can also cause bone marrow suppression, leading to a condition called pancytopenia.

      Azathioprine, methotrexate, ciclosporin, infliximab, and mesalazine are some of the drugs commonly used in ulcerative colitis that can cause bone marrow suppression. Patients taking these drugs should be monitored regularly for symptoms of bleeding or infection, and blood counts should be undertaken.

      Anti-diarrhoeal drugs like codeine phosphate, co-phenotrope, and loperamide may help control symptoms, but they do not cause pancytopenia. Mebeverine may provide symptomatic relief from colic, but it doesn’t cause pancytopenia either.

      While metronidazole may be helpful in people with Crohn’s disease, it is generally not considered useful for those with ulcerative colitis. Pancytopenia has been reported with metronidazole. Prednisolone, on the other hand, can be used to induce remission in ulcerative colitis without causing pancytopenia.

      It is essential to note that other drugs, such as chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, septrin, gold, penicillamine, indometacin, diclofenac, naproxen, piroxicam, phenytoin, carbamazepine, carbimazole, thiouracil, dosulepin, phenothiazines, chlorpropamide, and chloroquine, have also been reported to cause pancytopenia. Therefore, patients with ulcerative colitis should be aware of the risks associated with these drugs and report any symptoms immediately to their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about being different from her peers who have already started menstruating. She has a history of irregular attendance but is currently in good health. On examination, she is on the 25th centile for height and the 90th centile for weight. She has no signs of secondary sexual characteristics and presents with a broad chest and webbed neck. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Constitutional delay in puberty

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Short Stature and Delayed Puberty

      Short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the most common causes:

      1. Turner Syndrome
      Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females. It occurs in between 1 in 2500 and 1 in 5000 live births. Features include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have mild intellectual impairment and cardiovascular defects. There is a loss of one X chromosome (chromosome pattern XO), which results in a broad (webbed neck) and widely spaced nipples.

      2. Constitutional Delay in Puberty
      Constitutional delay in puberty is often familial and is the most common cause of short stature and delayed puberty. In otherwise normal children, linear growth slows until about the age of 3 years, then proceeds normally until expected puberty, and then slows again in the absence of a growth spurt. A full catch-up may not occur.

      3. Down’s Syndrome
      Short stature occurs in Down’s syndrome, but puberty is not normally delayed. Down’s syndrome would usually have been diagnosed early in life by the presence of typical features, which do not include a webbed neck.

      4. Hypothyroidism
      Hypothyroidism occurring during prepubertal years, usually due to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, can cause delayed puberty or, in some cases, precocious puberty. Other features of hypothyroidism should be present. In contrast, treated congenital hyperthyroidism usually results in normal pubertal development.

      5. Klinefelter Syndrome
      Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is caused by an XXY genotype. The usual presentation is with delayed sexual development or infertility.

      In conclusion, short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and thyroid problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old man presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic after experiencing three episodes of transient left-sided weakness in the past two weeks. What advice should be given regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Cannot drive for 12 months

      Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 3 months

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance following multiple TIAs: driving prohibited for a period of 3 months.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Choose the option that would be the LEAST probable reason for referring a...

    Correct

    • Choose the option that would be the LEAST probable reason for referring a patient with atrial fibrillation for rhythm control (cardioversion) if they were elderly.

      Your Answer: Longstanding atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Cardioversion for Atrial Fibrillation: NICE Guidelines and Considerations

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends referral to a cardiologist for rhythm-control treatment (cardioversion) in certain cases of atrial fibrillation. These include atrial fibrillation with a reversible cause, heart failure primarily caused or worsened by atrial fibrillation, and new-onset atrial fibrillation. If onset is known to be within 48 hours, referral to an acute medical unit is recommended for immediate cardioversion without anticoagulation treatment. Pharmacological cardioversion is often used as a first-line therapy, with electrical cardioversion reserved for non-responders. However, cardioversion may be less successful or not recommended in cases of long-standing atrial fibrillation, significant valve problems, cardiomegaly, or multiple recurrences of atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      944.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Acute exacerbation of asthma

      Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.

      Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient with type 1 diabetes who is 16 years old presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with type 1 diabetes who is 16 years old presents with diarrhoea and vomiting, along with reduced oral intake. In the past day, she has experienced increased thirst and urination. Her capillary blood glucose level is 19 mmol/L, and her blood ketones are 3.6 mmol/L.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Increase her insulin dose by 50%

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is a condition that can affect both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes patients. It is identified by blood ketone levels of ≥3 mmol/L (or urine ketones of ++ or greater) in individuals with a blood glucose level of ≥11 mmol/L or a known history of diabetes. It is important to check ketones in all diabetic patients who are unwell and admit them to the hospital if their ketone levels are ≥3 mmol/L. Blood ketones are preferred over urine ketones as they provide a more accurate representation of the true blood ketone level. Patients should never discontinue their insulin treatment, even if they are unwell and eating less. During intercurrent illness, they may require higher insulin doses and should have a ‘sick day’ management plan from their diabetes team.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She reports difficulty gripping objects and has spilled her tea on herself multiple times. The woman also mentions feeling extremely fatigued and describes her legs as feeling heavy. She has experienced a few falls, including one where she hit her head. After a neurological exam, the GP suspects motor neurone disease but is considering other diagnoses based on which of the following symptoms or signs?

      Your Answer: Reduced power and increased tone

      Correct Answer: Reduction in eye movements

      Explanation:

      Motor neurone disease typically spares eye movements, as extraocular eye muscles are often unaffected. The disease is characterized by progressive paralysis, with a mix of upper and lower motor neurone signs that can result in increased or decreased tone and weakness. Fasciculations are a common lower motor neurone sign, while foot drop is an early manifestation of the disease. Patients with MND may also develop bulbar symptoms, such as speech and swallowing difficulties, which can increase their risk of aspiration and pneumonia.

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.

      Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it doesn’t affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      116.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his left eye spreading across his forehead. During the headache, he has difficulty speaking. Three minutes later he has developed clumsiness in his right hand, and two minutes after that he describes his right leg as ‘feeling heavy’. His speech and limb symptoms have disappeared after 20 minutes, but his headache persists for six hours. He suffered from migraines as a teenager but has not had an attack in over 15 years. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neurological Symptoms: Differential Diagnosis

      When presented with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of transient symptoms accompanied by a prolonged headache history, migraine with aura is a likely possibility. The aura may be visual, sensory, motor, or a combination of these and typically lasts less than 60 minutes.

      While a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) could explain the neurological symptoms, it is unlikely to account for the prolonged headache history. A berry aneurysm, on the other hand, would not cause transient symptoms and would more likely result in a sudden-onset severe headache if ruptured.

      Cluster headaches, which are accompanied by autonomic symptoms on the same side of the head as the pain, are more common in smokers but would not explain the transient neurological symptoms.

      Finally, a subarachnoid haemorrhage typically presents as a sudden-onset severe headache, which is not consistent with the rapid resolution of the neurological symptoms in this case.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of neurological symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her mother regarding her growth. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her mother regarding her growth. She has always been one of the shorter children in her class, but recently has been the subject of bullying and has become very unhappy. Her parents are convinced there is something wrong and would like something to be done. She was born at term without any antenatal complications and her length at birth was on the 50th centile. She has only been seen for vaccinations and minor childhood ailments and takes no regular medications. Her height today is on the 9th centile and her weight on the 75th. Cardiovascular and abdominal examination is normal, with no signs of precocious puberty.
      Select from the list the most appropriate initial management.

      Your Answer: Refer for consideration of growth hormone injections

      Correct Answer: Check thyroid function

      Explanation:

      Investigating a Drop in Centiles for Height: Possible Causes and Referral to an Endocrinologist

      When a child’s height drops in centiles without an obvious cause, it is important to investigate the underlying reason. One possible cause that should be excluded is hypothyroidism, which can be determined through testing. X-rays can also be helpful in determining bone age. If there is a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, a renal ultrasound may be recommended.

      If a child’s growth persists along one of the lower centiles, constitutional short stature may be suggested, but if there has been a drop in centiles, this is unlikely. In such cases, referral to an endocrinologist is likely necessary.

      Congenital hypothyroidism is screened for at birth, but acquired hypothyroidism in childhood and adolescence is often caused by lymphocytic (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis. The first signs are often a slowing of growth, which may go unnoticed, followed by other typical signs of hypothyroidism such as skin changes, cold intolerance, sleepiness, and low energy. Delayed puberty is common in adolescence, but younger children may experience galactorrhea or precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What prophylaxis options are suitable for an adult at-risk population, including pregnant women,...

