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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old male chronic smoker is diagnosed with non-small-cell cancer. His right lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male chronic smoker is diagnosed with non-small-cell cancer. His right lung underwent complete atelectasis and he has a 7cm tumour involving the chest wall. What is the stage of the lung cancer of this patient?

      Your Answer: TX

      Correct Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Non-small-cell lung cancer is staged through TNM classification. The stage of this patient is T3 because based on the TNM classification the tumour is staged T3 if > 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: Chest wall (including superior sulcus tumours), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, or parietal pericardium; or the tumour is in the main bronchus < 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina, Or it is associated with atelectasis/obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumour nodule(s) in the same lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for several years. She recently suffered from a focal seizure for the first time a few days ago. A CT scan shows a mass in the left hemisphere of the brain. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Correct Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Meningiomas are a common benign intracranial tumour, and their incidence is higher in women between the ages of 40-60 years old. Many of these tumours are asymptomatic and are diagnosed incidentally, although some of them may have malignant presentations (less than 2% of cases). These benign tumours can develop wherever there is dura, over the convexities near the venous sinuses, along the base of the skull, in the posterior fossa and, within the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      71.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old man with gunshot to the abdomen is transferred to the operating...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with gunshot to the abdomen is transferred to the operating theatre, following his arrival in the A&E department. He is unstable and his FAST scan is positive. During the operation, extensive laceration to the right lobe of the liver and involvement of the IVC are found, along with massive haemorrhage. What should be the most appropriate approach to blood component therapy?

      Your Answer: Use Factor VIII concentrates early

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      There is strong evidence to support haemostatic resuscitation in the setting of massive haemorrhage due to trauma. This advocates the use of 1:1:1 ratio.

      Uncontrolled haemorrhage accounts for up to 39% of all trauma-related deaths. In the UK, approximately 2% of all trauma patients need massive transfusion. Massive transfusion is defined as the replacement of a patient’s total blood volume in less than 24 hours or the acute administration of more than half the patient’s estimated blood volume per hour. During acute bleeding, the practice of haemostatic resuscitation has been shown to reduce mortality rates. It is based on the principle of transfusion of blood components in fixed ratios. For example, packed red cells, FFP, and platelets are administered in a ratio of 1:1:1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old male presents to the urology department for investigation of pyelonephritis. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the urology department for investigation of pyelonephritis. He reports malaise, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a maculopapular rash. The monospot test is negative. Due to a given history of recent high-risk sexual behaviour, you are asked to exclude HIV seroconversion illness in this patient. Which of the following should be the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Antibodies to HIV-1

      Correct Answer: p24 antigen test

      Explanation:

      P24 antigen test is used as one of the main investigations in diagnosing HIV seroconversion illness.

      Some people experience a short illness soon after they contract HIV. This is known as seroconversion illness, or primary or acute HIV infection. It is the period when someone with HIV is at their most infectious.

      HIV seroconversion is symptomatic in 60%–80% of the patients and typically presents as a glandular fever-type illness. Increased symptomatic severity is associated with poorer long-term prognosis. It typically occurs 2–3 weeks after contracting the virus.

      Signs and symptoms include:
      1. Sore throat
      2. Malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia
      3. Diarrhoea
      4. Maculopapular rash
      5. Oral ulcers
      6. Lymphadenopathy
      7. Meningoencephalitis (rarely)

      HIV PCR and p24 antigen test can confirm the diagnosis. The former is the most common and accurate test and consists of both a screening ELISA and a confirmatory western blot assay. P24 antigen test is also used as the mainstay of diagnosis and is usually positive from about 1 week to 3–4 weeks after an infection with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to the clinic. Deficiency of which of the following blood proteins is the most probable cause of this episode?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Antithrombin III (ATIII) is a blood protein that acts by inhibiting blood coagulation by neutralizing the enzymatic activity of thrombin.
      Antithrombin III deficiency is an autosomal dominant disorder that leads to an increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis. Clinical manifestations typically appear in young adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 47-year-old female with breast cancer started a chemotherapy regime containing epirubicin. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old female with breast cancer started a chemotherapy regime containing epirubicin. What is the primary mode of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Monoclonal antibody to epidermal growth factor

      Correct Answer: Intercalation of DNA

      Explanation:

      Epirubicin is an anthracycline; intercalates between DNA base pairs and triggers cleavage by topoisomerase II, which results in cytocidal activity.
      Inhibits DNA helicase and generates cytotoxic free radicals.

