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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. She experienced a burning sensation in her chest during coughing. About a week ago, she coughed up a teaspoonful of yellow sputum with flecks of blood. The next morning, she had a small amount of blood-tinged sputum but has not had any subsequent haemoptysis. Her cough is resolving, and she is starting to feel better. She has no history of respiratory problems and has never smoked cigarettes. On examination, there are no abnormalities found in her chest, heart, or abdomen. Her chest x-ray is normal.

      What would be your recommendation at this point?

      Your Answer: Observation only

      Explanation:

      Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is a type of respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation in the bronchial tubes. This condition is usually caused by viral infections, with up to 95% of cases being attributed to viruses such as adenovirus, coronavirus, and influenzae viruses A and B. While antibiotics are often prescribed for acute bronchitis, there is little evidence to suggest that they provide significant relief or shorten the duration of the illness.

      Other viruses that can cause acute bronchitis include parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, coxsackievirus A21, rhinovirus, and viruses that cause rubella and measles. It is important to note that in cases where there is no evidence of bronchoconstriction or bacterial infection, and the patient is not experiencing respiratory distress, observation is advised.

      Overall, the causes and symptoms of acute bronchitis can help individuals take the necessary steps to manage their condition and prevent its spread to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      29.6
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  • Question 2 - A middle-aged overweight woman visits the clinic accompanied by her husband. She expresses...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged overweight woman visits the clinic accompanied by her husband. She expresses concern about feeling excessively tired during the day and experiencing frequent episodes of sleepiness.
      Her husband reports that she snores heavily at night and sometimes stops breathing. Additionally, her work performance has been declining, and she is at risk of losing her job.
      What is the most suitable initial step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Continuous Positive Airways Pressure (CPAP)

      Explanation:

      Obstructive Sleep Apnoea and its Treatment

      The presence of heavy snoring, apnoea attacks at night, and daytime somnolence suggests the possibility of obstructive sleep apnoea. The recommended treatment for this condition is continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), which helps maintain airway patency during sleep. In addition to CPAP, weight loss and smoking cessation are also helpful measures. Surgery is not necessary for this condition.

      Long-term oxygen therapy is indicated for individuals with chronic hypoxia associated with chronic respiratory disease to prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, bronchodilators are not useful in this case. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is admitted to hospital with sudden-onset shortness of breath. His oxygen saturation levels are 82%, respiratory rate (RR) 25 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min), his trachea is central, he has reduced breath sounds in the right lower zone. Chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm translucent border at the base of the right lung.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Intrapleural chest drain

      Explanation:

      Management of Spontaneous Pneumothorax in a Patient with COPD

      When a patient with COPD presents with a spontaneous pneumothorax, prompt intervention is necessary. Smoking is a significant risk factor for pneumothorax, and recurrence rates are high for secondary pneumothorax. In deciding between needle aspiration and intrapleural chest drain, the size of the pneumothorax is crucial. In this case, the patient’s pneumothorax was >2 cm, requiring an intrapleural chest drain. Intubation and NIV are not necessary interventions at this time. Observation alone is not sufficient, and the patient requires urgent intervention due to low oxygen saturation, high respiratory rate, shortness of breath, and reduced breath sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      126.4
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  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old man with known alcohol dependence presents to the Emergency Department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with known alcohol dependence presents to the Emergency Department with a few weeks of productive cough, weight loss, fever and haemoptysis. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. On a chest X-ray, multiple nodules 1-3 mm in size are visible throughout both lung fields. What is the best treatment option to effectively address the underlying cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Systemic chemotherapy

      Correct Answer: Anti-tuberculous (TB) chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Treatment: Evaluating Options for a Patient with Suspected TB

      A patient presents with a subacute history of fever, productive cough, weight loss, and haemoptysis, along with a chest X-ray description compatible with miliary TB. Given the patient’s risk factors for TB, such as alcohol dependence and smoking, anti-TB chemotherapy is the most appropriate response, despite the possibility of lung cancer. IV antibiotics may be used until sputum staining and culture results are available, but systemic chemotherapy would likely lead to overwhelming infection and death. Tranexamic acid may be useful for significant haemoptysis, but it will not treat the underlying diagnosis. acyclovir is not indicated, as the patient does not have a history of rash, and a diagnosis of miliary TB is more likely than varicella pneumonia. Careful evaluation of the patient’s history and symptoms is crucial in choosing the right treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      42.1
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain. She reports experiencing fever and shortness of breath for the past week. Upon examination, there are reduced breath sounds on the right side, and a chest X-ray reveals a right pleural effusion without loculation. The patient consents to a thoracentesis to obtain a sample of the pleural fluid.
      What is the optimal location for needle insertion?

