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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She is currently carrying a twin pregnancy without any complications and her pregnancy is progressing smoothly. She has no other medical issues. The patient is planning to travel to Bangladesh to visit her family and seeks advice on the matter.

      What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide to the patient?

      Your Answer: She should be advised she will not be allowed to travel after 20-weeks carrying a multiple pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not allow travel after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies, and she will require a note from her doctor or midwife when she is over 28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women can generally fly safely if their pregnancy is progressing well, but it is important to check with the airline and insurance company before traveling. However, most airlines have restrictions on travel after 37 weeks of pregnancy or after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies. Additionally, women over 28 weeks pregnant may need a letter from their doctor or midwife confirming their due date and good health. It is also recommended to bring along pregnancy notes when traveling.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      1814
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are reviewing the polio vaccination schedule for a pediatric clinic.

    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing the polio vaccination schedule for a pediatric clinic.

      Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the polio vaccine currently offered in the UK?

      Your Answer: It is an inactivated strain

      Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to egg is a contraindication

      Explanation:

      Polio Vaccination in the UK

      Polio vaccination in the UK is now administered as an inactivated virus intramuscular injection in the thigh, as part of the national vaccination schedule. The vaccine is given in three doses at 2, 3, and 4 months of age, as part of the DTP-Polio-Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib) vaccine. A fourth dose is given before starting school as part of the DTP-polio booster, and a final booster is given to school leavers aged 13-18 years. Since 2004, oral polio vaccination has not been used in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of swelling in his ankles and fluid-filled blisters around his feet that burst easily. He has a history of Crohn's disease that has been bothering him for a long time. Upon examination, he appears normal except for a urinalysis that shows 2+ protein. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Pemphigus

      Correct Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions Associated with Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can lead to various medical conditions. One of these conditions is amyloidosis, which occurs when extracellular protein deposits disrupt normal organ function. This can result in nephrotic syndrome, characterized by protein in the urine and edema. While cardiac disease is uncommon in Crohn’s disease, it can occur and may present as congestive heart failure. Cirrhosis of the liver is also a potential complication, particularly in cases of primary sclerosing cholangitis. However, there is no indication of liver failure in the presented case. Nephritic syndrome, which involves protein and blood in the urine, is not the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. While cutaneous manifestations such as blisters can occur in Crohn’s disease, pemphigus is a rare association and is not the likely cause of the patient’s edema and proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.

    He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.

      He has been steadily increasing his analgesia in recent weeks and is currently taking the maximum dose of co-codamol 30/500. You are considering switching to morphine.

      What is the equivalent 24-hour oral morphine dose to maintain the same level of analgesia as his current co-codamol regimen?

      Your Answer: 24 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      Understanding Equivalent Morphine Dose for Codeine Patients

      When prescribing pain medication, it is important to consider the equivalent morphine dose for patients taking codeine. This can be calculated by dividing the dose of codeine by 10. For example, a patient taking 60 mg of codeine four times a day would have a total daily dose of 240 mg, which is equivalent to 24 mg of morphine.

      Failing to consider the equivalent morphine dose can result in inadequate pain relief for the patient. It is important to note that some patients may metabolize codeine at different rates, but this should not be a major concern in most cases. The majority of patients are normal metabolizers, converting 10% of codeine to morphine.

      Overall, understanding the equivalent morphine dose for codeine patients is a crucial aspect of pain management and should be taken into consideration when prescribing medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You notice an increase in the number of middle-aged women attending the surgery...

    Incorrect

    • You notice an increase in the number of middle-aged women attending the surgery for contraceptive advice, chlamydia testing and symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases. This includes an increase in the number of women attending with unwanted pregnancy, requesting abortion.

      Which one of the following accurately reflects your responsibilities with respect to women who request abortion?

