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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with a history of COPD complains of a headache, dizziness, and palpitations. He is currently taking modified-release theophylline for his COPD. You suspect theophylline toxicity and schedule a blood test to check his levels.
When should the blood sample be taken after his last oral dose?Your Answer: 24 hours
Correct Answer: 4-6 hours
Explanation:In order to achieve satisfactory bronchodilation, most individuals require a plasma theophylline concentration of 10-20 mg/litre (55-110 micromol/litre). However, it is possible for a lower concentration to still be effective. Adverse effects can occur within the range of 10-20 mg/litre, and their frequency and severity increase when concentrations exceed 20 mg/litre.
To measure plasma theophylline concentration, a blood sample should be taken five days after starting oral treatment and at least three days after any dose adjustment. For modified-release preparations, the blood sample should typically be taken 4-6 hours after an oral dose (specific sampling times may vary, so it is advisable to consult local guidelines). If aminophylline is administered intravenously, a blood sample should be taken 4-6 hours after initiating treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with pain in his left buttock, hip, and thigh. The pain started suddenly a few weeks ago, and he cannot recall any previous injury. During the examination, he shows wasting of his left quadriceps, struggles to stand up from a seated position, and has an absent knee jerk on the left side. Muscle fasciculations are observed in his left thigh. His BMI is 30, and he is a smoker.
What is the SINGLE most beneficial management measure for this patient?Your Answer: Weight loss
Correct Answer: Good glycaemic control
Explanation:Diabetic amyotrophy, also referred to as proximal diabetic neuropathy, is the second most prevalent form of diabetic neuropathy. It typically manifests with pain in the buttocks, hips, or thighs and is often initially experienced on one side of the body. The pain may start off as mild and gradually progress or it can suddenly appear, as seen in this particular case. Subsequently, weakness and wasting of the proximal muscles in the lower limbs occur, potentially leading to the patient requiring assistance when transitioning from a seated to a standing position. Reflexes in the affected areas can also be impacted. Fortunately, diabetic amyotrophy can be reversed through effective management of blood sugar levels, physiotherapy, and adopting a healthy lifestyle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 16 year old girl arrives at the emergency department with her friend following a fall from her skateboard. An X-ray reveals a dislocated shoulder. You inform the patient that the shoulder will require sedation for reduction. At what age is it generally assumed that a patient has the capacity to provide consent for treatment?
Your Answer: 18
Correct Answer: 16
Explanation:Patients who are 16 years old and above are presumed to have the ability to make decisions about their treatment.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55 year old female patient is brought into the emergency department with urosepsis. It is decided to intubate her pending transfer to ITU. Your consultant requests you prepare propofol and suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation (RSI). What is the recommended dose of suxamethonium for RSI in adults?
Your Answer: 5 mg/kg
Correct Answer: 1.5 mg/kg
Explanation:The appropriate dosage of suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) in adults is between 1 and 1.5 milligrams per kilogram of body weight.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A young woman with a previous case of urethritis has a urethral swab sent to the laboratory for examination. Based on the findings of this test, she is diagnosed with gonorrhea.
What is the most probable observation that would have been made on her urethral swab?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram-negative diplococci
Explanation:Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a type of bacteria that causes the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhoea. It is a Gram-negative diplococcus, meaning it appears as pairs of bacteria under a microscope. This infection is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 and 35, and it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. One important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is its ability to undergo antigenic variation, which means that recovering from an infection does not provide immunity and reinfection is possible.
When Neisseria gonorrhoeae infects the body, it first attaches to the genitourinary epithelium using pili, which are hair-like structures on the surface of the bacteria. It then invades the epithelial layer and triggers a local acute inflammatory response. In men, the clinical features of gonorrhoea often include urethritis (inflammation of the urethra) in about 80% of cases, dysuria (painful urination) in around 50% of cases, and mucopurulent discharge. Rectal infection may also occur, usually without symptoms, but it can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis, or inflammation of the throat, is usually asymptomatic in men.