      Contraindications:
      – Severe hypersensitivity to drug, other anthracyclines, or anthracenediones
      – Baseline ANC<1500/mm³
      – Cardiomyopathy and/or heart failure, recent MI, or severe arrhythmias
      – Severe myocardial insufficiency
      – Cumulative dose achieved in previous anthracycline treatment
      – Severe persistent drug-induced myelosuppression
      – Severe hepatic impairment (Child-Pugh Class C or serum bilirubin level greater than 5 mg/dL)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old woman is in the surgical intensive care unit. She suffered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is in the surgical intensive care unit. She suffered a flail chest injury several hours ago and was, subsequently, intubated and ventilated. However, for the past few minutes, she has become increasingly hypoxic and now requires increased ventilation pressures. What is the most likely cause of such deterioration?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      A flail chest segment may lacerate the underlying lung and create a flap valve. Tension pneumothorax can, therefore, occur by intubation and ventilation in this situation.

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that develops when air is trapped in the pleural cavity under positive pressure, displacing mediastinal structures and compromising cardiopulmonary function. The development of a tension pneumothorax can be life-threatening during mechanical ventilation, since with each breath, the pressure within the pneumothorax becomes greater, compromising both ventilatory and cardiovascular function.

      Signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax include:
      1. Chest pain that usually has a sudden onset, is sharp, and may lead to feeling of tightness in the chest
      2. Dyspnoea and progressive hypoxia
      3. Tachycardia
      4. Hyperventilation
      5. Cough
      6. Fatigue

      On examination, hyper-resonant percussion note and tracheal deviation are typically found.

      CXR shows:
      1. Lung collapse towards the hilum
      2. Contralateral mediastinal deviation
      3. Diaphragmatic depression and increased rib separation
      4. Increased thoracic volume
      5. Ipsilateral flattening of the heart border

      Management options for tension pneumothorax include
      immediate needle decompression followed by definitive wide-bore chest drain insertion (without waiting for CXR results).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph...

    Correct

    • A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph nodes around the coeliac trunk are enlarged. The coeliac trunk:

      Your Answer: Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries

      Explanation:

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the aorta arising just below the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to pass nearly horizontally forward to divide into 3 large branches i.e. the left gastric, the hepatic and the splenic arteries. Occasionally it may give off one of the inferior phrenic arteries. It is covered by the lesser omentum and on the right side bordered by the right coeliac ganglion and the cardiac end of the stomach. Inferiorly it is bordered by the upper border of the pancreas and splenic vein. The embryonic midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of a two day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of a two day history of right upper quadrant pain, fever and a white vaginal discharge. She has seen the GP twice in 12 weeks complaining of pelvic pain and dyspareunia. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Appendicitis

      Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infectious and inflammatory disorder of the upper female genital tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and adjacent pelvic structures. Infection and inflammation may spread to the abdomen, including perihepatic structures (Fitz-Hugh−Curtis syndrome). The classic high-risk patient is a menstruating woman younger than 25 years who has multiple sex partners, does not use contraception, and lives in an area with a high prevalence of sexually transmitted disease (STD).
      PID is initiated by an infection that ascends from the vagina and cervix into the upper genital tract. Chlamydia trachomatis is the predominant sexually transmitted organism associated with PID. Of all acute PID cases, less than 50% test positive for the sexually transmitted organisms such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoea.
      Other organisms implicated in the pathogenesis of PID include Gardnerella vaginalis (which causes bacterial vaginosis (BV), Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobes such as Peptococcus and Bacteroides species. Laparoscopic studies have shown that in 30-40% of cases, PID is polymicrobial.
      The most common presenting complaint is lower abdominal pain. Abnormal vaginal discharge is present in approximately 75% of cases. Unanticipated vaginal bleeding, often postcoital, is reported in about 40% of cases. Temperature is higher than 38°C (found in 30% of cases), nausea, and vomiting manifest late in the clinical course of the disease. Abnormal uterine bleeding is present in more than one-third of patients.
      Right upper quadrant tenderness, especially if associated with jaundice, may indicate associated Fitz-Hugh−Curtis syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