      Your Answer: You must provide them with access to information about abortion but are not obliged to refer them to abortion services

      Correct Answer: You can refuse to refer them to another doctor and to provide them with any information

      Explanation:

      GP Refusal to Provide Abortion Information

      Access to abortion is a controversial issue, and some GPs refuse to refer or provide information on abortion to their female patients due to their religious or moral beliefs. However, according to GMC guidance, doctors must not allow their personal beliefs to affect their ability to provide appropriate patient care. Therefore, a GP who objects to providing abortion information should be willing to refer their patient to another doctor in the practice who can provide the necessary information. It is important for doctors to prioritize their patients’ needs and ensure that they receive the care they require, regardless of their own personal beliefs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      50.4
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  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old woman complains of vision loss in her left eye accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman complains of vision loss in her left eye accompanied by frontal headaches and lethargy for the past two weeks. During examination, her left eye shows only hand movements while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/9. Fundoscopy of the left eye reveals an oedematous and pale optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Correct Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual has developed left-sided anterior ischemic optic neuropathy.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you...

    Correct

    • The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you due to ongoing problems with reflux.

      The baby has been seen in paediatric outpatients and was started on ranitidine. You can see from the clinic letters that this was started at an initial dose of 1 mg/kg three times a day but to achieve symptom control it has been titrated to 3 mg/kg TDS. The higher dose seems to be controlling symptoms well.

      The paediatricians have asked you to continue to prescribe the ranitidine at a dose of 3 mg/kg until they review the child again in four weeks time.

      You weigh the child today and the current weight is 6 kg. Ranitidine oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml.

      What is the correct dosage in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer: 1 ml TDS

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Ranitidine Dose for a 5 kg Child

      When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on their weight. In this case, the child weighs 5 kg and the prescribed dose of ranitidine is 3 mg/kg TDS. To calculate the correct dose, we multiply the child’s weight by the prescribed dose: 5 x 3 = 15 mg TDS.

      The oral solution of ranitidine is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. This means that there is 15 mg of ranitidine in 1 ml of the solution. Therefore, the correct dose for the child is 1 ml TDS.

      It is important to ensure that the correct dosage is administered to avoid any potential adverse effects or ineffective treatment. By following the appropriate calculations and using the correct concentration of medication, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      122.7
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.

      What medication should she avoid in the future?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can actually shorten the QTc interval and are therefore safe to use. Amoxicillin and cyclizine, on the other hand, do not have any known effects on the QTc interval.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      22.3
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis of HIV. He is asymptomatic and has no notable medical history. His CD4 count is currently at 290 cells/µL. What is the optimal timing for initiating antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer: As soon as HIV is diagnosed

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated immediately upon diagnosis of HIV.

      Delaying treatment until symptoms or AIDS-defining illnesses occur is not recommended, as it can lead to increased morbidity and mortality.

      The BNF recommends offering antiretroviral treatment to all HIV-positive patients, regardless of their CD4 count.

      A CD4 count below 200 cells/µL indicates progression to AIDS, and a count below 50 cells/µL may result in poor response to antiretroviral therapy.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      31.1
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about screening for haemochromatosis, as...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about screening for haemochromatosis, as his brother was diagnosed with the condition 3 years ago. The patient is asymptomatic and appears to have no signs of haemochromatosis. What is the most suitable test to conduct?

      Your Answer: Serum total iron-binding capacity

      Correct Answer: HFE gene analysis

      Explanation:

      When screening for haemochromatosis, the general population should undergo a transferrin saturation test, which involves checking the level of iron in the blood compared to the amount of transferrin. However, if the patient has a family member with haemochromatosis, the most appropriate test would be a genetic analysis of the HFE gene. In practice, this would be done in conjunction with iron studies.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old chef presents for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a left-sided Bell's...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old chef presents for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a left-sided Bell's palsy three months ago. The patient was treated with prednisolone and has seen some improvement in their facial weakness, but still experiences some weakness in their left facial muscles (power 4/5). The patient is interested in knowing if there are any additional tests or referrals that could be beneficial.

      What is the most suitable next step?