In women, the clinical features of gonorrhoea commonly include vaginal discharge in about 50% of cases, lower abdominal pain in around 25% of cases, dysuria in 10-15% of cases, and pelvic/lower abdominal tenderness in less than 5% of cases. Endocervical discharge and/or bleeding may also be present. Similar to men, rectal infection is usually asymptomatic but can cause anal discharge, and pharyngitis is usually asymptomatic in women as well.
Complications of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection can be serious and include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women, epididymo-orchitis or prostatitis in men, arthritis, dermatitis, pericarditis and/or myocarditis, hepatitis, and meningitis.
To diagnose gonorrhoea, samples of pus from the urethra, cervix, rectum, or throat should be collected and promptly sent to the laboratory in specialized transport medium. Traditionally, diagnosis has been made using Gram-stain and culture techniques, but newer PCR testing methods are becoming more commonly used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is prescribed prochlorperazine for symptoms of dizziness and nausea. Shortly after taking the medication, she experiences an acute dystonic reaction.
What is the most suitable treatment for this reaction? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:Drug-induced acute dystonic reactions are frequently seen in the Emergency Department. These reactions occur in approximately 0.5% to 1% of patients who have been administered metoclopramide or prochlorperazine. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has proven to be effective in treating drug-induced parkinsonism, akathisia, and acute dystonia. In emergency situations, a dose of 10 mg IV of procyclidine can be administered to promptly treat acute drug-induced dystonic reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of persistent foul-smelling discharge from her right ear. She has undergone three separate courses of antibiotic drops, but they have been ineffective in resolving the issue. Additionally, she is experiencing hearing difficulties in her right ear. Her medical history includes recurrent ear infections. Upon examination, a retraction pocket is observed in the attic, along with granulation tissue on the tympanic membrane and a significant amount of debris.
What is the MOST suitable next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:This individual is diagnosed with an acquired cholesteatoma, which is an expanding growth of the stratified keratinising epithelium in the middle ear. It develops due to dysfunction of the Eustachian tube and chronic otitis media caused by the retraction of the squamous elements of the tympanic membrane into the middle ear space.
The most important method for assessing the presence of a cholesteatoma is otoscopy. A retraction pocket observed in the attic or posterosuperior quadrant of the tympanic membrane is a characteristic sign of an acquired cholesteatoma. This is often accompanied by the presence of granulation tissue and squamous debris. The presence of a granular polyp within the ear canal also strongly suggests a cholesteatoma.
If left untreated, a cholesteatoma can lead to various complications including conductive deafness, facial nerve palsy, brain abscess, meningitis, and labyrinthitis. Therefore, it is crucial to urgently refer this individual to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a CT scan and surgical removal of the lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25 year old patient is brought into the resuscitation bay by paramedics after being pulled from a lake. The patient initially had a core temperature of 29.2ºC. CPR is underway. The patient's core temperature is rechecked after warming measures are introduced and the core temperature has increased to 32.5ºC. What changes, if any, would you make to administration of adrenaline during CPR in a patient with a core temperature of 32.5ºC compared to someone with a normal core temperature?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interval between doses doubled
Explanation:When performing CPR on patients with a core temperature of 30-35°C, it is recommended to double the interval between IV drug doses compared to what is used for normothermic patients. However, if the core temperature is above 35°C, standard drug protocols should be followed.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. Upon further questioning, you discover that he has taken an overdose of quetiapine. You discuss the case with your consultant, and she explains that the clinical features of this type of poisoning are due to central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade.
Which of the following clinical effects occurs as a result of peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mydriasis
Explanation:Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. These drugs are commonly used in clinical practice and include antihistamines, typical and atypical antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antispasmodics, antiemetics, antiparkinsonian agents, antimuscarinics, and certain plants. When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in the central and peripheral systems.