    Incorrect

    • What prophylaxis options are suitable for an adult at-risk population, including pregnant women, during an influenza A outbreak?

      Your Answer: Ganciclovir

      Correct Answer: Lamivudine

      Explanation:

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) for Prophylactic Treatment during Flu Epidemics

      During flu epidemics, oseltamivir (Tamiflu) may be used as a prophylactic treatment for at-risk patients, including pregnant women. However, long-term use of oseltamivir can lead to resistance. The current protocol recommends no antiviral treatment for previously healthy individuals, unless the physician deems the patient at serious risk of developing complications from the flu. In such cases, oseltamivir may be prescribed orally.

      For at-risk populations, including pregnant women (excluding the severely immunosuppressed), oseltamivir is recommended as a prophylactic treatment. Treatment should begin as soon as possible, ideally within 48 hours of onset. Evidence suggests that even if treatment is started up to 5 days after onset, it may reduce the risk of mortality. However, starting treatment more than 48 hours after onset is considered an off-label use of oseltamivir, and clinical judgement should be exercised.

      For the full protocol, please refer to the HM UK Government’s guidelines on influenza treatment and prophylaxis using antiviral agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      107.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in his toes. He reports stiffness in his back, particularly in the morning. He states that these symptoms have been intermittent for several months and that he was previously treated with naproxen for the toe pain. He is not taking any regular medications except for moisturizers for his psoriasis. On examination, he has nail pitting but no rash.
      What is the most probable diagnosis from the following options?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentation

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that is often preceded by a rash and/or nail changes. However, in some cases, the arthritis can present without any obvious rash. The arthritis typically affects the wrists, hands, feet, and ankles in a symmetrical pattern. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis involves the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints rather than the metacarpophalangeal joints. Enthesopathy, or inflammation at tendon or ligament insertions into bone, is also common in psoriatic arthritis, particularly at the attachment of the Achilles tendon and the plantar fascia to the calcaneus.

      Patients who are HLA-B27 positive may also experience conjunctivitis, uveitis, and sacroiliitis. The presentation of psoriatic arthritis may be asymmetrical and oligoarticular, and dactylitis, or inflammation of a digit causing sausage digits, occurs in up to 35% of patients. Diagnosis is suggested by asymmetrical joint involvement, dactylitis, the absence of rheumatoid factor, and DIP involvement in the absence of osteoarthritis.

      Psoriatic arthritis can also occur in juvenile patients and may be confused with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Severe derangement of the joints, particularly the DIP joints, can occur in some cases, which is known as arthritis mutilans. It is important to distinguish psoriatic arthritis from other types of arthritis in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate...

    Correct

    • You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg two puffs twice daily for his asthma. He also uses salbutamol as and when required but says he has been needing two puffs four times a day for the past few days. Over the past two weeks he has been coughing thick green phlegm and feels more wheezy and says he is a lot shorter of breath than usual. He has been feeling feverish intermittently.

      His symptoms are not getting better despite increasing his salbutamol. On examination, his temperature is 38.1 and his oxygen saturations are 92% in air. His chest sounds wheezy and he has crackles to the right basal region. His peak flow is 300 L/min (predicted of 610 L/min). His respiration rate is 24/minute and his pulse is 110 per minute. His blood pressure is 120/59.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Trial 500 micrograms ipratropium bromide nebulizer

      Explanation:

      Hospital Admission Necessary for Patient with Asthma and Pneumonia

      There are several indicators that suggest hospital admission is necessary for this patient. Despite already taking preventative measures for his asthma with Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg, his usage of salbutamol has increased and he has a productive cough with fevers, indicating a potential bacterial infection. Additionally, his oxygen levels are low, requiring oxygen therapy and monitoring of his oxygen saturations. He is also febrile with evidence of a focal infection and tachycardic. His CRB-65 score of 2, due to his blood pressure being <60 diastolic and his age being >65, further supports the need for hospitalization. Furthermore, his peak flow is less than 50%, indicating both pneumonia and an acute asthma attack.

