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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in elderly patients, and how it might be applied to geriatric medicine. You assume that the data for this particular biomarker are likely to be normally distributed.
When considering the normal distribution, which of the following is true?Your Answer: The 95% confidence interval tells us how confident we are in the test
Correct Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value
Explanation:Understanding Normal Distribution and Parametric Tests
The normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical on both sides. Its mean, median, and mode are equal, making it a useful tool for analyzing data. For instance, the probability that a normally distributed random variable x, with mean sigma, and standard deviation µ, lies between (sigma – 1.96 µ) and (sigma + 1.96 µ) is 0.95, while the probability that it lies between (sigma – µ) and (sigma + µ) is 0.68. Additionally, 95% of the distribution of sample means lie within 1.96 standard deviations of the population mean.
Parametric tests are statistical tests that assume the data are normally distributed. However, data that are not normally distributed can still be subject to a parametric test, but they need to be transformed first. Understanding normal distribution and parametric tests is crucial for researchers and analysts who want to make accurate inferences from their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl has a history of intermittent constipation. Her mother says that her pants are now frequently soiled with loose, smelly stools and this is why she has brought her in. She is otherwise well and has a normal development history.
What is the most appropriate initial management option?Your Answer: Increase dietary fibre and fluids
Correct Answer: Polyethylene glycol '3350' + electrolytes (Movicol©)
Explanation:Treatment options for idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence
Idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence requires prompt and appropriate treatment. The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of macrogols (polyethylene glycol ‘3350’ + electrolytes; Movicol©) with an escalating dose regimen, adjusting the dose according to the response. Adequate fluid and fibre are necessary but should not be used alone as the only treatment. Rectal suppositories and sodium citrate enemas are suggested as options only if oral treatment fails. If this fails, phosphate enemas in hospital are recommended. A stimulant laxative such as senna can be added to the macrogols if the latter do not lead to disimpaction after two weeks. A stimulant laxative singly or in combination with an osmotic laxative or a stool softener should be used if macrogols are not tolerated. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s condition and response to treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Correct
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a painless swelling of the scrotum on one side. The swelling enlarges during the day and diminishes overnight. On examination there is a smooth swelling, within which the testis can be felt. Transillumination is seen when a torch is held against the scrotum.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hydrocele
Explanation:Understanding Hydroceles and Hernias in Children
During fetal development, the testicle descends into the scrotum accompanied by a sac-like extension of peritoneum called the processus vaginalis (PV). If the PV fails to close, it can result in a communicating hydrocele, where only fluid can pass through, or a hernia, where other abdominal contents protrude.
To diagnose a hydrocele, transillumination of the scrotum can reveal fluid in the tunica vaginalis (TV). However, this test may not fully exclude a hernia, as bowel may also transilluminate. Hydroceles may appear to enlarge during the day and disappear at night due to gravity’s effect on filling.
Hernias may present with abdominal pain, constipation, or vomiting, and the lump may be more prominent when the child cries. Bowel sounds in the scrotum strongly suggest a hernia.
In infants, many hydroceles resolve spontaneously due to PV closure early after birth. Observation is often appropriate up to 12-18 months of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with various medical issues - both physical and psychiatric - has been experiencing muscle weakness and pain since a workplace accident. She has filed an insurance claim and has also lodged a complaint about the practice. After receiving a copy of her medical records, she comes to you a week later with a letter from the insurance company doctor that mentions a diagnosis of 'conversion disorder'. She asks you to explain what this means.
What steps would you take in response to this situation?Your Answer: Explain that a conversion disorder means he had symptoms affecting his muscles, but the doctor from the insurance company felt that psychological factors were associated with the symptoms and his symptoms couldn't be explained by a physical illness
Explanation:Understanding Common Psychological Disorders
Patients have the right to understand all the details of their medical condition. This is especially important when dealing with psychological disorders that can be difficult to comprehend.
Conversion disorder is a type of psychological disorder where patients experience physical symptoms that cannot be explained by a physical illness. These symptoms are often associated with psychological factors.
Hypochondriasis is another psychological disorder where patients are preoccupied with the fear of having a serious disease. This fear is often caused by misinterpreting physical symptoms.