      Your Answer: Reassure that persistent symptoms always go away eventually

      Correct Answer: Reassure, but explain that if symptoms persist in four months' time you will refer to plastic surgery

      Explanation:

      If a patient with Bell’s palsy experiences residual weakness after six months, it is appropriate to refer them to a plastics specialist. It is important to provide reassurance and safety netting regarding the referral. However, ordering an MRI head is not necessary if the symptoms are consistent with Bell’s palsy and the patient has responded to treatment. Neurology referral is also not necessary unless there is doubt about the initial diagnosis or if there are other clinical features suggestive of stroke. It is important to monitor patients with persistent symptoms and refer them to a specialist if necessary. Simply reassuring the patient may not be appropriate in cases where specialist review is required.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test score.
      He says he is a bit worried about his memory. He is a retired lawyer. The three questions he got wrong related to short-term memory loss.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake a full assessment

      Correct Answer: Diagnose dementia

      Explanation:

      Management of Memory Loss in the Elderly

      MRCGP candidates are expected to have an understanding of the management of conditions commonly associated with old age, including memory loss. However, the correct course of management for memory loss would be to undertake a full assessment in the first instance. The abbreviated mental test is only a screening test and should not be used alone to form a diagnosis. If a significant problem is found, it is usual to refer to memory assessment services, which may be provided by a memory assessment clinic or community mental health teams. This should be the single point of referral for all people with a possible diagnosis of dementia. GPs would not normally initiate prescribing in this manner, although they may be involved in a shared care arrangement with specialist initiation and supervision of medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You receive a letter about one of your elderly patients who has been...

    Correct

    • You receive a letter about one of your elderly patients who has been prescribed methotrexate by one of the rheumatologists for severe rheumatoid arthritis. You have been asked to arrange regular blood tests every 2 weeks until treatment is stabilised. Which of the following groups of tests need to be performed each time?

      Your Answer: Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and liver function tests

      Explanation:

      It is important to keep a close watch on the levels of full blood count, urea and electrolytes, as well as liver function tests while using methotrexate.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      34.1
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman treated with hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman treated with hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening for Addison's disease, presents to the clinic with poor compliance.

      She feels that the hydrocortisone upsets her stomach and wants to switch to enteric coated prednisolone.

      What would be the appropriate corresponding daily dose of prednisolone?

      Your Answer: 15 mg daily

      Correct Answer: 5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Glucocorticoid Therapy: Hydrocortisone vs. Prednisolone

      Glucocorticoid therapy is commonly used for the suppression of various diseases. Hydrocortisone and prednisolone are two commonly used glucocorticoids, but they differ in their potency and activity. Hydrocortisone has a relatively high mineralocorticoid activity, which can cause fluid retention and make it unsuitable for long-term disease suppression. However, it can be used for adrenal replacement therapy and as a short-term emergency treatment. Its moderate anti-inflammatory potency also makes it useful as a topical corticosteroid for managing inflammatory skin conditions with fewer side effects.

      On the other hand, prednisolone and prednisone have predominantly glucocorticoid activity, making them the preferred choice for long-term disease suppression. The approximate equivalent glucocorticoid action of prednisolone to hydrocortisone is 4:1, meaning that 5 mg of prednisolone is equivalent to 20 mg of hydrocortisone. A glucocorticoid dose calculator can be used for other dose conversions.

      In summary, the choice of glucocorticoid therapy depends on the specific condition being treated and the desired outcome. Hydrocortisone is suitable for short-term and emergency use, while prednisolone is preferred for long-term disease suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      111.8
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and difficulty moving for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and difficulty moving for the past three days. She denies any chest or abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, sweating, or fever. This patient is known to be a private individual and can be difficult to deal with. She has no family except for a daughter whom she has not spoken to in 20 years. On examination, she appears pale and mildly short of breath, with crackles at both lung bases and an intermittent ventricular gallop. Her blood pressure is 126/70 mm Hg sitting and 119/65 mmHg standing. Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 90 g/L, plasma glucose of 5.3 mmol/L, urea of 7 mmol/L, serum creatinine of 100 µmol/L, sodium of 135 mmol/L, potassium of 4.0 mmol/L, and bicarbonate of 24 mmol/L. Despite your recommendation for hospital admission, she refuses and asks that you not contact her daughter. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Initiate proceedings to have her declared incompetent

      Correct Answer: Prescribe furosemide, 40 mg orally, and visit her again the next day

      Explanation:

      Managing Heart Failure Related Peripheral Oedema in Primary Care

      This patient is not incompetent and has clearly expressed her wishes, which should be respected. She has requested that her daughter not be contacted. Additionally, a physical examination has revealed heart failure, likely exacerbated by her anaemia. The most appropriate initial therapy would be diuretics, which should be prescribed and the patient closely monitored. While hospitalization may be suggested, it is important to approach this with sensitivity and attempt to gain the patient’s agreement. In managing heart failure related peripheral oedema in primary care, it is crucial to prioritize patient autonomy and provide appropriate medical interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      117.8
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  • Question 16 - You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been...

