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Question 1
Correct
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A 5-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome developed generalised oedema. What is the mechanism for the development of oedema in patients with nephrotic syndrome?
Your Answer: Decreased colloid osmotic pressure
Explanation:The development of oedema in nephrotic syndrome has traditionally been viewed as an underfill mechanism. According to this view, urinary loss of protein results in hypoalbuminemia and decreased plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, plasma water translocates out of the intravascular space and results in a decrease in intravascular volume. In response to the underfilled circulation, effector mechanisms are then activated that signal the kidney to secondarily retain salt and water. While an underfill mechanism may be responsible for oedema formation in a minority of patients, recent clinical and experimental findings would suggest that oedema formation in most nephrotic patients is the result of primary salt retention. Direct measurements of blood and plasma volume or measurement of neurohumoral markers that indirectly reflect effective circulatory volume are mostly consistent with either euvolemia or a volume expanded state. The ability to maintain plasma volume in the setting of a decreased plasma oncotic pressure is achieved by alterations in transcapillary exchange mechanisms known to occur in the setting of hypoalbuminemia that limit excessive capillary fluid filtration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35 year-old man presents with high grade fever for 7 days after returning from a trip to India. He tested positive for widal test. What is the most likely organism that caused his fever?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salmonella typhi
Explanation:Typhoid fever is caused by virulent bacteria called Salmonella typhi. Salmonella typhi spread through contaminated food or water and occasionally through direct contact with someone who is infected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man is scheduled to undergo an elective femoral-popliteal bypass. He presents to the physician with sudden onset of central crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. ECG is significant for some ischemic changes. The nursing staff initiates high flow oxygen and gives a spray of glyceryl trinitrate. However, this has resulted in no relief of his symptoms. Which of the following drugs should be administered next to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300mg
Explanation:Unstable angina is a common cardiovascular condition associated with major adverse clinical events. Over the last 15 years, therapeutic advances have dramatically reduced the complication and mortality rates of this serious condition. The standard of therapy in patients with unstable angina now incorporates the combined use of a potent antithrombotic (aspirin, clopidogrel, heparin and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists) and anti-anginal (β-blockade and intravenous nitrates) regimens complemented by the selective and judicious application of coronary revascularisation strategies.
Increasingly, these invasive and non-invasive therapeutic interventions are being guided not only by the clinical risk profile but also by the determination of serum cardiac and inflammatory markers.
Moreover, rapid and intensive management of associated risk factors, such as hypercholesterolaemia, would appear to have potentially substantial benefits even within the acute in-hospital phase of unstable angina. Aspirin 300mg should be given as soon as possible. If the patient has a moderate to high risk of myocardial infarction, then Clopidogrel should be given with a low molecular weight heparin. Thrombolysis or urgent percutaneous intervention should be given if there are significant ECG changes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning sensation that radiates from her left hip to her toes. What's the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herniated nucleus pulposus
Explanation:A herniated disk will produce sensory disturbances, causing pain that radiates along the course of the sciatic nerve which is typically burning or stabbing, with or without back pain. The herniation is usually caused by age-related degeneration although trauma, injuries, or straining may also trigger it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Explanation:Papillary carcinoma accounts for 70-80% of all thyroid cancers and is seen commonly in people aged 30-60 years. It is more aggressive in elderly patients. 10-20% cases may have recurrence or persistent disease. More common in females with a female to male ratio of 3:1. Papillary carcinomas can also contain follicular carcinomas. The common route of spread is through lymphatics to regional nodes in one-third cases and pulmonary metastasis can also occur. Papillary carcinomas of the thyroid have the best prognosis, especially in patients less than 45 years of age with small tumours confined to the thyroid gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
Explanation:Streptokinase is an enzyme that is produced by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus and is an effective and cost efficient method for the dissolution of a clot used in cases of MI and pulmonary embolism. It works by directly converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down the blood components in the clot and fibrin, dissolving the clot. Streptokinase is a bacterial product and thus the body will develop immunity against it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old electrician is brought to the A&E department after a high-voltage full-thickness burn to his left leg. His urinalysis shows haematuria 1+ and his blood reports show mild hyperkalaemia and serum CK level of 3000 U/L. What is the most likely explanation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhabdomyolysis
Explanation:High-voltage electrical burns are associated with rhabdomyolysis. Acute tubular necrosis may also occur.