Malingering is a deliberate act of pretending to have a physical or psychological disorder for personal gain. For example, pretending to have a weak leg to avoid work or military service.
It is important to provide patients with clear explanations of their condition to encourage engagement in rehabilitation. Without understanding their condition, patients may be less likely to participate in their own recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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As a General Practitioner, which of the following items is NOT eligible for personal administration claims?
Your Answer: Lignocaine hydrochloride ampoules
Correct Answer: Salbutamol nebules
Explanation:Understanding Personally Administered Items in General Medical Services
Personally administered items are prescription items that are prescribed and administered by a member of the practice team. These items attract payment under General Medical Services Statement of Financial Entitlement 2005 section 17. Examples of personally administered items include vaccines, anaesthetics, injections, intrauterine contraceptive devices, contraceptive caps and diaphragms, diagnostic reagents, pessaries, and sutures.
It is important to note that Nexplanon cannot be claimed as a personally administered item since it is an implant, not an injection. An FP10 prescription should be provided instead. However, Goserelin, Leuprorelin, and Triptorelin can be claimed as personally administered items, even though they are implants.
High-volume vaccines such as influenza, typhoid, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, pneumococcal, and meningococcal are claimed on the form FP34PD. For other vaccines, an FP10 is needed. Dressings, hormonal implants, nebules, catheters, and clinical reagents cannot be claimed as personally administered items and require an FP10 prescription.
It is important to note that items that are personally administered do not attract a prescription charge. Both dispensing and non-dispensing doctors can claim a fee from the Prescription Pricing Authority. The fee per item decreases with an increasing number of items. If a practice is claiming more than 400 items per month, it is financially beneficial to split them into batches for each doctor rather than send one batch for the whole practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of genital itching, redness, and discomfort that worsens during urination. She is asymptomatic otherwise and has normal vital signs. What is the best initial approach to managing her symptoms?
Your Answer: Oral trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Hygiene advice
Explanation:For pre-pubertal girls with vulvovaginitis and no red flags, general measures should be attempted before further investigations. The most appropriate measure is providing hygiene advice, which includes wiping from front to back, maintaining hand hygiene, wearing loose cotton underwear, and avoiding irritants such as soaps, bubble baths, and laundry detergents. Vinegar baths and barrier creams may also be helpful. Clotrimazole pessary, oral metronidazole, and oral trimethoprim are not recommended for this age group and scenario. It is important to note that vulvovaginitis in young girls often resolves on its own as they grow older.
Gynaecological Problems in Children: Vulvovaginitis
In children, gynaecological problems are not uncommon, and vulvovaginitis is the most prevalent disorder. This condition is often caused by poor hygiene, tight clothing, lack of labial fat pads protecting the vaginal orifice, and lack of protective acid secretion found in the reproductive years. Bacterial or fungal organisms may be responsible for the infection, and in rare cases, sexual abuse may present as vulvovaginitis. If there is a bloody discharge, it is essential to consider a foreign body.
It is not recommended to perform vaginal examinations or vaginal swabs on children. Instead, referral to a paediatric gynaecologist is appropriate for persistent problems. Most newborn girls have some mucoid white vaginal discharge, which usually disappears by three months of age.
The management of vulvovaginitis includes advising the child about hygiene, using soothing creams, and applying topical antibiotics or antifungals. In resistant cases, oestrogen cream may be necessary. It is crucial to seek medical attention if the symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient complains of a rash on her neck and forehead. She recently came back from a trip to Greece a week ago and had her hair colored two days ago. Upon examination, there is a vesicular rash around her hairline that is oozing, but her scalp is not severely affected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Irritant contact dermatitis
Correct Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis
Explanation:Understanding Contact Dermatitis
Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare.
The second type of contact dermatitis is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.
Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to effectively manage and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited with complaints of worsening headaches and insomnia, which you diagnosed as tension-type headaches after ruling out any red flags. Her sleep pattern has continued to deteriorate over the past few months, with early morning waking being a prominent issue. She denies any substance misuse or excessive alcohol consumption.
During today's visit, she reports experiencing a few episodes of palpitations and occasional dizziness. These symptoms do not occur during exercise, and there are no red flags present. Her cardiovascular and neurological exams are unremarkable, and her blood pressure is normal.
