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  • Question 1 - A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and difficulty speaking. The child is drooling and has been intubated by a senior anesthesiologist and ENT surgeon. After examination, the diagnosis is determined to be acute epiglottitis.
      What is the MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus spp.

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is inflammation of the epiglottis, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. When the soft tissues surrounding the epiglottis are also affected, it is called acute supraglottitis. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 5, but it can occur at any age, with adults typically presenting in their 40s and 50s.

      In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type B was the main cause of acute epiglottitis, but with the introduction of the Hib vaccination, it has become rare in children. Streptococcus spp. is now the most common causative organism. Other potential culprits include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the herpes simplex virus. In immunocompromised patients, Candida spp. and Aspergillus spp. infections can occur.

      The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (especially in children who may drool), muffled voice, stridor, respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, ear pain, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. Some patients may also exhibit the tripod sign, where they lean forward on outstretched arms to relieve upper airway obstruction.

      To diagnose acute epiglottitis, fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the gold standard investigation. However, this procedure should only be performed by an anaesthetist in a setting prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case of airway obstruction. Other useful tests include a lateral neck X-ray to look for the thumbprint sign, throat swabs, blood cultures, and a CT scan of the neck if an abscess is suspected.

      When dealing with a case of acute epiglottitis, it is crucial not to panic or distress the patient, especially in pediatric cases. Avoid attempting to examine the throat with a tongue depressor, as this can trigger spasm and worsen airway obstruction. Instead, keep the patient as calm as possible and immediately call a senior anaesthetist, a senior paediatrician, and an ENT surgeon. Nebulized adrenaline can be used as a temporary measure if there is critical airway obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are present at a trauma call for an elderly pedestrian who has...

    Correct

    • You are present at a trauma call for an elderly pedestrian who has been hit by a car. She has bruising on the right side of her chest. The primary survey has been completed and you have been asked to perform a secondary survey.
      According to the ATLS guidelines, which of the following indicates a potentially life-threatening chest injury that should be identified and treated during the SECONDARY survey?

      Your Answer: Blunt oesophageal rupture

      Explanation:

      The ATLS guidelines categorize chest injuries in trauma into two groups: life-threatening injuries that require immediate identification and treatment in the primary survey, and potentially life-threatening injuries that should be identified and treated in the secondary survey.

      During the primary survey, the focus is on identifying and treating life-threatening thoracic injuries. These include airway obstruction, tracheobronchial tree injury, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive haemothorax, and cardiac tamponade. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial in order to prevent further deterioration and potential fatality.

      In the secondary survey, attention is given to potentially life-threatening injuries that may not be immediately apparent. These include simple pneumothorax, haemothorax, flail chest, pulmonary contusion, blunt cardiac injury, traumatic aortic disruption, traumatic diaphragmatic injury, and blunt oesophageal rupture. These injuries may not pose an immediate threat to life, but they still require identification and appropriate management to prevent complications and ensure optimal patient outcomes.

      By dividing chest injuries into these two categories and addressing them in a systematic manner, healthcare providers can effectively prioritize and manage trauma patients, ultimately improving their chances of survival and recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      144.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman is given diclofenac for arthritis during her second trimester of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is given diclofenac for arthritis during her second trimester of pregnancy. As a result of this medication, the baby develops a birth defect.
      What is the most probable birth defect that can occur due to the use of diclofenac during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      The use of NSAIDs during the third trimester of pregnancy is associated with several risks. These risks include delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus, which is a condition characterized by bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction. Additionally, there is a slight increase in the risk of first-trimester abortion if NSAIDs are used early in pregnancy.

      Below is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      Drug: ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril)
      Adverse effects: If given in the second and third trimester, ACE inhibitors can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Drug: Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin)
      Adverse effects: Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity, leading to deafness in the fetus.

      Drug: Aspirin
      Adverse effects: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) have no significant associated risk.

      Drug: Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam)
      Adverse effects: When given late in pregnancy, benzodiazepines can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Drug: Calcium-channel blockers
      Adverse effects: If given in the first trimester, calcium-channel blockers can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimester, they can cause fetal growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased vision and floaters in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased vision and floaters in his right eye. Upon fundoscopy, you observe a section of sensory retina protruding towards the center of the eye. A diagnosis of retinal detachment is confirmed.
      Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is correct?