      Your Answer: Above the third rib in the mid-axillary line

      Correct Answer: Above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line

      Explanation:

      Proper Placement for Thoracentesis: Avoiding Nerve and Vessel Damage

      When performing a thoracentesis to sample pleural fluid, it is crucial to ensure that the needle is inserted into a pocket of fluid. This is typically done with ultrasound guidance, but in some cases, doctors must percuss the thorax to identify an area of increased density. However, it is important to remember that the intercostal neurovascular bundle runs inferior to the rib, so the needle should be inserted above the rib to avoid damaging nearby nerves and vessels. The needle is generally inserted through the patient’s back to minimize discomfort and decrease the risk of damaging the neurovascular bundle. The BTS guidelines recommend aspirating from the triangle of safety under the axilla, but it is common practice to aspirate more posteriorly. Of the options listed, only inserting the needle above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line meets all of these criteria. Other options are either too high, too low, or risk damaging nearby nerves and vessels. Proper placement is crucial for a successful and safe thoracentesis procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      78.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight loss. He has a smoking history of 25 pack years.
      A focal mass is seen peripherally in the left lower lobe on chest X-ray (CXR).
      Serum biochemistry reveals:
      Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+): 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Corrected Ca2+: 3.32 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
      Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–6.5 mmol/l)
      Creatinine: 76 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l)
      Albumin: 38 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alveolar cell bronchial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Bronchial Carcinoma and Hypercalcemia

      Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a type of non-small cell lung cancer that can cause hypercalcemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of calcium in the blood. This occurs because the cancer produces a hormone that mimics the action of parathyroid hormone, leading to the release of calcium from bones, kidneys, and the gut. Focal lung masses on a chest X-ray can be caused by various conditions, including bronchial carcinoma, abscess, tuberculosis, and metastasis. Differentiating between subtypes of bronchial carcinoma requires tissue sampling, but certain features of a patient’s history may suggest a particular subtype. Small cell bronchial carcinoma, for example, is associated with paraneoplastic phenomena such as Cushing’s syndrome and SIADH. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is linked to asbestos exposure and presents with pleural thickening or malignant pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Overall, a focal lung mass in a smoker should be viewed with suspicion and thoroughly evaluated to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She takes a steroid inhaler twice daily, which seems to control her asthma well. Occasionally, she needs to use her salbutamol inhaler, particularly if she has been exposed to allergens.
      What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug salbutamol in the treatment of asthma?

      Your Answer: β2-adrenoceptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Asthma: Understanding the Role of Different Drugs

      Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that causes reversible airway obstruction. The pathogenesis of asthma involves the release of inflammatory mediators due to IgE-mediated degranulation of mast cells. Pharmacological management of asthma involves the use of different drugs that target specific receptors and pathways involved in the pathogenesis of asthma.

      β2-adrenoceptor agonists are selective drugs that stimulate β2-adrenoceptors found in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways and increased calibre. Salbutamol is a commonly used short-acting β2-adrenoceptor agonist, while salmeterol is a longer-acting drug used in more severe asthma.

      α1-adrenoceptor antagonists, which mediate smooth muscle contraction in blood vessels, are not used in the treatment of asthma. β1-adrenoceptor agonists, found primarily in cardiac tissue, are not used in asthma management either, as they increase heart rate and contractility.

      β2-adrenoceptor antagonists, also known as β blockers, cause constriction of the airways and should be avoided in asthma due to the risk of bronchoconstriction. Muscarinic antagonists, such as ipratropium, are useful adjuncts in asthma management as they block the muscarinic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways.