All of her blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests, come back normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Commence treatment with a beta-blocker
Correct Answer: Consider generalised anxiety disorder as a potential underlying diagnosis and explore if psychological distress present
Explanation:Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) can manifest in various ways, including presenting solely with physical symptoms. Patients with GAD may experience headaches, muscle tension, gastrointestinal symptoms, back pain, and insomnia, without reporting any psychological distress or worry. Therefore, it is important to explore the presence of psychological distress during consultations.
Based on the history and examination provided, there is no indication for urgent cardiology referral, and it would not be an appropriate use of resources.
While beta-blockers may be a suitable treatment option for GAD, further discussion with the patient is necessary before reaching a diagnosis, especially in the presence of somatic symptoms.
Similarly, SSRI may be an appropriate treatment option, but it is important to have a thorough discussion with the patient before prescribing.
In this case, prescribing a sleeping tablet is not the most appropriate option. Secondary insomnia resulting from GAD should be treated, and a sleeping tablet should only be prescribed at the lowest possible dose for the shortest period of time, with regular review. Treatment should not exceed 2-4 weeks due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Depending on the circumstances, other treatment options such as individual guided self-help, psychological interventions, or cognitive behavioural therapy may be considered.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man takes 2 x co-dydramol 10/500 tablets, four times daily for arthritis of his knee. During a routine medicines review over the phone, he reveals that he's been buying paracetamol from the local supermarket for the past 2 months and supplements his co-dydramol with an additional paracetamol tablet four times a day.
You inform him that his prescribed medication contains paracetamol and that he's effectively taking 3 x 500mg paracetamol tablets four times a day. A total of 12 tablets a day. He weighs 70Kg.
What is the threshold amount of paracetamol taken over a 24 hour period that would be required for medical admission and n-acetylcysteine infusion?Your Answer: 150 mg/Kg
Correct Answer: 50 mg/Kg
Explanation:Harmful Levels of Paracetamol
When it comes to harmful levels of paracetamol, patients are divided into two groups: those who have taken an acute overdose and those who have taken a staggered overdose, which includes patients who may have taken therapeutic excess over a period of time. Surprisingly, even modest amounts of paracetamol can be harmful, especially for frail elderly patients.
According to the British National Formulary, a staggered overdose involves ingesting a potentially toxic dose of paracetamol over more than one hour, with the possible intention of causing self-harm. Therapeutic excess is the inadvertent ingestion of a potentially toxic dose of paracetamol during its clinical use. In these cases, patients who have taken more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol in any 24-hour period are at risk of toxicity and should be commenced on acetylcysteine immediately, unless it is more than 24 hours since the last ingestion, the patient is asymptomatic, the plasma-paracetamol concentration is undetectable, and liver function tests, serum creatinine and INR are normal.
It’s important to note that there is no set number of tablets that can cause toxicity as it depends on the patient’s weight. Rarely, toxicity can occur with paracetamol doses between 75-150 mg/kg in any 24-hour period, and clinical judgement of the individual case is necessary to determine whether to treat those who have ingested this amount of paracetamol. For small adults, this may be within the licensed dose, but ingestion of a licensed dose of paracetamol is not considered an overdose. The doctor may not be informed until after the event, so familiarity with the timescales is also important.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 10
Correct
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What substance can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:MAOIs and Paracetamol: Safe Combination
Paracetamol is a safe medication to take with MAOIs. However, it is important to avoid other drugs, foodstuffs, and alcoholic beverages that can trigger the cheese reaction. This reaction can be caused by consuming food high in tyramine, which is listed in the accompanying leaflet of the prescribed drug. It is worth noting that MAOIs are not commonly prescribed in general practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to an early morning duty appointment with complaints of increasing fatigue, abdominal pain, vomiting, and excessive thirst over the past week. She has a history of well-controlled hypertension with amlodipine and takes atorvastatin. She recently started a six-week course of high-dose colecalciferol, prescribed by another GP, but has only taken one dose so far. On examination, she appears fatigued and drowsy, but her observations are unremarkable. Urgent blood tests are ordered, and the results show a Hb of 124 g/L, platelets of 224 * 109/L, WBC of 6.4 * 109/L, Na+ of 141 mmol/L, K+ of 4.0 mmol/L, urea of 6.9 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, calcium of 3.7 mmol/L, phosphate of 1.1 mmol/L, magnesium of 1.0 mmol/L, and TSH of 3.24 mU/L. Looking back at her blood results from the previous week, her calcium was 2.56 mmol/L, phosphate was 1.2 mmol/L, magnesium was 0.8 mmol/L, and vitamin D was 7 nmol/L. Based on these findings, she is admitted directly under the acute medical team for further management. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:If a patient with coexistent hyperparathyroidism undergoes rapid vitamin D replacement, it can lead to toxicity. In the case of this woman, she requires urgent admission under the medical team due to severe hypercalcaemia. The cause is likely vitamin D toxicity and unidentified primary hyperparathyroidism. Previous blood tests indicate a severe vitamin D deficiency, but her calcium level is at the higher end of normal, suggesting an overactive parathyroid gland that was masked by the low vitamin D. Testing for parathyroid hormone prior to administering vitamin D could have clarified this. It is advisable to seek advice from endocrinology before rapid vitamin D replacement if the baseline corrected calcium is >2.5. While multiple myeloma can cause hypercalcaemia, it doesn’t occur as rapidly. Paget’s disease causes an increased ALP with a normal calcium level, and thyrotoxicosis due to Graves disease can cause hypercalcaemia due to increased bone turnover, but a suppressed TSH would be expected.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practice Surgery for his annual learning disability health check with his father. He reports feeling low in mood for several weeks, along with a poor appetite and sleep. He admits to occasionally self-harming but currently denies any suicidal thoughts, plans or intent.
Which of the following management steps would be most appropriate in primary care?Your Answer: Start imipramine
Correct Answer: Refer to local learning disability team
Explanation:Appropriate Management of Depression in People with Learning Disabilities
When a person with a learning disability is suspected of having a mental health condition, it is recommended that they are assessed by a Mental Health Practitioner (MHP) with expertise in learning disability. This assessment can be arranged through the local learning disability team or, in some cases, the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service.
If a person with a learning disability is displaying signs of depression, it is important to arrange follow-up in primary care and refer them to an MHP with expertise in managing learning disability. While counselling is not recommended for the treatment of mental health conditions in people with a learning disability, adapted cognitive behavioural therapy, relaxation therapy, graded exposure therapy, or parent training may be effective treatments.
It is not appropriate for GPs to prescribe psychotropic medication for patients with a learning disability, and prescribing such drugs in children is discouraged in primary care. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as imipramine, are not commonly used as first-line treatment for depression, especially in children, due to the potential for a fatal overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a week-long history of fever, malaise, sore throat, and swollen glands. During the examination, you observe that he is pale, has a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, and a temperature of 38ºC. You notice redness and inflammation in his throat, with bilateral tonsillar enlargement, tender palpable cervical lymphadenopathy, and no exudate. You suspect glandular fever and order a Monospot test and full blood count. What results in the full blood count would indicate the presence of glandular fever?
Your Answer: Eosinophilia
Correct Answer: Lymphocytosis
Explanation:Elevated levels of eosinophils or neutrophils can indicate different conditions. Eosinophilia, which is an increase in eosinophils, can be a sign of parasitic infection, an allergic reaction, or a reaction to certain medications. On the other hand, neutrophilia, which is an increase in neutrophils, can indicate acute inflammation or a bacterial infection.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is accompanied by his family who are worried about his memory and behavior in the last six months. To rule out any reversible causes, a cognitive assessment is conducted which appears to validate the family's apprehensions. A set of blood tests are ordered, including a complete blood count, liver function tests, urea and electrolytes, and bone profile. What other blood tests should be requested?
Your Answer: Thyroid function tests, vitamin B12, folate, glucose
Explanation:Patients who are suspected to have dementia should undergo a blood screen that includes FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels to identify any reversible causes. However, NICE doesn’t recommend routine testing for syphilis and HIV.
Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms of bloody diarrhoea and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Campylobacter jejuni after a stool sample test. He believes that he contracted the infection from consuming undercooked chicken at a barbecue 3 days before the onset of his symptoms.