      Your Answer: Loss of peripheral vision is the earliest sign

      Correct Answer: A retina which remains fixed at six months post-surgical repair is unlikely to become detached again

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.

      The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.

      Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.

      It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      342.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are overseeing the care of a patient who has been recommended to...

    Correct

    • You are overseeing the care of a patient who has been recommended to visit the emergency department due to an unexpected abnormal potassium level on a routine blood test. What signs or symptoms would you anticipate observing in a patient with severe hyperkalemia?

      Your Answer: Flaccid paralysis

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia can be identified by certain signs, such as muscle weakness, cramps, and delayed deep tendon reflexes. Additionally, there are neurological signs that may be present, including flaccid paralysis, twitching, peripheral paresthesia, weakness, and hypo-reflexia.

      Further Reading:

      Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.

      Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.

      Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.

      Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.

      In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      128.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old man with a history of multiple sclerosis presents with loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a history of multiple sclerosis presents with loss of vision in his right eye due to an episode of optic neuritis.

      At which point in the visual pathway has this lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Optic tract

      Correct Answer: Optic nerve

      Explanation:

      Lesions that occur in the optic nerve, specifically those that are located outside of the optic chiasm, result in visual loss in only one eye on the same side as the lesion. There are several factors that can cause these optic nerve lesions, including optic neuritis which is often associated with multiple sclerosis. Other causes include compression of the optic nerve due to tumors in the eye, toxicity from substances like ethambutol or methanol, and trauma to the optic nerve such as fractures in the orbital bone. The diagram provided below illustrates the different types of visual field defects that can occur depending on the location of the lesion along the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      57.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was struck by a truck. She has suffered severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her neck is immobilized. She has suffered significant midface trauma, and the anesthesiologist decides to secure a definitive airway by intubating the patient. He is unable to pass an endotracheal tube, and he decides to perform a needle cricothyroidotomy.
      Which of the following statements regarding needle cricothyroidotomy is FALSE?

      Your Answer: The cricothyroid membrane is located directly below the cricoid cartilage

      Explanation:

      A needle cricothyroidotomy is a procedure used in emergency situations to provide oxygenation when intubation and oxygenation are not possible. It is typically performed when a patient cannot be intubated or oxygenated. There are certain conditions that make this procedure contraindicated, such as local infection, distorted anatomy, previous failed attempts, and swelling or mass lesions.

      To perform a needle cricothyroidotomy, the necessary equipment should be assembled and prepared. The patient should be positioned supine with their neck in a neutral position. The neck should be cleaned in a sterile manner using antiseptic swabs. If time allows, the area should be anesthetized locally. A 12 or 14 gauge over-the-needle catheter should be assembled to a 10 mL syringe.

      The cricothyroid membrane, located between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage, should be identified anteriorly. The trachea should be stabilized with the thumb and forefinger of one hand. Using the other hand, the skin should be punctured in the midline with the needle over the cricothyroid membrane. The needle should be directed at a 45° angle caudally while negative pressure is applied to the syringe. Needle aspiration should be maintained as the needle is inserted through the lower half of the cricothyroid membrane, with air aspiration indicating entry into the tracheal lumen.

      Once the needle is in place, the syringe and needle should be removed while the catheter is advanced to the hub. The oxygen catheter should be attached and the airway secured. It is important to be aware of possible complications, such as technique failure, cannula obstruction or dislodgement, injury to local structures, and surgical emphysema if high flow oxygen is administered through a malpositioned cannula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she has rapidly declined in the past 24 hours. She appears extremely ill and has a temperature of 39.3°C. She has a history of stroke, is typically confined to bed, and struggles with communication. During the examination, she exhibits rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, and coarse crackles in the right middle and lower areas.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with clinical features that are indicative of a right middle/lower lobe pneumonia. Considering her past medical history of a stroke and the specific location of the chest signs, it is highly probable that she is suffering from aspiration pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department by coworkers....

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department by coworkers. The patient was having lunch when he started to experience wheezing and noticed swelling in his lips. He is immediately taken to the resuscitation bay. One of the coworkers mentions that they saw the patient take a pill with his meal. Which of the following medications or medication classes is the primary culprit for inducing anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme Inhibitors

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics

      Explanation:

      In cases of anaphylaxis, it is important to administer non-sedating antihistamines after adrenaline administration and initial resuscitation. Previous guidelines recommended the use of chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone as third line treatments, but the 2021 guidelines have removed this recommendation. Corticosteroids are no longer advised. Instead, it is now recommended to use non-sedating antihistamines such as cetirizine, loratadine, and fexofenadine, as alternatives to the sedating antihistamine chlorpheniramine. The top priority treatments for anaphylaxis are adrenaline, oxygen, and fluids. The Resuscitation Council advises that administration of non-sedating antihistamines should occur after the initial resuscitation.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse, and thick vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative. She has no fever and her vital signs are normal. During the exam, her abdomen feels soft, but she experiences cervical motion tenderness during a pelvic examination.