    Correct

    • You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been struggling to control his blood pressure. He is now taking valsartan 320 mg (his initial ACE inhibitor, Perindopril, was stopped due to persistent coughing), amlodipine 10 mg and chlorthalidone 12.5 mg. He is also taking aspirin and simvastatin for primary prevention. His blood pressure today is 158/91. His recent renal function (done for annual hypertension) showed a sodium of 138, a potassium of 4.7, a urea of 4.2 and a creatinine of 80. His eGFR is 67. He is otherwise well in himself.

      Which of the following options would be appropriate for him?

      Your Answer: Try ramipril

      Explanation:

      Managing Resistant Hypertension

      Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, often requiring up to four different Antihypertensive agents. If a person is already taking three Antihypertensive drugs and their blood pressure is still not controlled, increasing chlorthalidone to a maximum of 50 mg may be considered, provided that blood potassium levels are higher than 4.5mmol/L. However, caution should be exercised when using co-amilofruse, a potassium-sparing diuretic, in conjunction with valsartan, especially if the patient has a recent history of having a potassium level of 4.5 or higher.

      If a patient has previously developed a cough with an ACE inhibitor, switching to a different ACE inhibitor is unlikely to make any difference. In such cases, bisoprolol may be added if further diuretic treatment is not tolerated, is contraindicated, or is ineffective. It is important to seek specialist advice if secondary causes for hypertension are likely or if a patient’s blood pressure is not controlled on the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four Antihypertensive drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      71.4
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  • Question 17 - Samantha is a 95-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 95-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She comes to see you for a medication review. She is on a cocktail of various medications including medications for chronic pain, hypertension and COPD. You think it is important to reduce her medications.

      Which of the following tools can assist you with this?

      Your Answer: STOPP tool

      Explanation:

      The STOPP tool is designed to pinpoint medications that pose a greater risk than therapeutic benefits in specific conditions.

      To identify medications that can be discontinued in elderly patients, healthcare professionals use the STOPP tool.

      The START tool assists doctors in determining which medications are appropriate for older adults.

      In the UK, the Yellow Card scheme enables the recording of medication side effects.

      The Rockwood frailty scale is utilized to identify frailty in older individuals.

      Understanding Multimorbidity: Definition, Prevalence, Risk Factors, Complications, Assessment, and Management

      Multimorbidity is a growing public health issue that refers to the presence of two or more long-term health conditions. In 2017, NICE issued guidelines to identify and manage multimorbidity among patients. The most common comorbid conditions include hypertension, depression, anxiety, chronic pain, prostate disorders, thyroid disorders, and coronary artery disease. Risk factors for multimorbidity include increasing age, female sex, low socioeconomic status, tobacco and alcohol usage, lack of physical activity, and poor nutrition and obesity.

      Complications of multimorbidity include decreased quality of life and life expectancy, increased treatment burden, mental health issues, polypharmacy, and negative impact on carers’ welfare. The assessment of multimorbidity involves identifying patients who may benefit from a multimorbidity approach, establishing the extent of disease burden, investigating how treatment burden affects daily activities, assessing social circumstances and health literacy, and evaluating frailty.

      Management of multimorbidity aims to reduce treatment burden and optimise care. This involves maximising the benefits of existing treatments, offering alternative follow-up arrangements, reducing the number of high-risk medications, considering a ‘bisphosphonate holiday,’ using screening tools such as STOPP/START, stopping the use of medications in patients with peptic ulcer disease, developing an individualised management plan, promoting self-management, and supporting carers and families of patients. Regular medication reviews are recommended to ensure that treatments are optimised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      26.1
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  • Question 18 - A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part of a 'well man' check. His full blood count comes back with a haematocrit of 0.59 (Normal: 0.35-0.55) and a haemoglobin level of 182 g/l (Normal: 135-175 g/l).
      Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycythemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Polycythemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the body to produce too many red blood cells. A person with this condition may experience generalized pruritus, splenomegaly, thrombocytosis, and neutrophil leukocytosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood test for a specific mutation (JAK2) present in more than 95% of people with polycythemia vera is necessary.