Although he feels much better now, with the cessation of bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, and fever, he still experiences loose stools 3-4 times a day, along with abdominal pain and bloating after eating food. He maintains a regular diet.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the given options?Your Answer: Secondary inflammatory bowel disease
Correct Answer: Secondary lactose intolerance
Explanation:If a patient who previously had gastroenteritis and maintains a normal diet continues to experience changes in their bowel habits, the most probable diagnosis is acquired lactose intolerance.
The most likely explanation for this scenario is secondary lactose intolerance, which occurs when the lining of the gut is damaged and temporarily unable to produce sufficient lactase. This damage can be caused by any condition that irritates and harms the gut, such as gastroenteritis. This type of lactose intolerance is usually temporary, and avoiding dairy products for a few weeks or months allows the gut to heal. Over time, the gut’s ability to produce lactase will recover, and the patient will be able to consume dairy products again.
While other possibilities exist, inflammatory bowel disease and coeliac disease are less likely than lactose intolerance and are not typically associated with confirmed gastroenteritis.
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is a rare complication of gastroenteritis, particularly with certain strains of E.coli, but it typically presents with haematuria and decreased urine output.
The final option is unlikely since it appears that the infection has improved.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.
Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, except:
Your Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a condition where gastric contents cause symptoms of oesophagitis. If GORD has not been investigated with endoscopy, it should be treated according to dyspepsia guidelines. However, if oesophagitis is confirmed through endoscopy, full dose proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should be given for 1-2 months. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given as required. If there is no response, double-dose PPIs should be given for 1 month.
For endoscopically negative reflux disease, full dose PPIs should be given for 1 month. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given on an as-required basis with a limited number of repeat prescriptions. If there is no response, H2RA or prokinetic should be given for one month.
Complications of GORD include oesophagitis, ulcers, anaemia, benign strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus, and oesophageal carcinoma. It is important to manage GORD effectively to prevent these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man, born and raised in the UK, has been diagnosed with HIV. He has no prior medical history and is currently in good health. When is the appropriate time to initiate antiretroviral therapy?
Your Answer: CD4 < 200 * 106/l
Correct Answer: At the time of diagnosis
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.
Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia. He has been taking aspirin, simvastatin, and atenolol for a long time. A creatine kinase test is performed due to his statin use, and the results show:
Creatine kinase 1,420 u/l (< 190 u/l)
The patient's symptoms appeared after starting a new medication. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the elevated creatine kinase level?Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The interaction between statins and erythromycin/clarithromycin is significant and frequent, and in this case, the patient has experienced statin-induced myopathy due to clarithromycin.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Correct
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You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.
Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.
What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?Your Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size
Explanation:Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.
It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A mother of a 9-month-old seeks guidance. Initially, she opted out of the oral rotavirus vaccine for her child to limit the number of immunisations. However, due to an outbreak at her baby's daycare, she now desires the vaccine. What should she do?
Your Answer: Explain that is no longer safe to give the vaccine to her child
Explanation:The oral rotavirus vaccine must be administered before 15 weeks for the first dose.
The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Mortality
Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. The vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.
The vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%, and is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70%. Additionally, the vaccine provides long-term protection against rotavirus. The introduction of the rotavirus vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood mortality and reducing the burden of rotavirus-related illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An overweight 62-year-old woman presents with a two-day history of an acutely painful, tender right knee associated with erythema and a temperature of 37.7°C. She is usually well and suffers only from hypertension, for which she takes bendroflumethiazide. She admits to drinking 20 units of alcohol per week. There is nothing else of significance in the medical history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful and Swollen Knee
When a patient presents with a painful and swollen knee, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, gout is a likely possibility, especially given the patient’s weight, alcohol consumption, and use of a diuretic. Gout typically causes severe pain, tenderness, and redness in the affected joint, and can be accompanied by fever and leukocytosis. Aspiration of joint fluid can help distinguish gout from septic arthritis, which is another possible diagnosis. Haemarthrosis, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis are less likely causes, as they present differently and have different associated symptoms. Septic arthritis is also a possibility, but is typically associated with fever, impaired range of motion, and other symptoms. Overall, a thorough evaluation and consideration of all possible diagnoses is necessary to properly diagnose and treat a painful and swollen knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and low abdominal pain for the past two days. She denies having a fever or loin pain and is not currently menstruating. Upon conducting a urine dip, it was discovered that she has 3+ leucocytes, nitrites, and 2+ blood. The patient has no prior history of UTI. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Send a urine sample for culture and treat with oral antibiotics for 5 days
Correct Answer: Send a urine sample for culture and treat with oral antibiotics for 3 days
Explanation:For women with haematuria and suspected UTI, NICE recommends urine culture and sensitivity to confirm infection. Treatment with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 3 days is recommended, which may be extended to 5-10 days in certain cases. After treatment, urine should be re-tested for blood. Persistent haematuria requires urgent referral to exclude urological cancer. For non-visible haematuria in women under 50, urine albumin/creatinine ratio and serum creatinine levels should be measured. Referral to a renal physician is necessary if there is proteinuria or declining eGFR, and referral to a urologist is needed if eGFR is normal and there is no proteinuria.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman is being evaluated one week after being diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis in her left leg. She has started taking warfarin after receiving low-molecular weight heparin for five days. Her medical history includes depression, osteoporosis, breast cancer, and type 2 diabetes. Which medication she is currently taking is most likely to have contributed to her increased risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Prior to initiating tamoxifen treatment, women should be informed about the elevated risk of VTE, which is one of the most significant side effects of the medication. Additionally, tamoxifen has been linked to an increased risk of endometrial cancer.
Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which option warrants hospital admission or referral for urgent assessment and intervention the most?
Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation caused by a chest infection
Correct Answer: Apex beat 155 bpm
Explanation:Urgent Admission Criteria for Patients with Atrial Fibrillation
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence has provided guidelines for urgent admission of patients with atrial fibrillation. These guidelines recommend urgent admission for patients who exhibit a rapid pulse greater than 150 bpm and/or low blood pressure with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mmHg. Additionally, urgent admission is recommended for patients who experience loss of consciousness, severe dizziness, ongoing chest pain, or increasing breathlessness. Patients who have experienced a complication of atrial fibrillation, such as stroke, transient ischaemic attack, or acute heart failure, should also be urgently admitted. While other symptoms may warrant a referral, these criteria indicate the need for immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner due to abdominal pain. She discloses that she drinks upward of 100 units a week and had alcohol withdrawal seizures in the past. She has had periods of abstinence of up to six months but has been daily drinking again for two years.
Which of the following is the best assessment tool for a dependent drinker?Your Answer: Cut, Annoyed, Guilty, and Eye (CAGE) questionnaire
Correct Answer: Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ)
Explanation:Assessment Tools for Alcohol Dependence: SADQ, AUDIT-C, CAGE, Full AUDIT, and GGT Blood Test
Assessing the severity of alcohol dependence is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment for individuals struggling with alcohol misuse. There are several assessment tools available, each with its own strengths and limitations.
The Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ) is a recommended tool by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. It consists of 20 questions and takes 5-10 minutes to complete. A score of >30 indicates severe alcohol dependence requiring assisted withdrawal, while a score of 15-30 indicates moderate dependence that can be managed in a community setting.
The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT-C) is an abridged version of the full AUDIT questionnaire, consisting of three questions. It is appropriate as an initial screen for alcohol misuse if time is limited.
The Cut, Annoyed, Guilty, and Eye (CAGE) questionnaire is a quick screening test with four questions. However, it is not the best assessment tool for known dependent drinkers.
The Full AUDIT questionnaire is recommended when there is ambiguity about the severity of alcohol misuse. However, it is not the best assessment tool for known dependent drinkers.
The Gamma Glutamyl Transferase (GGT) blood test is often used to detect heavy drinking, but it is not sensitive and only detects a third of patients who drink >16 units daily.
In conclusion, choosing the appropriate assessment tool for alcohol dependence depends on the individual’s situation and needs. It is important to consider the strengths and limitations of each tool to make an informed decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old female presents to surgery with her mother. Her mother is worried about her daughter's persistent fatigue, recurrent coughs and sore throats, and recent appearance of small purple spots on her skin. The patient also reports intermittent feverishness. Blood tests for EBV serology were normal a few weeks ago. On examination, the patient appears pale, with unremarkable observations. There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly, but small petechiae are present on the torso and arms. Based on NICE guidelines, which finding in the history and examination of this adolescent would warrant immediate specialist evaluation for leukemia?