      What is the MOST suitable treatment plan?

      Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone and metronidazole plus oral doxycycline

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone plus oral doxycycline and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea. In the UK, genital Chlamydia trachomatis infection is the most common cause of PID seen in genitourinary medicine clinics.

      PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms are present, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It is important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be similar to those of PID, so a pregnancy test should be conducted for all patients with suspicious symptoms.

      To investigate a possible case of PID, endocervical swabs should be taken to test for C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae using nucleic acid amplification tests if available. Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings, while patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.

      Empirical antibiotic treatment should be initiated as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made clinically, without waiting for swab results. The current recommended outpatient treatment for PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.

      For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment includes intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. This is then followed by a switch to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day treatment course. If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 62-year-old man with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue. His arthritis is well managed with sulfasalazine. His blood test results are as follows:

      Hemoglobin (Hb): 9.8 g/dl (11.5-15.5 g/dl)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 80 fl (75-87 fl)
      Platelets: 176 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
      Serum Iron: 5 mmol/l (10-28 mmol/l)
      Total Iron-Binding Capacity (TIBC): 35 mmol/l (45-72 mmol/l)

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Myelodysplastic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease

      Explanation:

      Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that can occur in various chronic conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, tuberculosis, malignancy, malnutrition, hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, chronic kidney disease, and chronic liver disease. The underlying mechanisms of this type of anaemia are complex and not fully understood, with multiple contributing factors involved. One important mediator in inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis is interleukin-6 (IL-6). Increased levels of IL-6 lead to the production of hepcidin, a hormone that regulates iron balance. Hepcidin prevents the release of iron from the reticulo-endothelial system and affects other aspects of iron metabolism.

      Anaemia of chronic disease typically presents as a normochromic, normocytic anaemia, although it can also be microcytic. It is characterized by reduced serum iron, reduced transferrin saturation, and reduced total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). However, the serum ferritin levels are usually normal or increased. Distinguishing anaemia of chronic disease from iron-deficiency anaemia can be challenging, but in iron-deficiency anaemia, the TIBC is typically elevated, and serum ferritin is usually low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      173.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman is given a medication during the advanced stages of pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is given a medication during the advanced stages of pregnancy. As a result, the newborn experiences respiratory depression and develops a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      During the later stages of pregnancy, the use of diazepam has been linked to respiratory depression in newborns and a withdrawal syndrome. There are several drugs that can have adverse effects during pregnancy, and the list below outlines the most commonly encountered ones.

      ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence if given in the second and third trimesters. Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can lead to ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, including diazepam, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome when administered late in pregnancy. Calcium-channel blockers can cause phalangeal abnormalities if given in the first trimester and fetal growth retardation if given in the second and third trimesters. Carbamazepine can lead to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol is associated with grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, when administered in the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations. In the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability.

      Lithium, if given in the first trimester, poses a risk of fetal cardiac malformations. In the second and third trimesters, it can result in hypotonia, lethargy, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, goiter, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      71.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a respiratory infection comes in with excessive, foul-smelling diarrhea. After conducting tests, the patient is diagnosed with Clostridium Difficile diarrhea.
      What is the most effective measure to minimize transmission to other patients?

      Your Answer: Hand washing

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is Gram-positive, anaerobic, and capable of forming spores. When individuals take broad-spectrum antibiotics, it can disrupt the normal bacteria in their intestines, allowing C. difficile to multiply and cause C. difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD). This condition leads to inflammation and bleeding of the large intestine, resulting in a distinct pseudomembranous appearance. The main symptoms include abdominal cramps, bloody and/or watery diarrhea, and fever. It is worth noting that the majority of C. difficile infections occur in individuals aged 65 and above.

      To prevent the spread of C. difficile, it is crucial to practice proper hand hygiene. This involves washing hands with water and plain or antibacterial soap for 15 to 30 seconds after using the bathroom and before eating. Paying attention to areas such as the fingernails, between the fingers, and the wrists is essential. Thoroughly rinsing hands and drying them with a single-use towel is also recommended. Additionally, patients and their family members should remind healthcare providers to wash their hands regularly.

      While alcohol-based hand rubs can be effective against many bacteria, they may be less effective against C. difficile. Therefore, during an outbreak of C. difficile infection, it is advisable to use soap and running water instead.

      Taking precautions such as wearing an apron and gloves and isolating patients in separate rooms are important measures to prevent contact transmission. However, it is crucial to remember that these precautions will be ineffective if proper hand washing is neglected. Hand hygiene remains the primary and most crucial step in preventing the spread of C. difficile.

      When it comes to treatment, oral vancomycin is the recommended first-line option for C. difficile associated diarrhea. However, it is important to note that this treatment does not limit the spread of the bacteria from one patient to another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      143.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe left eye pain and loss of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe left eye pain and loss of vision in the left eye. After conducting a comprehensive examination and measuring the intraocular pressure, you diagnose her with acute closed-angle glaucoma.
      Which of the following statements about acute closed-angle glaucoma is correct?

      Your Answer: intraocular pressures are often greater than 30 mmHg

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is a medical emergency in the field of ophthalmology. It occurs when the iris bows forward and blocks the fluid access to the trabecular meshwork, which is located at the entrance to Schlemm’s canal. As a result, the intraocular pressure rises and leads to glaucomatous optic neuropathy.

      The main clinical features of acute closed-angle glaucoma include severe eye pain, loss of vision or decreased visual acuity, congestion and redness around the cornea, corneal swelling, a fixed semi-dilated oval-shaped pupil, nausea and vomiting, and preceding episodes of blurred vision or seeing haloes.

      The diagnosis can be confirmed by tonometry, which measures the pressure inside the eye. The normal range of intraocular pressure is 10-21 mmHg, but in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is often higher than 30 mmHg. Goldmann’s applanation tonometer is commonly used in hospitals for this purpose.

      Management of acute closed-angle glaucoma should include providing pain relief, such as morphine, and antiemetics if the patient is experiencing vomiting. Intravenous administration of acetazolamide 500 mg is recommended to reduce intraocular pressure. Treatment with a topical miotic, like pilocarpine 1% or 2%, should be initiated approximately one hour after starting other measures, as the pupil may initially be paralyzed and unresponsive.

      On the other hand, chronic open-angle glaucoma is a more common presentation than acute closed-angle glaucoma. It affects approximately 1 in 50 people over the age of 40 and 1 in 10 people over the age of 75. In this condition, there is a partial blockage within the trabecular meshwork, which hinders the drainage of aqueous humor and gradually increases intraocular pressure, leading to optic neuropathy. Unlike acute closed-angle glaucoma, chronic open-angle glaucoma does not cause eye pain or redness. It presents gradually with a progressive loss of peripheral vision, while central vision is relatively preserved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      129.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis (AS).

      What is the MOST frequently occurring eye complication associated with AS?

      Your Answer: Uveitis

      Explanation:

      Uveitis is the most prevalent eye complication that arises in individuals with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Approximately one out of every three patients with AS will experience uveitis at some stage. The symptoms of uveitis include a red and painful eye, along with photophobia and blurred vision. Additionally, patients may notice the presence of floaters. The primary treatment for uveitis involves the use of corticosteroids, and it is crucial for patients to seek immediate attention from an ophthalmologist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of vision loss in his right...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye over the past few hours. On fundoscopic examination, you observe that the entire retina appears pale and a cherry red spot is visible in the macular region.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is characterized by sudden, painless, and unilateral loss of vision. The appearance of the retina in CRAO is distinct from that of CRVO. It shows a pale retina with narrowed blood vessels. A notable feature is the presence of a ‘cherry-red spot’ at the center of the macula, which is supplied by the underlying choroid. Additionally, examination often reveals an afferent pupillary defect.

      On the other hand, branch retinal artery occlusion (BRAO) typically affects only one quadrant of the retina, leading to visual field deficits in that specific area rather than complete loss of vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful sex, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful sex, and a thick, yellowish vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative and her last period was four weeks ago. Her temperature today is 38.6°C.

      What is the MOST suitable initial test to perform?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Endocervical swab

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix. The most common culprits are sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea, with chlamydia being the most prevalent infection seen in UK genitourinary medicine clinics.

      PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms do occur, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It’s important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be mistaken for PID, so a pregnancy test should always be conducted in patients with suspicious symptoms.

      To investigate a potential case of PID, endocervical swabs are taken to test for chlamydia and gonorrhea using nucleic acid amplification tests. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic treatment as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made, without waiting for swab results.

      Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings. However, patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.

      The current recommended treatment for outpatient cases of PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.

      For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment consists of intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. Afterward, the treatment is switched to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day course.

      If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today calls you over...

    Incorrect

    • The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today calls you over to show you a case of superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) in a 32-year-old woman with a Le Fort II fracture of the midface following a car accident.

      Which of the cranial nerves is MOST likely to be unaffected?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve V1

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve II

      Explanation:

      The superior orbital fissure is a gap in the back wall of the orbit, created by the space between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. Several structures pass through it to enter the orbit, starting from the top and going downwards. These include the lacrimal nerve (a branch of CN V1), the frontal nerve (another branch of CN V1), the superior ophthalmic vein, the trochlear nerve (CN IV), the superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the nasociliary nerve (a branch of CN V1), the inferior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the abducens nerve (CN VI), and the inferior ophthalmic vein.

      Adjacent to the superior orbital fissure, on the back wall of the orbit and towards the middle, is the optic canal. The optic nerve (CN II) exits the orbit through this canal, along with the ophthalmic artery.

      Superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) is a condition characterized by a combination of symptoms and signs that occur when cranial nerves III, IV, V1, and VI are compressed or injured as they pass through the superior orbital fissure. This condition also leads to swelling and protrusion of the eye due to impaired drainage and congestion. The main causes of SOFS are trauma, tumors, and inflammation. It is important to note that CN II is not affected by this syndrome, as it follows a separate path through the optic canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old woman who has come in with...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old woman who has come in with a nosebleed and was initially assessed by one of the medical students. You get ready to conduct rhinoscopy in order to locate the source of bleeding.

      What is the probable location of epistaxis?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach plexus

      Explanation:

      Most nosebleeds, also known as epistaxis, occur at a specific area called Little’s area.

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old patient presents with a history of feeling constantly thirsty and urinating...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with a history of feeling constantly thirsty and urinating large amounts. She also experiences extreme fatigue. The healthcare provider suspects diabetes mellitus and schedules an oral glucose tolerance test.
      What is the current WHO threshold for diagnosing diabetes mellitus using an oral glucose tolerance test?

      Your Answer: 11.1 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      According to the 2011 recommendations from the World Health Organization (WHO), the following criteria are used to diagnose diabetes mellitus:

      – A random venous plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l.
      – A fasting plasma glucose concentration that is higher than 7.0 mmol/l.
      – A two-hour plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l, measured two hours after consuming 75g of anhydrous glucose during an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
      – An HbA1c level that is greater than 48 mmol/mol (equivalent to 6.5%).

      These guidelines provide specific thresholds for diagnosing diabetes mellitus based on various glucose measurements and HbA1c levels. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these criteria when evaluating individuals for diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a...

    Correct

    • A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a history of substance abuse. In the waiting area, they become aggressive and start demanding to be seen immediately. When this does not happen right away, they begin to shout and threaten some of the other patients in the waiting area.
      What steps should you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the reception staff to call security

      Explanation:

      In a clinical setting, the prioritization of patient safety and the safety of staff members is crucial. Violence against other patients and health professionals is not tolerated. However, it is important to consider that the patient in question may be intoxicated or experiencing delirium tremens, which could impair their insight into their own behavior.

      To address this situation, it would be wise to call local security as a precautionary measure. This action can serve as a backup if additional assistance is required. However, involving the police at this stage may escalate the situation unnecessarily and potentially agitate the patient further.

      Administering sedation to the patient without understanding their medical history or gathering more information would not be appropriate. It is essential to have a comprehensive understanding of the patient’s condition before considering any interventions.