      While other options may be reasonable, such as adjusting his medication or providing home care, this patient requires intravenous antibiotics, oxygen therapy, and monitoring of his oxygen saturations and steroids, all of which can only be provided in a hospital setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A teenager presents with rash which clinically looks like Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP).
    Which statement...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents with rash which clinically looks like Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP).
      Which statement is true?

      Your Answer: Children rarely have abdominal pain

      Correct Answer: The condition normally lasts six months

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: Symptoms and Duration

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) is a condition characterized by a rash on the back and thighs that is palpable and non-blanching, but is a non-thrombocytopenic purpura. Children with HSP may experience abdominal pain and bloody stools, which are cardinal symptoms of the disease. The kidneys are also often involved, and patients may have frank haematuria. The disease typically lasts about four weeks and resolves spontaneously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A randomised controlled trial is conducted comparing a new medication or placebo for...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised controlled trial is conducted comparing a new medication or placebo for treatment of hypertension in adults aged 60 years or older. Study authors do a calculation to establish how large a sample size is needed for their study.

      What term best describes the type of calculation conducted?

      Your Answer: Type II error

      Correct Answer: Power

      Explanation:

      The power of a study is the correct answer. It is defined as the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis and not making a type II error. A power calculation helps researchers determine the necessary sample size to detect a meaningful difference between groups and reduce the risk of type II error. Standard error and systematic error are incorrect answers. Standard error is the standard deviation of a distribution of sample means, while systematic error refers to bias in the study design or execution.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman is 11 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with threadworm....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is 11 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with threadworm. What treatment options are safe for her?

      Your Answer: 2 weeks of strict personal hygiene measures

      Correct Answer: Washing or wet-wiping at 3-hourly intervals during the day and personal hygiene measures

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for pregnant women with pinworm infection involves a combination of physical removal of eggs and hygiene methods. This may include washing the perianal area in the morning and at regular intervals throughout the day. Therefore, relying solely on strict personal hygiene measures for two weeks would not be the preferred option for this patient. Mebendazole is not recommended during the first trimester of pregnancy, but may be considered in the later stages if necessary.

      Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK

      Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.

      Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old man presents with persistent fatigue, poor appetite, occasional sweats and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with persistent fatigue, poor appetite, occasional sweats and a feeling of upper abdominal discomfort. He smokes 15 cigarettes per day, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week. He has no change in bowel habit. His records show that he injected heroin for a short period of time in his twenties.

      He had an urgent ultrasound scan which shows a mass in his liver which has now been biopsied and reported as hepatocellular cancer of the liver.

      What is the greatest risk factor for hepatocellular primary liver cancer in this 60-year-old man?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A infection

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C and Liver Cancer

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes undiagnosed for up to 20 years, making it a significant risk for those who engage in needle sharing and drug use. This infection can lead to cirrhosis of the liver, which increases the risk of developing primary liver cancer. In fact, around 80% of hepatocellular carcinoma cases are caused by viral infections with either hepatitis C or hepatitis B.

      While gallstones and caffeine intake are not associated with an increased risk of liver cancer, previous cholecystectomy and chronic infection with hepatitis B can increase the risk. Statin use and hepatitis A infection, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk.

      It is crucial to consider hepatitis C testing for at-risk populations and to maintain a low index of suspicion for liver cancer in those with a hepatitis C diagnosis. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for those with liver cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      68
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old girl comes to your clinic with her father. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl comes to your clinic with her father. She has been feeling sick for the past 48 hours with a fever, sore throat, and fatigue. She has no appetite and her father has noticed blisters in her mouth, as well as a rash on her hands and feet. You suspect hand, foot and mouth disease. What recommendations do you provide for treatment?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a 7-day course of amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Manage supportively, simple analgesia, no need to exclude from nursery

      Explanation:

      Children with hand, foot and mouth disease do not need to be excluded from childcare or school. Supportive management and simple pain relief are sufficient, and antibiotics are not necessary as the condition is caused by a virus. There is no evidence to support the use of antivirals or chlorhexidine mouthwash. Although the illness is contagious and often occurs in outbreaks at nurseries and schools, NICE guidelines suggest that children should only be kept off if they are too ill to attend.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      238.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the second time in the span of three months, after experiencing a syncopal episode. She also reported feeling extremely fatigued for the past few months and having bouts of dizziness. Upon examination, she appeared slender and sun-kissed, with a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg while lying down, but it dropped to 87/63 mmHg upon standing. Her baseline serum cortisol was low (<100 nmol/l) and her free thyroxine (T4) level was also low.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis for the clinical presentation described above? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Psychiatric symptoms