Electrical burns occur following exposure to electrical current. Full-thickness burns are third-degree burns. With these types of burns, the epidermal and dermal layers of skin are destroyed, and the damage may even penetrate the layer of fat beneath the skin.
Following the burn, there is a local response with progressive tissue loss and release of inflammatory cytokines. Systemically, there are cardiovascular effects resulting from fluid loss and sequestration of fluid into the third space. There is a marked catabolic response as well. Immunosuppression is common with large burns, and bacterial translocation from the gut lumen is a recognised event. Sepsis is a common cause of death following major burns.
After the initial management and depth assessment of the burn, the patient is transferred to burn centre if:
1. Needs burn shock resuscitation
2. Face/hands/genitals affected
3. Deep partial-thickness or full-thickness burns
4. Significant electrical/chemical burnsManagement options include:
1. The initial aim is to stop the burning process and resuscitate the patient. Adults with burns greater than 15% of total body surface area require burn fluid resuscitation. Fluids administration is calculated using the Parkland formula. Half of the fluid is administered in the first eight hours. A urinary catheter should be inserted and analgesics should be started.2. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns and mixed superficial burns that will heal in two weeks. More complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. Excision and primary closure is not generally practised as there is a high risk of infection.
3. Circumferential full-thickness burns affecting a limb or severe torso burns impeding respiration may require escharotomy to divide the burnt tissue.
4. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 8
Incorrect
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If a tumour is found in both lobes of the prostate, without nodal involvement or metastases, a histological grade of G2 and elevated PSA, what is the overall prostatic cancer stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stage II
Explanation:The AJCC uses the TNM, Gleason score and PSA levels to determine the overall stage of prostatic cancer. This staging is as follows:
Stage I: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10; or T2a, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10
Stage IIa: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7, PSA less than 20; or T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 6 or less, PSA at least 10 but less than 20; or T2a or T2b, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7 or less, PSA less than 20
Stage IIb: T2c, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, any Gleason score PSA of 20 or more; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, Gleason score of 8 or higher, any PSA
Stage III: T3, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA Stage IV: T4, N0, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or any T, N1, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or Any T, any N, M1, any Gleason score, any PSA.
The patient in this case has a T2 N0 M0 G2 tumour, meaning it belongs in stage II -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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During uterogrowth, the second branchial arch gives rise to which structures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle
Explanation:The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:
Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:
Stapes,
Temporal styloid process,
Stylohyoid ligament, and
Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.
Muscles:
Muscles of face
Occipitofrontalis muscle
Platysma
Stylohyoid muscle
Posterior belly of Digastric
Stapedius muscle
Auricular muscles
Nerve supply: Facial nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female is found to have a thyroglossal cyst that has been recently infected and the patient requests treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical treatment with resection of cyst, associated track, central portion of the hyoid and wedge of tongue muscle behind the hyoid
Explanation:A thyroglossal duct cyst (TGDC) is the most common mass found in the midline of the neck. The mass is usually located at or below the level of the hyoid bone, although a TGDC can be located anywhere from the foramen cecum to the level of the thyroid gland.
Most patients with a TGDC present with asymptomatic masses in the midline of the neck.
Recurrent inflammation associated with infection of a TGDC is not uncommon. When an infection is present, the cyst often enlarges and an abscess may form. Spontaneous rupture with secondary sinus tract formation can also occur.The surgical treatment of choice for thyroglossal cysts is the Sistrunk operation, in which an en block resection of the sinus tract and above (including the midportion of the hyoid bone) is performed. Recurrence is approximately 3-5% and is increased by incomplete excision and a history of recurrent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy is taken to the doctor by his father. He has had an earache for the past day and he is constantly pulling and touching his ear. His father noticed a foul smelling discharge leaking from his ear after which the earache resolved. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute otitis media
Explanation:Acute otitis media (AOM) is a painful type of ear infection. It occurs when the area behind the eardrum, the middle ear, becomes inflamed and infected.