      Explanation:

      Papillary carcinoma accounts for 70-80% of all thyroid cancers and is seen commonly in people aged 30-60 years. It is more aggressive in elderly patients. 10-20% cases may have recurrence or persistent disease. More common in females with a female to male ratio of 3:1. Papillary carcinomas can also contain follicular carcinomas. The common route of spread is through lymphatics to regional nodes in one-third cases and pulmonary metastasis can also occur. Papillary carcinomas of the thyroid have the best prognosis, especially in patients less than 45 years of age with small tumours confined to the thyroid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of...

    Incorrect

    • Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of cancer. Which of the following is the correct indication for this drug?

      Your Answer: Colon cancer

      Correct Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Etoposide phosphate is an inhibitor of the enzyme topoisomerase II. It is used as a form of chemotherapy for malignancies such as lung cancer, testicular cancer, lymphoma, non-lymphocytic leukaemia and glioblastoma multiforme. Side effects are very common and can include low blood cell counts, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhoea, hair loss, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity...

    Incorrect

    • The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity from the bottom of the external acoustic meatus. The interior of the tympanic membrane is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves?

      Your Answer: Vestibulocochlear

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve, known as the ninth cranial nerve (CN IX), is a mixed nerve that carries afferent sensory and efferent motor information. The glossopharyngeal nerve has five distinct general functions:
      – The branchial motor (special visceral efferent), supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle.
      – The visceral motor (general visceral efferent), provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland via the otic ganglion.
      – The visceral sensory (general visceral afferent), carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.
      – The general sensory (general somatic afferent), provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx (GVA), and the posterior one-third of the tongue.
      – The visceral afferent (special visceral afferent), provides taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, including the circumvallate papillae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer: Has lower tonicity

      Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the median nerve of the hand, especially after activities which require flexion and extension of the wrist?

      Your Answer: Dupuytren’s contracture

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome tends to occur in women between the ages of 30-50. There are many risk factors, including diabetes, hypothyroidism, obesity, pregnancy, and repetitive wrist work. Symptoms include pain in the hand and wrist, tingling, and numbness distributed along the median nerve (the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle fingers, and the radial half of the ring finger), which worsens at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin?

      Your Answer: 12%

      Correct Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Making up 4-5% of total body weight, the skin receives approximately 2% of cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to: ...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to:

      Your Answer: Increased level of angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Thirst is the basic need or instinct to drink. It arises from a lack of fluids and/or an increase in the concentration of certain osmolites such as salt. If the water volume of the body falls below a certain threshold or the osmolite concentration becomes too high, the brain signals thirst. Excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, along with excessive urination, known as polyuria, may be an indication of diabetes. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is a powerful dipsogen (i.e. it stimulates thirst) that acts via the subfornical organ. It increases secretion of ADH in the posterior pituitary and secretion of ACTH in the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy....

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - QT interval in the electrocardiogram of a healthy individual is normally: ...