      Correct Answer: Primary hypoadrenalism

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hypoadrenalism: A Case Study

      A woman presents with a marked postural drop in blood pressure, increased pigmentation, and low cortisol levels, indicating primary hypoadrenalism as the most likely diagnosis. The high adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level causes pigmentation, and autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands is responsible for 80% of cases. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common in established cases. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends hospital admission for serum cortisol levels below 100 nmol/l and referral to an endocrinologist for levels between 100 and 500 nmol/l. Hypovolemia, HIV, hypothyroidism, and psychiatric symptoms are unlikely causes based on the case history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      145.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old teacher comes to the clinic seeking a medical certificate after undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old teacher comes to the clinic seeking a medical certificate after undergoing an open repair for an inguinal hernia. As per the guidelines of the Department of Work and Pensions, what is the recommended duration before he can resume work?

      Your Answer: After 5 days

      Correct Answer: After 2 - 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      Returning to work after inguinal hernia repair takes 2-3 weeks for open surgery and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic surgery.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      54.7
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  • Question 28 - You are asked by one of your practice nurses to see a new...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked by one of your practice nurses to see a new health care support worker at the practice who has become unwell. She is a young adult and has just put on a pair of latex gloves to assist the nurse with a procedure. Immediately after putting the gloves on she has developed diffuse itch and widespread urticaria is present. She has some mild angioedema and a slight wheeze is audible.

      Which of the following describes this scenario?

      Your Answer: Type III allergic reaction

      Correct Answer: Type II allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Allergic Reactions to Natural Rubber Latex

      Natural rubber latex (NRL) is commonly found in healthcare products, including gloves. However, NRL proteins can cause a type I immediate hypersensitivity allergic reaction, which can be severe. In addition, some products made with NRL may contain chemical additives that cause an irritant contact dermatitis, resulting in localized skin irritation. This is not an allergic response to NRL.

      Another type of allergic reaction, a type IV allergic contact dermatitis, can occur due to sensitization to the chemical additives used in NRL gloves. This type of reaction may take months or even years to develop, but once sensitized, symptoms usually occur within 10-24 hours of exposure and can worsen over a 72 hour period. It is important for healthcare workers and patients to be aware of the potential for allergic reactions to NRL and to take appropriate precautions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer is found to have a corrected...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer is found to have a corrected serum calcium level of 3.2 mmol/L (normal reference range 2.62-2.8 mmol/L). Her presenting symptoms were worsening fatigue and mild confusion.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate measure to recommend?

      Your Answer: Drink 3–4 L of fluid per day

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital or hospice

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypercalcemia in Palliative Care: Admission, Treatment, and Diet Recommendations

      Hypercalcemia, a rise in serum calcium levels, can cause a range of symptoms including weakness, anorexia, nausea, and constipation. Severe cases can lead to delirium, seizures, and coma. While some patients may not experience symptoms, hypercalcemia can be an emergency in palliative care. In cases where treatment is not appropriate, fluid replacement and bisphosphonates can alleviate distressing symptoms. However, symptomatic or moderate to severe hypercalcemia requires immediate admission to a hospital or hospice for management with intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. A low calcium diet is unnecessary, and good hydration is the first-line treatment for mild asymptomatic hypercalcemia. Thiazide diuretics should be avoided as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia, as can lack of mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      88.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What amount of corticosteroid cream should be recommended for a teenager with eczema...

    Incorrect

    • What amount of corticosteroid cream should be recommended for a teenager with eczema on both legs for a two-week treatment with once daily application?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 g

      Explanation:

      Proper Application of Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are effective in treating skin conditions, but it is important to apply them correctly. The cream or ointment should be spread thinly on the affected area, but enough should be used to cover it completely. To determine the appropriate amount, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.

      For example, treating both legs for two weeks requires 14 ftus or 7 g per daily dose. This means that a prescription for 100 g is needed. It is important to know the correct quantity of cream to be prescribed and the volumes used for various parts of the body, as these have been tested in past examinations. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using topical corticosteroids safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/2) 50%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/3) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (2/4) 50%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed