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  • Question 1 - A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the...

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below. Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144), Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110), Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0), Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04), Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI

      Explanation:

      According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old lady presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old lady presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain. She has also noticed that her skin seems slightly yellower over the last week or so and you notice a yellow tinge to her sclera. On further questioning, she complains of itching of her arms. Her only past medical history of note includes ulcerative colitis for which she takes mesalazine. Given her presentation, what is the best investigation to diagnose the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Liver ultrasound

      Correct Answer: ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)

      Explanation:

      With biliary obstructive symptoms in a patient with ulcerative colitis, one should immediately think of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic ducts. The best diagnostic test for PSC is ERCP. ANCA antibiotics may be positive, but not the best test to DIAGNOSE THE CONDITION. The same can be said of serum transaminase levels– they will be abnormal but nonspecific. While a liver ultrasound may be helpful, it is not the best test. Liver biopsy would be used to stage the PSC later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them. Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through? ...

    Correct

    • Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through?

      Your Answer: Foramen rotundum

      Explanation:

      The foramen rotundum is one of the several circular apertures (the foramina) located in the base of the skull, in the anterior and medial part of the sphenoid bone. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Absence of erythema surrounding lesions

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum (MC), is a viral infection of the skin that results in small, raised, pink lesions with a dimple in the center with little to no surrounding erythema. They may occasionally be itchy or sore. They may occur singularly or in groups. Any area of the skin may be affected, with abdomen, legs, arms, neck, genital area, and face being most common. Onset of the lesions is around 7 weeks after infection. It usually goes away within a year without scarring.
      Chickenpox lesions in the early stages may be mistaken for molluscum. However, the presence of associated macules and later vesicles and pustules help to differentiate them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant...

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    • There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant responsible for communicable disease control. Which of the following conditions does not belong to above category?

      Your Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      There are number of diseases that have to be notified to relevant authorities to prevent or reduce their spread. Those conditions include Cholera, Diphtheria, Food poisoning, Infectious bloody diarrhoea, Malaria, Measles, Meningococcal septicaemia, Mumps, Plague, Rabies and Rubella.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: UDP-glucuronosyl transferases

      Correct Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
      Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.

      Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old technician with no past medical history presents to the neurology clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old technician with no past medical history presents to the neurology clinic complaining of muscle pain. He describes severe bilateral cramping calf pain on minimal exercise. This has been present since his late teens and as such he has avoided exercise. Recently, he has attended the local gym to try and lose weight, but attempts at exercise have been dampened by the pain. He does note that if he perseveres with exercise, the pain settles. He has noticed passing dark urine in the evenings following a prolonged bout of exercise. Which of the following clinical tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy

      Explanation:

      The differential diagnosis of bilateral exercise-induced pain would include metabolic muscle disease, lumbar canal stenosis and intermittent claudication. The patient’s age, history and lack of other risk factors make the latter two options unlikely.

      The syndrome described is in fact McArdle’s disease (myophosphorylase deficiency). This is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism. Clinical features of pain and fatigue are precipitated in early exercise, as carbohydrates cannot be mobilized to provide an energy substrate to the muscle. With prolonged exercise, fatty acid metabolism provides energy, and symptoms lessen. The dark urine described is likely to represent myoglobinuria following rhabdomyolysis. Definitive diagnosis of most metabolic muscle diseases relies on muscle biopsy and enzyme analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive, ANA: positive, CK: 2000 U/L, ESR: 60mm/hr, EMG: myopathic changes. Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon

      Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
      Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
      It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 61 year old male is noted to be depressed following a recent...

    Correct

    • A 61 year old male is noted to be depressed following a recent heart attack. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease. Which antidepressant would be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Major depression (MD) often occurs after MI and has been shown to be an independent predictor of poor cardiovascular (CV) outcome.

      Results of a randomized trial confirm that the antidepressant sertraline can be used safely in patients with recent MI or unstable angina and is effective in relieving depression in these patients.

      Adverse effects to note:
      Sertraline – Diarrhoea (13-24%), Nausea (13-30%), Headache (20-25%),
      Insomnia (12-28%)
      Imipramine – ECG changes, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia
      Confusion, extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), dizziness, paraesthesia, tinnitus
      Flupentixol – seizures, irregular/fast heartbeat, increased sweating
      Paroxetine – Hypertension, Tachycardia, Emotional lability, Pruritus
      Venlafaxine – Abnormal vision (4-6%), Hypertension (2-5%), Paraesthesia (2-3%), Vasodilation (2-6%), Aneurism, Deep vein thrombophlebitis, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Passmed