The following behaviours in children often mean they have AOM:
– fits of fussiness and intense crying (in infants)
– clutching the ear while wincing in pain (in toddlers)
– complaining about a pain in the ear (in older children).Perforation of the tympanic membrane is not unusual as the process advances, most frequently in posterior or inferior quadrants. Before or instead of a single perforation, an opaque serum like exudate is sometimes seen oozing through the entire tympanic membrane.
With perforation and in the absence of a coexistent viral infection, the patient generally experiences rapid relief of pain and fever. The discharge initially is purulent, though it may be thin and watery or bloody; pulsation of the otorrhea is common. Otorrhea from acute perforation normally lasts 1-2 days before spontaneous healing occurs. Otorrhea may persist if the perforation is accompanied by mucosal swelling or polypoid changes, which can act as a ball valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female was alarmed when she started to experience hair loss and balding, however, she also noted increased hair on her face and body and developed an acne breakout. Deepening of her voice also became prominent. She was referred to an oncologist and was diagnosed with a hormone-producing tumour. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrhenoblastoma
Explanation:Arrhenoblastoma, known as ‘Sertoli–Leydig tumour’ is a rare ovarian stromal neoplasm that secretes testosterone. It is mostly seen in women in the reproductive years. The key clinical features of this tumour is due to excessive production of testosterone which leads to progressive masculinisation in a woman who was typical normal beforehand. The lesion tends to grow slowly and rarely metastasises. Treatment is surgical removal of the tumour and the prognosis is generally good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Injury to this nerve will result to the loss of general sensory innervation of the lacrimal gland:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ophthalmic nerve
Explanation:The lacrimal glands are paired, almond-shaped exocrine glands, that secrete the aqueous layer of the tear film. The lacrimal nerve, derived from the ophthalmic nerve, supplies the sensory component of the lacrimal gland. The greater petrosal nerve, derived from the facial nerve, supplies the parasympathetic autonomic component of the lacrimal gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 23 year old woman falls from the roof of her house while putting up Christmas lights and hits the right side of her head. She is rushed to the A&E department and she has a GCS of 7. After eleven hours of observation, she develops an increasing headache and becomes confused. A crescent shaped collection of fluid between her brain and dura with associated midline shift is seen on the CT scan. What is her diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Answer: Acute subdural haematoma
An acute subdural haematoma (SDH) is a clot of blood that develops between the surface of the brain and the dura mater, the brain’s tough outer covering, usually due to stretching and tearing of veins on the brain’s surface. These veins rupture when a head injury suddenly jolts or shakes the brain.
Traumatic acute SDHs are among the most lethal of all head injuries. Associated with more severe generalized brain injury, they often occur with cerebral contusions.
SDHs are seen in 10 percent to 20 percent of all traumatic brain injury cases and occur in up to 30 percent of fatal injuries.
Diagnosis:SDHs are best diagnosed by computed tomography (CT) scan. They appear as a dense, crescent-shaped mass over a portion of the brain’s surface.
Most patients with acute SDHs have low Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) scores on admission to the hospital.Acute traumatic subdural haematoma often results from falls, violence, or motor vehicle accidents. Suspect acute subdural haematoma whenever the patient has experienced moderately severe to severe blunt head trauma. The clinical presentation depends on the location of the lesion and the rate at which it develops. Often, patients are rendered comatose at the time of the injury. A subset of patients remain conscious; others deteriorate in a delayed fashion as the haematoma expands.