Your Answer: Unexplained persistent infection
Correct Answer: Unexplained petechiae
Explanation:Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) makes up to 5% of all leukemia cases.
Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.
Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.
Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with symptoms of a respiratory tract infection, including cough, shortness of breath, confusion, and diarrhea. He has recently returned from a long-term stay at a hotel in Spain. During the examination, you note a temperature of 39.2°C and signs of consolidation in the right lower lobe. Blood tests reveal an elevated white count and a sodium level of 128. What is the most appropriate statement regarding this man's pneumonia?
Your Answer: It is likely to be caused by a Gram-positive bacillus
Correct Answer: Long-term lung damage is common
Explanation:Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Legionnaires disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila, a Gram-negative bacillus. The disease is usually acquired from infected water supplies in cooling towers and air conditioning units. Although it is difficult to acquire, with a low attack rate of 5%, elderly individuals, smokers, and those with pre-existing chest disease are at a higher risk of developing the condition.
The symptoms of Legionnaires disease are similar to those of the flu, including high fever (usually above 40°C), myalgias, and confusion. Treatment involves the use of ciprofloxacin or macrolides, and recovery is usually complete. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can be as high as 15-20%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis. He inquires if there is any other health condition that could be associated with this diagnosis.
What is a possible condition that can lead to membranous glomerulonephritis?Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Membranous Glomerulonephritis
Membranous glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease that often presents with a mixed nephrotic and nephritic picture. The condition is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, and its cause is often unknown. However, certain factors have been linked to the development of membranous glomerulonephritis, including cancers of the lung and bowel, infections such as hepatitis and malaria, and drugs like penicillamine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
One of the most significant risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is malignancy, which is responsible for approximately 5-10% of cases. Patients over the age of 60 are at higher risk, and effective treatment of the underlying malignancy can sometimes lead to improvement in renal symptoms. However, spontaneous recovery occurs in about one-third of patients, while one-third remain with membranous nephropathy and one-third progress to end-stage renal failure.
Other conditions, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hepatic fibrosis, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension, can also impact renal function but do not directly cause membranous glomerulonephritis. COPD, for example, can induce microvascular damage, albuminuria, and a worsening of renal function, while hepatic fibrosis can lead to hepatorenal syndrome. Chronic hypertension can also lead to hardening of the arteries and a reduction in renal function. However, understanding the specific causes and risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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As a GP, what tests should be performed for an 80-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation who has been started on amiodarone?
Your Answer: CXR, TFTS, LFTS every 6 months
Correct Answer: TFTs, LFTs every 6 months
Explanation:Amiodarone, a class III antiarrhythmic drug, has the potential to impact various bodily systems such as the thyroid, liver, and lungs.
To ensure patient safety, it is recommended to conduct liver and thyroid function tests every six months. Before initiating amiodarone treatment, a chest x-ray is necessary, but it is not required routinely after treatment unless respiratory symptoms arise.
Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.
It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit still and be quiet or get on with her work. She is equally troublesome at home and her mother cannot take her anywhere. She wonders if she has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about ADHD.Your Answer: Symptoms resolve by late adolescence
Correct Answer: Some impairment from symptoms must be evident in two or more settings
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Comorbidities
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically observed in individuals at a comparable level of development. In the UK, ADHD affects between 2-5% of children, with boys being more commonly affected. Diagnosis is usually made in children aged 3-7 years, but it can also be recognized later in life.
To diagnose ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity and/or inattention should be present. However, the ICD-10 classification requires all three problems of attention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness to be present. About 70% of children with ADHD also have other conditions, such as learning difficulties, dyspraxia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD, and depression and anxiety are common comorbidities.
While about 1 in 3 children with ADHD can grow out of their condition and not require any treatment when they are adults, the remainder either continue with ADHD or retain some symptoms and functional impairment. Therefore, early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to improve outcomes for individuals with ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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