    Incorrect

    • QT interval in the electrocardiogram of a healthy individual is normally:

      Your Answer: 0.20 s

      Correct Answer: 0.40 s

      Explanation:

      QT interval extends from beginning of the QRS complex till the end of he T-wave and normally lasts for 0.40 s. It is important in the diagnosis of long-QT and short-QT syndrome. The QT interval varies on the basis of heart rate and may need to be corrected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30 year old mother presents with a tender indurated mass in her...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old mother presents with a tender indurated mass in her left breast which developed 6 days after giving birth and breastfeeding the baby. Which organism is most likely to have caused this infection?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Mastitis is defined as inflammation of the breast. Although it can occur spontaneously or during lactation, this discussion is limited to mastitis in breastfeeding women, with mastitis defined clinically as localized, painful inflammation of the breast occurring in conjunction with flu-like symptoms (e.g., fever, malaise). Mastitis is especially problematic because it may lead to the discontinuation of breast-feeding, which provides optimal infant nutrition. Mastitis occurs in approximately 10 percent of U.S. mothers who are breastfeeding, and it can lead to the cessation of breastfeeding. The risk of mastitis can be reduced by frequent, complete emptying of the breast and by optimizing breastfeeding technique. Sore nipples can precipitate mastitis. The differential diagnosis of sore nipples includes mechanical irritation from a poor latch or infant mouth anomalies, such as cleft palate or bacterial or yeast infection. The diagnosis of mastitis is usually clinical, with patients presenting with focal tenderness in one breast accompanied by fever and malaise. Treatment includes changing breastfeeding technique, often with the assistance of a lactation consultant. When antibiotics are needed, those effective against Staphylococcus aureus (e.g., dicloxacillin, cephalexin) are preferred. As methicillin-resistant S. aureus becomes more common, it is likely to be a more common cause of mastitis, and antibiotics that are effective against this organism may become preferred. Continued breastfeeding should be encouraged in the presence of mastitis and generally does not pose a risk to the infant. Breast abscess is the most common complication of mastitis. It can be prevented by early treatment of mastitis and continued breastfeeding. Once an abscess occurs, surgical drainage or needle aspiration is needed. Breastfeeding can usually continue in the presence of a treated abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old female undergoes a low anterior resection for rectal cancer. The procedure...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female undergoes a low anterior resection for rectal cancer. The procedure is performed as open surgery, what is the most appropriate method for closure of the abdominal wall?

      Your Answer: Mass closure of the abdomen obeying Jenkins rule using 0 polygalactan

      Correct Answer: Mass closure of the abdomen obeying Jenkins rule using 1 PDS

      Explanation:

      A midline incision is the most commonly used route of access to the abdominal cavity.
      Peritoneal closure
      A number of randomized, controlled trials have shown no benefit to peritoneal closure; thus, refraining from closing the peritoneum is a commonly accepted practice. Some surgeons believe that closure of the peritoneum reduces adhesions between the abdominal contents and the suture line; however, at this time, there is only limited scientific evidence for this belief.
      Fascial closure
      The technique of fascial closure is highly variable among surgeons; however, the various approaches may be grouped into two primary methods as follows:
      Layered closure
      Mass closure
      Layered closure is the sequential closure of each fascial layer individually. The primary advantage of this method is that multiple suture strands exist so that if a suture breaks, the incision is held intact by the remaining sutures.
      Mass closure is continuous fascial closure with a single suture. This method allows even distribution of tension across the entire length of the suture, resulting in minimization of tissue strangulation. The goal is an approximation of tissue edges to allow scar formation. Excessive tension leads to tissue necrosis and eventual failure of the closure.
      The theoretical disadvantage of mass closure is that a single suture is responsible for maintaining the integrity of the closure. The benefits of mass closure include decreased cost and decreased operating time. There is no evidence that mass closure is associated with an increased incidence of hernia formation or wound dehiscence.
      When rectus muscle is incorporated, using absorbable suture and a loose closure in order to decrease postoperative pain and tissue necrosis is important. The assistant following the continuous closure should apply sufficient tension to approximate the tissue without strangulating it. The suture is run in 1-cm intervals (maximally), with at least a 1-cm bite of fascia in each throw.
      The two primary methods of skin closure are with suture or staples. Suture closure is generally performed with 3-0 or 4-0 absorbable suture in a running subcuticular fashion or with nylon running or interrupted transdermal suture. Staple closure is a viable alternative to suturing the skin. In a study comparing scar cosmesis at 6 months, no difference in appearance existed in patients with suture versus staple skin closure
      What is Jenkins Rule?
      It is a rule for closure of the abdominal wound. It states that for a continuous suture, the length of suture used should be at least four times the length of the wound with sutures 1cm apart and with 1cm bites of the wound edge

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old...