A GCS score less than 15 after blunt head trauma in a patient with no intoxicating substance use (or impaired mental status baseline) warrants consideration of an urgent CT scan. Search for any focal neurologic deficits or signs of increased ICP. Any abnormality of mental status that cannot be explained completely by alcohol intoxication or the presence of another mind-altering substance should increase suspicion of subdural hematoma in the patient with blunt head trauma.The clinical presentation of a patient with an acute subdural haematoma depends on the size of the hematoma and the degree of any associated parenchymal brain injury. Symptoms associated with acute subdural haematoma include the following:
Headache
Nausea
Confusion
Personality change
Decreased level of consciousness
Speech difficulties
Other change in mental status
Impaired vision or double vision
Weakness
On noncontrast CT scan, an acute subdural haematoma appears as a hyperdense (white), crescent-shaped mass between the inner table of the skull and the surface of the cerebral hemisphere.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following nerves?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:A ‘claw hand’ is associated with injury to the ulnar nerve at the wrist affecting the interossei, lumbricals and hypothenar muscles of the hand. It is characterized by hypothenar eminence wasting, hyperextended metacarpophalangeal joints and flexed interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)
Explanation:The moderator band extends from the base of the anterior papillary muscle to the ventricular septum. It is the structure which carries part of the right AV bundle. Its role it to prevent overdistention of the ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior surface of his wrist was lacerated with loss of sensation over the thumb side of his palm. Which nerves have been damaged?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median
Explanation:The median nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the palmar radial three and a half fingers. Also the site of injury indicates that the medial nerve may have been injured as it passes into the hand by crossing over the anterior wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left suprarenal
Explanation:The left suprarenal vein empties into the left renal vein which crosses the vertebral column to reach the inferior vena cava. The left renal vein also receives the left gonadal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26 year old policewoman is admitted with bloody diarrhoea. She has been passing 10 stools per day, Hb-8.1, albumin-21. Her stool culture is negative and there is evidence of colitis on endoscopy. She has been on intravenous steroids for 5 days and has now developed megacolon. Her haemoglobin is falling and inflammatory markers are static. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Undertake a sub total colectomy and end ileostomy
Explanation:The operation aims to remove most of your large bowel including the blood supply and associated lymph glands and leave the rectum behind. It is most commonly recommended for inflammatory bowel disease like ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.
It is also recommended for other bowel conditions like familial adenomatous polyposis, and when there is more than one bowel cancer.
In inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis the small bowel is brought out to the skin of the tummy as an ileostomy and the remaining bowel (rectum) is closed off and left inside. In other conditions where possible, the two ends of the remaining healthy bowel (small bowel to rectum) are re-joined (an anastomosis). Most
people therefore do not require a stoma. However some people benefit from having a stoma made depending on circumstances regarding:
1) Their general state of health (heart disease, lung disease, diabetes, vascular disease, smoking, steroid medications, being undernourished);
2) Factors which cannot be seen until the surgeon can see inside your tummy (more extensive disease than originally thought, extensive pelvic scarring from previous surgery or other treatment, excessive bleeding).
Temporary stomas are made to divert faeces away from the join (de-functioning) to give the best chance to heal if there is concern it may be slow to heal.Emergency indications for surgical intervention in severe UC include free perforation, haemorrhage or systemic instability. An urgent indication for colectomy is a severe attack that is unresponsive to medical therapy.
In the setting of severe UC, the procedure of choice is subtotal colectomy and ileostomy. The residual rectal disease is controllable in most patients. In general, there are advantages to the subtotal colectomy approach, including a lower morbidity if pelvic dissection is not performed, preservation of the rectum so that reconstructive procedures can be performed later, and allowing the definitive procedure to be deferred to an optimal situation when the patient is off immunosuppressive medications and has improved nutritional status. Usually, the staged reconstruction with IPAA or definitive total proctocolectomy is performed several months later.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following diuretics promotes diuresis by opposing the action of aldosterone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretic
Explanation:The term potassium-sparing refers to an effect rather than a mechanism or location. Potassium-sparing diuretics act by either antagonising the action of aldosterone (spironolactone) or inhibiting Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubules (amiloride). This group of drugs is often used as adjunctive therapy, in combination with other drugs, for the management of chronic heart failure. Spironolactone, the first member of the class, is also used in the management of hyperaldosteronism (including Conn’s syndrome) and female hirsutism (due to additional antiandrogen actions).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of his left humerus. Which of the following arteries is suspected to be injured in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior humeral circumflex