      Other drugs used in asthma management include steroids (oral or inhaled), leukotriene receptor antagonists (such as montelukast), xanthines (such as theophylline), and sodium cromoglycate. Understanding the role of different drugs in asthma management is crucial for effective treatment and prevention of exacerbations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      33.6
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man is referred to the Respiratory Outpatient clinic due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is referred to the Respiratory Outpatient clinic due to a chronic non-productive cough. He is a non-smoker and reports no other symptoms. Initial tests show a normal full blood count and C-reactive protein, normal chest X-ray, and normal spirometry. What is the next most suitable test to perform?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) thorax

      Correct Answer: Bronchial provocation testing

      Explanation:

      Investigating Chronic Cough: Recommended Tests and Procedures

      Chronic cough with normal chest X-ray and spirometry, and no ‘red flag’ symptoms in a non-smoker can be caused by cough-variant asthma, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and post-nasal drip. To investigate for bronchial hyper-reactivity, bronchial provocation testing is recommended using methacholine or histamine. A CT thorax may eventually be required to look for underlying structural lung disease, but in the first instance, investigating for cough-variant asthma is appropriate. Bronchoscopy is not a first-line investigation but may be used in specialist centres to investigate chronic cough. Sputum culture is unlikely to be useful in a patient with a dry cough. Maximal inspiratory and expiratory pressures are used to investigate respiratory muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A trauma call is initiated in the Emergency Department after a young cyclist...

    Correct

    • A trauma call is initiated in the Emergency Department after a young cyclist is brought in following a road traffic collision. The cyclist was riding on a dual carriageway when a car collided with them side-on, causing them to land in the middle of the road with severe injuries, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A bystander called an ambulance which transported the young patient to the Emergency Department. The anaesthetist on the trauma team assesses the patient and diagnoses them with a tension pneumothorax. The anaesthetist then inserts a grey cannula into the patient's second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line. Within a few minutes, the patient expresses relief at being able to breathe more easily.

      What signs would the anaesthetist have observed during the examination?

      Your Answer: Contralateral tracheal deviation, reduced chest expansion, increased resonance on percussion, absent breath sounds

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tension Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Treatment

      Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that occurs when air enters the pleural space but cannot exit, causing the pressure in the pleural space to increase and the lung to collapse. This condition can be diagnosed clinically by observing contralateral tracheal deviation, reduced chest expansion, increased resonance on percussion, and absent breath sounds. Treatment involves inserting a wide-bore cannula to release the trapped air. Delay in treatment can be fatal, so diagnosis should not be delayed by investigations such as chest X-rays. Other respiratory conditions may present with different symptoms, such as normal trachea, reduced chest expansion, reduced resonance on percussion, and normal vesicular breath sounds. Tracheal tug is a sign of severe respiratory distress in paediatrics, while ipsilateral tracheal deviation is not a symptom of tension pneumothorax. Understanding the symptoms of tension pneumothorax is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      52.6
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) continues to be breathless...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) continues to be breathless at rest despite maximal inhaler therapy, pulmonary rehabilitation and home oxygen therapy. He has been reviewed for lung volume reduction surgery but was deemed unsuitable. He is referred for consideration of lung transplantation.
      His FEV1 is 30% predicted, he has not smoked for 12 years, and his past medical history includes bowel cancer, for which he underwent partial colectomy and adjunctive chemotherapy six years previously without evidence of recurrence on surveillance, and pulmonary tuberculosis age 37, which was fully sensitive and treated with six months of anti-tuberculous therapy. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2.
      What feature in this patient’s history would make him ineligible for listing for lung transplantation at this time?

      Your Answer: FEV1 30% predicted

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Lung Transplantation in a Patient with COPD

      Lung transplantation is a potential treatment option for patients with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, certain factors may make a patient ineligible for the procedure.

      One important factor is the patient’s forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) percentage predicted. The International Society for Heart and Lung Transplantation recommends a minimum FEV1 of less than 25% predicted for lung transplantation. In addition, patients must have a Body mass index, airflow Obstruction, Dyspnea and Exercise capacity (BODE) index of 5 to 6, a PaCO2 > 6.6 kPa and/or a PaO2 < 8 kPa. A previous history of pulmonary tuberculosis is also a contraindication to lung transplantation, as active infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis can complicate the procedure. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is another important consideration. A BMI greater than 35 kg/m2 is an absolute contraindication to transplant, while a BMI between 30 and 35 kg/m2 is a relative contraindication. Age is also a factor, with patients over 65 years old being considered a relative contraindication to lung transplantation. However, there is no absolute age limit for the procedure. Finally, a previous history of malignancy may also impact a patient’s eligibility for lung transplantation. If the malignancy has a low risk of recurrence, such as basal cell carcinoma, patients may be considered for transplant after two years. For most other cancers, a five-year period without recurrence is required. In this case, the patient’s previous malignancy occurred six years ago and would not be an absolute contraindication to transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      54.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (6/10) 60%
Passmed