    Incorrect

    • During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old man, the surgeon asked the registrar to look at the medial inguinal fossa to identify the direct inguinal hernia. To do so, she would have to look at the area that is between the:

      Your Answer: Medial umbilical ligament and urachus

      Correct Answer: Medial umbilical ligament and inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The medial umbilical fold is made by the medial umbilical ligament-which is the obliterated portion of the umbilical artery, while the lateral umbilical fold is a fold of peritoneum over the inferior epigastric vessels. The median umbilical fold is a midline structure made by the median umbilical ligament i.e. the obliterated urachus. The medial inguinal fossa is the space on the inner abdominal wall between the medial umbilical fold and the lateral umbilical fold. It is place in the abdominal wall where there is an area of weak fascia i.e. the inguinal triangle through which direct inguinal hernias break through. The lateral inguinal fossa on the other hand is a space lateral to the lateral umbilical fold. Indirect inguinal hernias push through this space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 52-year-old female presents with pain in her proximal femur. Imaging demonstrates a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female presents with pain in her proximal femur. Imaging demonstrates a bone metastasis from an unknown primary site. CT scanning with arterial phase contrast shows that the lesion is hypervascular. From which of the following primary sites is the lesion most likely to have originated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal

      Explanation:

      In females, the breasts and lungs are the most common primary disease sites; approximately 80% of cancers that spread to bone arise in these locations. In males, cancers of the prostate and lungs make up 80% of the carcinomas that metastasize to bone. The remaining 20% of primary disease sites in patients of both sexes are the kidney, gut, and thyroid, as well as sites of unknown origin.

      On contrast-enhanced CT scans, RCC is usually solid, and decreased attenuation suggestive of necrosis is often present. Sometimes, RCC is a predominantly cystic mass, with thick septa and wall nodularity.
      RCC may also appear as a completely solid and highly enhancing mass

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old female is injured in a skiing accident. She suffers a blow...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female is injured in a skiing accident. She suffers a blow to the occiput and is concussed for 5 minutes. On arrival in the ED, she is confused with a GCS 10/15. A CT scan shows no evidence of acute bleed or fracture but some evidence of oedema with the beginnings of mass effect. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous mannitol

      Explanation:

      Effective management of intracranial hypertension involves meticulous avoidance of factors that precipitate or aggravate increased intracranial pressure. When intracranial pressure becomes elevated, it is important to rule out new mass lesions that should be surgically evacuated. Medical management of increased intracranial pressure should include sedation, drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, and osmotherapy with either mannitol or hypertonic saline. For intracranial hypertension refractory to initial medical management, barbiturate coma, hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy should be considered. Steroids are not indicated and may be harmful in the treatment of intracranial hypertension resulting from traumatic brain injury.
      Mannitol is the most commonly used hyperosmolar agent for the treatment of intracranial hypertension.
      Intravenous bolus administration of mannitol lowers the ICP in 1 to 5 minutes with a peak effect at 20 to 60 minutes. The effect of mannitol on ICP lasts 1.5 to 6 hours, depending on the clinical condition. Mannitol usually is given as a bolus of 0.25 g/kg to 1 g/kg body weight; when an urgent reduction of ICP is needed, an initial dose of 1 g/kg body weight should be given. Arterial hypotension (systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg ) should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients...