Explanation:The posterior humeral circumflex artery arises from the axillary artery and runs with the axillary nerve through the quadrangular space which is bounded laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. After winding around the surgical neck of the humerus, it is distributed to the deltoid muscle and the shoulder joint. Thus fractures in the surgical neck of the humerus could result in an injury to this artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 52 year old man presents to the emergency department with a stab wound to his left iliac fossa. He is hemodynamically unstable and is taken immediately to the OT for emergency laparotomy. During surgery, colonic mesentery is found to be injured that has resulted in the blood loss. The left colon is also injured with signs of local perforation and contamination. Which of the following is the most important aspect of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resect the left colon and construct a left iliac fossa end colostomy
Explanation:Colonic injuries that are managed with resection are associated with a high complication rate regardless of whether an anastomosis or colostomy is performed. Colonic resection and anastomosis can be performed safely in the majority of patients with severe colonic injury, including injuries to the left colon. For injuries of the right colon, an ileocolostomy has a lower incidence of leakage than a colocolonic anastomosis. For injuries to the left colon, there remains a role for colostomy specifically in the subgroups of patients with a high ATI or hypotension, because these patients are at greater risk for an anastomotic leak. The role of resection and primary anastomosis versus colostomy in colonic trauma requires further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
Explanation:THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and developed subsequent anaemia. Which of the following is a consequence of this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A high reticulocyte count
Explanation:Anaemia refers to a decrease in the circulating levels of haemoglobin in the blood resulting in a reduced ability of the body to transport oxygen effectively. Anaemia from blood loss results in the body further compensating by releasing stored RBCs and immature RBCs from the bone marrow. Thus resulting in a high reticulocyte count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year old lady presented to the clinic with chronic pain in the abdomen. On physical examination, she was found to be pale. Further investigations revealed a decrease in both serum iron and total iron-binding capacity, along with an increase in serum ferritin. These findings are seen in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Explanation:Anaemia of chronic disease is characterized by low serum iron, iron-binding capacity and saturation with increased ferritin (storage iron). Haemolytic anaemia is characterized by normal iron levels as the haemoglobin released from the haemolysed red blood cells is recycled. Anaemia due to chronic blood loss leads to low serum iron, low ferritin and high total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Malabsorption, especially with duodenal involvement can also lead to iron deficiency anaemia with low ferritin and high TIBC. Megaloblastic anaemia due to vitamin B12 and folate deficiency is not associated with abnormalities in metabolism of iron.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve
Explanation:The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The prostatic plexus of nerves contains nerve fibres that innervate penile tissue allowing for erection. From which of the following nerves do these fibres originate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnics
Explanation:Pelvic splanchnic nerves are examples of the parasympathetic nerves that innervate the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvic viscera. They are also the nerves contributing fibres to the prostatic plexus which innervate penile erectile tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 27 year old lady presents with bright red rectal bleeding that occurs after defecation and is seen in the toilet bowl and on the tissue. She is constipated but her bowel habit is otherwise normal. A digital rectal examination is done which is also normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemorrhoidal disease
Explanation:Answer: Haemorrhoidal disease
Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy of the anorectum. They are vascular cushions that serve to protect the anal sphincter, aid closure of the anal canal during increased abdominal pressure, and provide sensory information that helps differentiate among stool, liquid and gas. Because of their high vascularity and sensitive location, they are also a frequent cause of pathology. Contributing factors include pregnancy, chronic constipation, diarrhoea or prolonged straining, weight lifting, and weakening of supporting tissue as a result of aging or genetics.
Haemorrhoids are classified according to their position relative to the dentate line. External haemorrhoids lie below the dentate line, are covered by squamous epithelium and innervated by cutaneous nerves. If symptomatic, the only definitive therapy is surgical excision.
Internal haemorrhoids arise above the dentate line, are covered by columnar cells and have a visceral nerve supply. They are further categorized — and treated — according to their degree of prolapse:
-Grade I haemorrhoids bleed but do not prolapse; on colonoscopy, they are seen as small bulges into the lumen.
-Grade II haemorrhoids prolapse outside the anal canal but reduce spontaneously.
-Grade III haemorrhoids protrude outside the anal canal and usually require manual reduction.
-Grade IV haemorrhoids are irreducible and constantly prolapsed. Acutely thrombosed haemorrhoids and those involving rectal mucosal prolapse are also grade IV.Most gastrointestinal and surgical societies advocate anoscopy and/or flexible sigmoidoscopy to evaluate any bright-red rectal bleeding. Colonoscopy should be considered in the evaluation of any rectal bleeding that is not typical of haemorrhoids such as in the presence of strong risk factors for colonic malignancy or in the setting of rectal bleeding with a negative anorectal examination.