The central effects of anticholinergic drugs result in an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma or seizures. On the other hand, the peripheral effects can vary and may include dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 10
Incorrect
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After managing a patient with frontotemporal dementia, your consultant believes that the foundation doctors would benefit from additional education on the topic. They request you to prepare a teaching session for the junior doctors. Which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Personality change, speech disturbance and behavioural change are predominant features in frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:In the UK, not all dementia cases are suitable for treatment with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine. Specifically, patients with frontotemporal dementia should not be prescribed these medications. If a patient experiences visual hallucinations, it may indicate that they have dementia with Lewy bodies.
Further Reading:
Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.
To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.
The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.
There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.
Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.
Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.
Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.
In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 72 year old is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to sudden onset of confusion. The patient's spouse is concerned the sudden decrease in consciousness is due to a hemorrhage as the patient is on blood thinners. Neurological examination reveals flaccid paralysis. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is initiated before CT scan as the patient experiences a respiratory arrest. Which of the following syndromes is this patient most likely suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tonsillar herniation
Explanation:Tonsillar herniation occurs when the cerebellar tonsils are pushed through the foramen magnum. This condition is characterized by a decrease in consciousness, respiratory arrest, and flaccid paralysis.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 28-year-old woman who has been experiencing visual difficulties and had a period where her lower leg felt like 'pins and needles' for a few weeks approximately a year ago. Her sister was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, and she is concerned about her own health. She has numerous inquiries and wants to know which factors indicate a less favorable prognosis.
Which ONE factor would NOT be indicative of a positive outcome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Older age at time of diagnosis
Explanation:Multiple sclerosis is a condition characterized by the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. It is an autoimmune disease caused by recurring inflammation, primarily affecting individuals in early adulthood. The condition is more prevalent in females, with a ratio of 3:2 compared to males.
There are several risk factors associated with multiple sclerosis. These include being of Caucasian race, living at a greater distance from the equator (as the risk tends to increase further away), having a family history of the disease (with approximately 20% of patients having an affected relative), and smoking. Interestingly, the rates of relapse tend to decrease during pregnancy.
Multiple sclerosis can present in three main patterns. The most common is relapsing and remitting MS, where individuals experience periods without symptoms followed by relapses. This accounts for 80% of cases at the time of diagnosis. Another pattern is primary progressive MS, where symptoms develop and worsen from the beginning with few remissions. This is seen in approximately 10-15% of cases at diagnosis. Lastly, there is secondary progressive MS, which occurs after a relapsing/remitting phase. In this pattern, symptoms worsen with fewer remissions, and it affects around 50% of individuals with relapsing/remitting MS within 10 years of diagnosis.
Certain factors can indicate a more favorable prognosis for individuals with multiple sclerosis. These include having a relapsing/remitting course of the disease, being female, experiencing sensory symptoms, and having an early age at onset.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presents to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical condition. Upon reviewing his medications, you discover that he is taking warfarin as part of his management.
Which ONE of the following supplements should be avoided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: St. John’s Wort
Explanation:St. John’s wort can reduce the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Therefore, it is important for patients who are taking warfarin to be aware that they should avoid using St. John’s wort as a supplement. For more information on this interaction, you can refer to the BNF section on warfarin interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation (AF) presents with a head injury and decreased level of consciousness. He is currently taking warfarin for his AF, and his INR was 2.5 a few days ago. A CT scan of his head reveals the presence of a subdural hematoma.
What is the most suitable approach to manage the reversal of warfarin in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop warfarin and give IV vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation:The current recommendations from NICE for managing warfarin in the presence of bleeding or an abnormal INR are as follows:
In cases of major active bleeding, regardless of the INR level, the first step is to stop administering warfarin. Next, 5 mg of vitamin K (phytomenadione) should be given intravenously. Additionally, dried prothrombin complex concentrate, which contains factors II, VII, IX, and X, should be administered. If dried prothrombin complex is not available, fresh frozen plasma can be given at a dose of 15 ml/kg.
If the INR is greater than 8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is greater than 8.0 with no bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Oral administration of 1-5 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with no bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld, and the subsequent maintenance dose should be reduced.
For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of warfarin therapy and the BNF guidance on the use of phytomenadione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with severe otalgia in her right ear that has been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. She describes the pain as ‘constant’, and she has been unable to sleep for several nights. Her family have noticed that the right side of her face appears to be ‘drooping’. Her past medical history includes poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed with otitis externa by a colleague a few weeks earlier, but the pain has failed to settle despite two separate courses of antibiotic drops. On examination, she has a right-sided lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy. Her right ear canal is very swollen and purulent exudate is visible. You are unable to clearly view her tympanic membrane. A swab of the ear taken last week has cultured Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant otitis externa
Explanation:Malignant otitis externa (MOE), also known as necrotising otitis externa, is a rare type of ear infection that primarily affects older individuals with diabetes, particularly if their diabetes is poorly managed.
MOE initially starts as an infection in the ear canal and gradually spreads to the surrounding bone and soft tissues. In about 98% of cases, the responsible pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Typically, MOE presents with intense ear pain and persistent inflammation of the ear canal that does not respond well to topical antibiotics. The pain is often described as constant and tends to worsen at night. Even after the swelling of the ear canal subsides with the use of topical antibiotics, the pain may persist. Other symptoms that may be present include pus drainage from the ear and temporal headaches. Approximately 50% of patients also experience facial nerve paralysis, and cranial nerves IX to XII may also be affected.
If left untreated, MOE can be life-threatening, and serious complications may arise, such as skull base osteomyelitis, subdural empyema, and cerebral abscess.
To diagnose MOE, technetium scanning and contrast-enhanced CT scanning are typically performed. Treatment usually involves long-term administration of intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with complaints of painful urination and frequent urination. A urine dipstick test shows the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on these findings, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection and prescribe antibiotics. Her recent blood tests indicate that her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is greater than 60 ml/minute.
Which antibiotic would be the most suitable to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:NICE provides the following recommendations for the treatment of non-pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs):
1. Consider prescribing a back-up antibiotic or an immediate antibiotic for women with lower UTIs, taking into account the severity of symptoms, the risk of complications, previous urine culture results, previous antibiotic use, and the woman’s preferences.
2. If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, review the choice of antibiotic when the microbiological results are available. Change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if bacteria are resistant and symptoms are not improving.
3. The first-choice antibiotics for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and over are nitrofurantoin (100 mg modified-release tablets taken twice daily for 3 days) or trimethoprim (200 mg tablets taken twice daily for 3 days), if there is a low risk of resistance.
4. If there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms after at least 48 hours on the first-choice antibiotic or if the first-choice antibiotic is not suitable, the second-choice options are nitrofurantoin (100 mg modified-release tablets taken twice daily for 3 days), pivmecillinam (400 mg initial dose followed by 200 mg three times daily for 3 days), or fosfomycin (3 g single sachet dose).
5. The risk of resistance to antibiotics may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility, and in younger people in areas with low resistance rates. The risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older people in residential facilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old male who has been referred to the emergency department after visiting his local Boots™ store for a hearing assessment. The patient reports experiencing pain and hearing impairment on the right side a few days prior to the examination. The nurse who examined the patient's ears before conducting the audiogram expressed concerns regarding malignant otitis externa.
What is the primary cause of malignant otitis externa?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Malignant otitis externa, also known as necrotising otitis externa, is a severe infection that affects the external auditory canal and spreads to the temporal bone and nearby tissues, leading to skull base osteomyelitis. The primary cause of this condition is usually an infection by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. It is commonly observed in older individuals with diabetes.
Further Reading:
Otitis externa is inflammation of the skin and subdermis of the external ear canal. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, or chronic, lasting more than 3 months. Malignant otitis externa, also known as necrotising otitis externa, is a severe and potentially life-threatening infection that can spread to the bones and surrounding structures of the ear. It is most commonly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Symptoms of malignant otitis externa include severe and persistent ear pain, headache, discharge from the ear, fever, malaise, vertigo, and profound hearing loss. It can also lead to facial nerve palsy and other cranial nerve palsies. In severe cases, the infection can spread to the central nervous system, causing meningitis, brain abscess, and sepsis.