    Incorrect

    • In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients femoral vein for rapid fluid therapy. The femoral vein is situated inside the femoral sheath. Which of the following is true about that sheath?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The medial compartment is called the femoral canal

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath is situated ,4cm below the inguinal ligament. It is a prolongation of the abdominal fascia. The anterior wall is a prolongation of the transversalis fascia and the posterior wall, the iliac fascia. It is divided by two vertical septa into 3 compartments, lateral, intermediate, and medial. The medial compartment is known as the femoral canal and contains some lymphatic vessels. The lateral one contains the femoral artery and the intermediate one contains the femoral vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 23 year old woman falls from the roof of her house while...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old woman falls from the roof of her house while putting up Christmas lights and hits the right side of her head. She is rushed to the A&E department and she has a GCS of 7. After eleven hours of observation, she develops an increasing headache and becomes confused. A crescent shaped collection of fluid between her brain and dura with associated midline shift is seen on the CT scan. What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Answer: Acute subdural haematoma

      An acute subdural haematoma (SDH) is a clot of blood that develops between the surface of the brain and the dura mater, the brain’s tough outer covering, usually due to stretching and tearing of veins on the brain’s surface. These veins rupture when a head injury suddenly jolts or shakes the brain.
      Traumatic acute SDHs are among the most lethal of all head injuries. Associated with more severe generalized brain injury, they often occur with cerebral contusions.
      SDHs are seen in 10 percent to 20 percent of all traumatic brain injury cases and occur in up to 30 percent of fatal injuries.
      Diagnosis:

      SDHs are best diagnosed by computed tomography (CT) scan. They appear as a dense, crescent-shaped mass over a portion of the brain’s surface.
      Most patients with acute SDHs have low Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) scores on admission to the hospital.

      Acute traumatic subdural haematoma often results from falls, violence, or motor vehicle accidents. Suspect acute subdural haematoma whenever the patient has experienced moderately severe to severe blunt head trauma. The clinical presentation depends on the location of the lesion and the rate at which it develops. Often, patients are rendered comatose at the time of the injury. A subset of patients remain conscious; others deteriorate in a delayed fashion as the haematoma expands.
      A GCS score less than 15 after blunt head trauma in a patient with no intoxicating substance use (or impaired mental status baseline) warrants consideration of an urgent CT scan. Search for any focal neurologic deficits or signs of increased ICP. Any abnormality of mental status that cannot be explained completely by alcohol intoxication or the presence of another mind-altering substance should increase suspicion of subdural hematoma in the patient with blunt head trauma.

      The clinical presentation of a patient with an acute subdural haematoma depends on the size of the hematoma and the degree of any associated parenchymal brain injury. Symptoms associated with acute subdural haematoma include the following:

      Headache

      Nausea

      Confusion

      Personality change

      Decreased level of consciousness

      Speech difficulties

      Other change in mental status

      Impaired vision or double vision

      Weakness

      On noncontrast CT scan, an acute subdural haematoma appears as a hyperdense (white), crescent-shaped mass between the inner table of the skull and the surface of the cerebral hemisphere.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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  • Question 26 - A 41-year-old man presents with a severe left-sided loin pain radiating to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents with a severe left-sided loin pain radiating to the groin. Imaging demonstrates a 2 mm left-sided calculus in the distal ureter. Renal function is normal. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange to review the patient in two weeks with a KUB X-ray

      Explanation:

      As the stone is smaller in size, there is a strong likelihood (75%) of it to be passed spontaneously. Furthermore, distally sited stones are more likely to pass spontaneously than proximally sited ones. Hence, it should be arranged to review the patient in two weeks with a KUB X-ray.

      Urolithiasis affects up to 15% of the population worldwide. The development of sudden-onset, colicky loin to groin pain is a classical feature in the history. It is nearly always associated with haematuria that is either micro- or macroscopic. The most sensitive and specific diagnostic test is helical, non-contrast CT scanning.