Anal fissures are tears of the sensitive mucosal lining of the anus. Anal fissures often cause pain during and after a bowel movement, sometimes followed by throbbing pain for several hours. They are also often associated with itching and blood on toilet tissue, in the bowl, or on the surface of the stool. Anal fissures are caused by
trauma to the anal canal usually during bowel movements. Anal fissures are also sometimes caused by inflammatory bowel disease or infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which is a feature of the action of insulin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promotes protein synthesis
Explanation:Insulin is produced by the beta-cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Its actions include:
– promoting uptake of glucose into cells
– glycogen synthesis (glycogenesis)
– protein synthesis
– stimulation of lipogenesis (fat formation).
– driving potassium into cells – used to treat hyperkaelamia.
Parathyroid hormone and activated vitamin D are the principal hormones involved in calcium/phosphate metabolism, rather than insulin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male presents with a persistent and unwanted erection that has been present for the previous 7 hours. On examination, the penis is rigid and tender. Aspiration of blood from the corpus cavernosa shows dark blood. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirate further blood from the corpus cavernosa in an attempt to decompress
Explanation:Priapism is defined as a prolonged penile erection lasting for >4 h in the absence of sexual stimulation and remains despite orgasm.
The classification of priapism is conventionally divided into three main groups. The commonest classification is into non‐ischaemic (high flow), ischaemic (low flow), and stuttering (recurrent) subtypes.
The EAU guidelines refer to the subtypes as ischaemic (low flow, veno‐occlusive) and arterial (high flow, non‐ischaemic). Of these, ischaemic priapism is the commonest, with refractory cases at risk of smooth muscle necrosis in the corpus cavernosum leading to sequelae of corporal fibrosis and erectile dysfunction (ED).
One of the key considerations in the management of priapism is the duration of the erection at presentation.
The EAU guidelines do differentiate the periods such that the intervention varies accordingly, which is particularly important for prolonged episodes that are refractory to pharmacological interventions and allow a step‐wise intervention.Ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency as the progressive ischaemia within the cavernosal tissue is associated with time‐dependent changes in the corporal metabolic environment, which eventually leads to smooth muscle necrosis. As the duration of the penile erection becomes pathologically prolonged, as in the case of low‐flow priapism, the partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) progressively falls as the closed compartment prevents replenishment of stagnant blood with freshly oxygenated arterial blood.
Investigations using corporal blood aspiration, that in itself can be a therapeutic intervention leading to partial or complete penile detumescence, helps to differentiate ischaemic from non‐ischaemic priapism subtypes based on the pO2, pCO2 and pH levels. The AUA guidelines state that typically the blood gas analysis would give a pO2 of <30 mmHg and pCO2 of >60 mmHg and a pH of <7.25 in ischaemic priapism, whereas non‐ischaemic blood gas analysis would show values similar to venous blood. Once the diagnosis of priapism has been made, the initial management involves corporal blood aspiration followed by instillation of α‐agonists directly into the corpus cavernosum.
The EAU guidelines recommend several possible agents for intracavernosal injection, as well as oral terbutaline after intracavernosal injection.
Phenylephrine – 200 μg every 3–5 min to a maximum of 1 mg within 1 h.
Etilephrine – 2.5 mg diluted in 1–2 mL saline.
Adrenaline – 2 mL of 1/100 000 solution given up to 5 times in a 20‐min period.
Methylene blue – 50–100 mg intracavernosal injection followed by aspiration and compression.Shunt surgery allows diversion of blood from the corpus cavernosum into another area such as the corpus spongiosum (glans or urethra) or the venous system (saphenous vein). Both the EAU and AUA guidelines recommend surgical intervention using firstly distal shunts and then proximal shunts in cases where aspiration and instillation of pharmacological agents fails to achieve penile detumescence. The EAU guidelines recommend that distal shunts should be attempted before proximal shunts, although the specific technique is left to the individual surgeon’s preference. The EAU guidelines also define a time point (36 h) when shunt surgery is likely to be ineffective in maintaining long‐term erectile function and may serve to reduce pain only. This is an important consideration when contemplating early penile prosthesis placement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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