      Similarly, asking the patient to leave the department immediately could potentially worsen the situation. It is important to approach the situation with caution and consider alternative strategies to de-escalate the situation effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old man has been experiencing progressive weakness and numbness in his legs...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man has been experiencing progressive weakness and numbness in his legs for the past several days. Additionally, he has been feeling breathless during walking. He recently went on a vacation where he had diarrhea, and a stool culture confirmed an infection with Campylobacter jejuni.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) affects approximately 1-2 individuals per 100,000 annually and is a condition that primarily affects the peripheral nervous system, including the autonomic system. The most common initial symptom is weakness in the hands or feet, often accompanied by pain and tingling sensations as the paralysis spreads. Miller Fisher syndrome, a variant of GBS, is characterized by a triad of symptoms: ataxia, areflexia, and ophthalmoplegia.

      Due to the potential serious consequences of autonomic involvement, such as fluctuations in blood pressure and cardiac arrhythmias, patients with GBS are typically hospitalized. As the diaphragm becomes paralyzed and swallowing becomes difficult, patients may require ventilation and nasogastric feeding.

      GBS is an autoimmune disease that usually develops within three weeks of an infection. The leading cause is Campylobacter jejuni, followed by Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. While the patient’s immune response effectively targets the initial infection, it also mistakenly attacks the host tissue.

      Symptoms of GBS typically peak around four weeks and then gradually improve. Diagnosis is based on clinical examination, which confirms the presence of areflexia and progressive weakness in the legs (and sometimes arms). Nerve conduction studies and lumbar puncture can also aid in diagnosis, with the latter often showing elevated protein levels and few white blood cells.

      Treatment for GBS is primarily supportive, with the use of immunoglobulins to shorten the duration of the illness being common. Plasma exchange may also be utilized, although it has become less common since the introduction of immunoglobulin therapy.

      Approximately 80% of patients with GBS make a full recovery, although this often requires a lengthy hospital stay. The mortality rate is around 5%, depending on the availability of necessary facilities such as ventilatory support during the acute phase. Additionally, about 15% of patients may experience some permanent disability, such as weakness or pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      79.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You evaluate a 68-year-old woman diagnosed with small-cell lung cancer.
    Which ONE paraneoplastic syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 68-year-old woman diagnosed with small-cell lung cancer.
      Which ONE paraneoplastic syndrome is most frequently linked to this form of lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      Ectopic production of ACTH is linked to small-cell lung cancer and can lead to Cushing’s syndrome. It can also be observed in cases of pancreatic cancer and thymoma.

      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) is characterized by the presence of periostitis, arthritis, and finger clubbing. On plain X-ray, subperiosteal new bone formation can be detected. This condition primarily affects the long bones and often causes pain. It is most commonly associated with squamous cell lung cancer and pulmonary adenocarcinoma.

      Gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of breast tissue in males, can occur as a result of squamous cell lung cancer. In these cases, it tends to be accompanied by pain.

      Rarely, squamous cell lung cancer can cause ectopic production of TSH, leading to hyperthyroidism.

      Carcinoid syndrome is a condition that arises from carcinoid tumors, which secrete serotonin and kallikreins. This syndrome manifests as episodes of flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm. Additionally, 50% of patients develop a secondary restrictive cardiomyopathy. Carcinoid tumors can occur in various locations, with the small intestine being the most common site. Other locations include the lungs (bronchial adenoma), rectum, appendix, and stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her vehicle collided...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her vehicle collided with a wall at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel. She is experiencing severe bruising on her anterior chest wall and is complaining of chest pain. A chest X-ray reveals a significantly widened mediastinum, tracheal deviation to the right, and fractures of the first and second ribs. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 94, blood pressure of 128/73, and oxygen saturation of 99% on high flow oxygen.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Traumatic aortic rupture

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture is a relatively common cause of sudden death following major trauma, especially high-speed road traffic accidents (RTAs). It is estimated that 15-20% of deaths from RTAs are due to this injury. If the aortic rupture is promptly recognized and treated, patients who survive the initial injury can fully recover.

      Surviving patients often have an incomplete laceration near the ligamentum arteriosum of the aorta. The continuity is maintained by either an intact adventitial layer or a contained mediastinal hematoma, which prevents immediate exsanguination and death.

      Detecting traumatic aortic rupture can be challenging as many patients do not exhibit specific symptoms, and other injuries may also be present, making the diagnosis unclear.

      Chest X-ray findings can aid in the diagnosis and include fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, a grossly widened mediastinum, a hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus (or NG tube) to the right.

      Helical contrast-enhanced CT scanning is highly sensitive and specific for detecting aortic rupture, but it should only be performed on hemodynamically stable patients.