Acute otitis externa is typically caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Staphylococcus aureus, while chronic otitis externa can be caused by fungal infections such as Aspergillus or Candida albicans. Risk factors for otitis externa include eczema, psoriasis, dermatitis, acute otitis media, trauma to the ear canal, foreign bodies in the ear, water exposure, ear canal obstruction, and long-term antibiotic or steroid use.
Clinical features of otitis externa include itching of the ear canal, ear pain, tenderness of the tragus and/or pinna, ear discharge, hearing loss if the ear canal is completely blocked, redness and swelling of the ear canal, debris in the ear canal, and cellulitis of the pinna and adjacent skin. Tender regional lymphadenitis is uncommon.
Management of acute otitis externa involves general ear care measures, optimizing any underlying medical or skin conditions that are risk factors, avoiding the use of hearing aids or ear plugs if there is a suspected contact allergy, and avoiding the use of ear drops if there is a suspected allergy to any of its ingredients. Treatment options include over-the-counter acetic acid 2% ear drops or spray, aural toileting via dry swabbing, irrigation, or microsuction, and prescribing topical antibiotics with or without a topical corticosteroid. Oral antibiotics may be prescribed in severe cases or for immunocompromised individuals.
Follow-up is advised if symptoms do not improve within 48-72 hours of starting treatment, if symptoms have not fully resolved
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after being hit in the jaw during a soccer game. She is experiencing pain and swelling in her jaw.
Where is the mandible most frequently fractured in terms of anatomical locations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angle of the mandible
Explanation:Mandibular fractures are quite common, especially among young men. The most common cause of these fractures is assault, but they can also occur due to sporting injuries, motor vehicle accidents, and falls. The mandible and skull together form a complete bony ring, with the only interruption being the temporomandibular joints (TMJs). While it is expected that mandibular fractures would occur in two places, sometimes they only occur in one location. The most frequently affected areas are the angle of the mandible (27%), mandibular symphysis (21%), mandibular condylar and subcondylar (18%), body of the mandible (15%), ramus of the mandible (5%), coronoid process (1-3%), and alveolar ridge (2%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department feeling extremely ill. He was recently prescribed a course of trimethoprim for a suspected urinary tract infection by his primary care physician. Initially, he felt slightly better, but unfortunately, in the past 24 hours, he has developed severe pain in his lower back, chills, and has vomited up this morning's antibiotic. He denies any possibility of being pregnant. Upon examination, he has an elevated heart rate of 106 beats per minute and tenderness in his left flank.
What is the MOST appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for admission for intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:This patient is clearly experiencing pyelonephritis with systemic involvement, which may indicate sepsis. According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to admit individuals to the hospital if they exhibit any symptoms or signs that suggest a more serious illness or condition, such as sepsis. In cases of acute pyelonephritis, it is advisable to consider referring or seeking specialist advice for individuals who are significantly dehydrated or unable to consume oral fluids and medications, pregnant women, those at a higher risk of developing complications (e.g., individuals with known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression), and individuals who have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (e.g., two or more episodes within a 6-month period). Additionally, it is recommended to consider referral for men who have experienced a single episode without an obvious cause and women with recurrent pyelonephritis. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of acute pyelonephritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills 45 minutes ago following a heated dispute with their partner. The patient reports consuming approximately 30 tablets in total, consisting of four or five different types. These tablets were sourced from their grandparents medication, although the patient is uncertain about their specific names. They mention the possibility of one tablet being called bisoprolol. What is the recommended antidote for beta-blocker toxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glucagon
Explanation:Glucagon is the preferred initial treatment for beta-blocker poisoning when there are symptoms of slow heart rate and low blood pressure.
Further Reading:
Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.
In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.
Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.
Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.
Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.
There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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