      Management options for urolithiasis are:
      1. Most renal stones measuring <5mm in maximum diameter typically pass within four weeks of onset of symptoms. More intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality such as horseshoe kidney, and previous renal transplant.
      2. Ureteric obstruction due to stones together with infection is a surgical emergency and the system must be decompressed. Options include nephrostomy tube placement, insertion of ureteric catheters, and ureteric stent placement.
      3. In the non-emergency setting, the preferred options for treatment include extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, percutaneous nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery (selected cases). Minimally invasive options are the most popular first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
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  • Question 27 - An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node metastasis. The doctor said he will excise the tumour and remove all axillary lymph nodes medial to the edge of the pectoralis minor muscle. One of the following axillary lymph nodes won't be removed by this procedure. Which is it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apical

      Explanation:

      The apical lymph node group won’t be removed which include 20 to 30 lymph nodes. They are grouped according to location. The lateral group, the anterior to pectoral group, the posterior or subscapular group, the central group, and the medial or apical group. The lateral, pectoral, and subscapular groups are found lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle. The central group is situated directly under that muscle. Thus, if all lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed, all the above four groups will be removed. The apical group won’t be removed which is situated medial to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 28 - An 18 year old 100m athlete presents with knee pain which worsens on...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old 100m athlete presents with knee pain which worsens on walking down steps and sitting still. Wasting of the quadriceps and pseudolocking of the knee are observed on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Explanation:

      Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Chondromalacia patellae, also known as “runner’s knee,” is a condition where the cartilage on the under surface of the patella (kneecap) deteriorates and softens. This condition is common among young, athletic individuals, but may also occur in older adults who have arthritis of the knee. Chondromalacia is understood as patellar pain in the anterior side of the knee which worsens on sitting for prolonged periods, or going down stairs/slopes, with joint clicking and episodes of pseudo-locking and failure.

      Chondromalacia is often seen as an overuse injury in sports, and sometimes taking a few days off from training can produce good results. In other cases, improper knee alignment is the cause and simply resting doesn’t provide relief. The symptoms of runner’s knee are knee pain and grinding sensations, but many people who have it never seek medical treatment.
      Chondromalacia patella often occurs when the under surface of the kneecap comes in contact with the thigh bone causing swelling and pain. Abnormal knee cap positioning, tightness or weakness of the muscles associated with the knee, too much activity involving the knee, and flat feet may increase the likelihood of chondromalacia patella.

      What are the symptoms of chondromalacia patella?
      Dull, aching pain that is felt:

      Behind the kneecap
      Below the kneecap
      On the sides of the kneecap
      A feeling of grinding when the knee is flexed may occur. This can happen:

      Doing knee bends
      Going down stairs
      Running down hill
      Standing up after sitting for awhile

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 29 - What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby? ...

    Incorrect

    • What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies that are produced by the immune response bind to the patients own cell surface antigens. These antigens can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Destruction occurs due to antibody dependent cell mediated antibodies. Antibodies bind to the cell and opsonise the cell, activating phagocytes to destroy that cell e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Goodpasture syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, pernicious anaemia, Graves’ disease, Myasthenia gravis and haemolytic disease of the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 30 - A 21-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and severe abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and severe abdominal pain for the past 18 hours. He was asymptomatic before that.Which of the following is the likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni infection

      Explanation:

      Severe abdominal pain tends to favour infection with Campylobacter jejuni.

      Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common causes of gastroenteritis worldwide. In developed countries, the incidence of Campylobacter jejuni infections peaks during infancy and, again, during early adulthood. Most infections are acquired by the consumption and handling of poultry. A typical case is characterized by diarrhoea, fever, and severe abdominal cramps. Obtaining cultures of the organism from stool samples remains the best way to diagnose this infection. Complications of C. jejuni infections are rare, and most patients do not require antibiotics. Careful food preparation and cooking practices may prevent some Campylobacter infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (7/13) 54%
Pathology (3/6) 50%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (1/2) 50%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (3/5) 60%
Clinical Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Generic Surgical Topics (1/3) 33%
The Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Colorectal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Passmed