      Treatment options include primary repair or resection of the torn segment with replacement using an interposition graft. Endovascular repair is also now considered an acceptable alternative approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      134.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old patient comes in with a 3-day history of urgency, increased frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient comes in with a 3-day history of urgency, increased frequency of urination, and discomfort while urinating. Upon examination, she has no fever, mild tenderness in the suprapubic area, and no tenderness in the flank region. Her pregnancy test is negative and she has no medication allergies.

      What is the MOST suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: The patient should be commenced on a 7-day course of trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: The patient should be started on a 3-day course of oral trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Classical symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) typically include dysuria, suprapubic tenderness, urgency, haematuria, increased frequency of micturition, and polyuria. The Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) has developed comprehensive guidelines for the management of UTIs. According to these guidelines, if a patient presents with three or more classical UTI symptoms and is not pregnant, it is recommended to initiate empirical treatment with a three-day course of either trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin. For more detailed information, you can refer to the SIGN guidelines on the management of suspected bacterial urinary tract infection in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department and informs you that they...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department and informs you that they have taken an overdose. The patient states that they are unsure of the exact number of tablets consumed but estimate it to be around 100 aspirin tablets. You are concerned about the severity of the overdose and its potential consequences. Which of the following is an indication for haemodialysis in patients with salicylate poisoning?

      Your Answer: Plasma pH of 7.25

      Correct Answer: Salicylate level of 715 mg/L

      Explanation:

      Haemodialysis is recommended for patients with salicylate poisoning if they meet any of the following criteria: plasma salicylate level exceeding 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that does not improve with treatment (plasma pH below 7.2), acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures, coma, unresolved central nervous system effects despite correcting acidosis, persistently high salicylate concentrations that do not respond to urinary alkalinisation. Severe cases of salicylate poisoning, especially in patients under 10 years old or over 70 years old, may require dialysis earlier than the listed indications.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 67 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 67 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of dizziness, difficulty breathing, and heart palpitations. The patient reports that these symptoms began six hours ago. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are as follows:

      - Blood pressure: 118/76 mmHg
      - Pulse rate: 86 bpm
      - Respiration rate: 15 bpm
      - Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, confirming the presence of atrial fibrillation. As part of the treatment plan, you need to calculate the patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score.

      According to NICE guidelines, what is the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case?

      Your Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case is 2.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.

      AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

      Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.

      Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.

      Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.

      Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. She is connected to an ECG monitor, and you observe the presence of an arrhythmia.
      What is the most frequently encountered type of arrhythmia in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).

      In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.

      There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).

      Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 68 year old male with dementia is brought into the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old male with dementia is brought into the emergency department by his daughter due to a sudden decline in cognitive function over the past week. The daughter suspects that the patient's medication may have been altered recently. She presents you with the tablets she discovered in the patient's room. Which medication is most likely responsible for the decline in the patient's cognitive abilities?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs have been found to worsen cognitive impairment in individuals with dementia. Certain commonly prescribed medications are associated with a higher anticholinergic burden, which can lead to increased cognitive decline. Examples of drugs with high anticholinergic potency include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline hydrochloride, paroxetine, first-generation antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine maleate and promethazine hydrochloride, certain antipsychotics like olanzapine, clozapine, and quetiapine, urinary antispasmodics like solifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine, and antimuscarinics like ipratropium, tiotropium, atropine, and cyclopentolate. However, it’s important to note that rivastigmine and memantine are recommended as first-line treatments for Alzheimer’s and DLB, while haloperidol, despite being an antipsychotic, has low anticholinergic potency.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with bleeding from a tooth socket that began...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with bleeding from a tooth socket that began slightly over 48 hours after a dental extraction. The bleeding is excessive, but her vital signs are currently stable.
      What type of dental hemorrhage is present in this case?

      Your Answer: Secondary haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      This patient is currently experiencing a secondary haemorrhage after undergoing a dental extraction. There are three different types of haemorrhage that can occur following a dental extraction. The first type is immediate haemorrhage, which happens during the extraction itself. The second type is reactionary haemorrhage, which typically occurs 2-3 hours after the extraction when the vasoconstrictor effects of the local anaesthetic wear off. Lastly, there is secondary haemorrhage, which usually happens at around 48-72 hours after the extraction and is a result of the clot becoming infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      96.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose & Throat (1/2) 50%
Trauma (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (2/5) 40%
Ophthalmology (3/5) 60%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (0/2) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Oncological Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Passmed