      Without treatment, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera is only 6-18 months. This is due to the high risk of thrombosis, which can lead to ischaemic stroke and myocardial infarction. Venous and arterial thrombosis can also cause other complications such as pulmonary emboli, renal failure, intestinal ischaemia, and peripheral arterial emboli. Bleeding is also a common complication, usually resulting from vascular occlusion due to thrombosis or hyperviscosity. Acute leukaemia, myelofibrosis, and peptic ulcer disease are also possible complications.

      However, with treatment to maintain a normal haematocrit, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera can increase to an average of 20 years. While this is still reduced compared to the general population, it is a significant improvement. It is important for individuals with this condition to receive proper medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      52.6
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old female presents at home with a few days of lower cramping...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents at home with a few days of lower cramping abdominal pain and some scanty brownish PV discharge. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago, and she typically has regular 28/5 cycles. She is sexually active but doesn't use any regular contraception.

      Upon examination, she is haemodynamically unstable and has generalised abdominal tenderness. A pregnancy test is not available, but her partner is willing to go to the Pharmacy to obtain one if necessary.

      What is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer: Organise an urgent serum βHCG blood test

      Correct Answer: Call 999

      Explanation:

      Urgent Action Required for Haemodynamically Unstable Patient

      The most appropriate course of action in this case is to call 999 and request an ambulance. This patient may have an ectopic pregnancy or may be miscarrying, and is therefore unstable and requires immediate resuscitation and transfer to hospital. While waiting for the ambulance, an attempt at IV cannulation and fluid resuscitation should be made.

      Arranging an assessment at the EPAU within 24 hours is inappropriate, as the patient is haemodynamically unstable and requires urgent admission via ambulance. Conducting a pelvic exam is not appropriate as this patient is haemodynamically unstable and has abdominal tenderness. Similarly, conducting a urine pregnancy test or taking blood for a serum βHCG would only cause unnecessary delay.

      It is crucial to prioritize the patient’s immediate medical needs and take urgent action to ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
      Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.

      Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease stage 2

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      16.8
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  • Question 21 - A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.

    On further questioning his symptoms started about...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.

      On further questioning his symptoms started about two months ago. He has been getting epigastric discomfort and heartburn; he also feels a little bit more breathless than usual and puts this down to being a heavy smoker for the last forty years. He doesn't take any regular medications and has not used any over-the-counter remedies recently. He thinks he's lost some weight.

      On examination, he looks a little pale and has some angular stomatitis.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer: Start a proton pump inhibitor and review him in four to six weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent gastroscopy

      Explanation:

      Identifying ‘Alarm’ Symptoms in Primary Care Patients with Dyspepsia

      When evaluating patients with dyspepsia in primary care, it is crucial to identify any ‘alarm’ symptoms or ‘red flags’ that may indicate a more serious underlying condition. By taking a targeted history and performing a thorough examination, healthcare providers can determine which patients require urgent referral for further investigation and which can be managed in the community.

      In the case of a male patient over 55-years-old with persistent unexplained dyspepsia, signs of anaemia (such as shortness of breath, pallor, and angular stomatitis), and a history of smoking, these ‘alarm’ features suggest the need for urgent referral for endoscopy to investigate the possibility of upper gastrointestinal (GI) cancer. The June 2015 update recommends a 2-week referral for patients over 55 with weight loss, abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. By identifying and acting on ‘alarm’ symptoms, healthcare providers can ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potentially serious conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      31.8
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  • Question 22 - A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with extreme tiredness and fevers. The GP arranges some urgent tests as he is concerned that it may be a malignancy.

      Which of the following is the most common childhood cancer?

      Your Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Childhood Cancer Incidence

      Leukaemia is the most prevalent form of childhood cancer, accounting for 31% of all cases. Brain and central nervous system tumours follow closely behind at 21%, while lymphoma, neuroblastoma, and Wilms’ tumours make up 10%, 7%, and 5% respectively. It is important to understand the incidence rates of childhood cancers in order to better allocate resources for research and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      23.8
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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents with a significant worsening of his plaque psoriasis on his elbows and knees over the past two weeks. His medications have been recently altered at the cardiology clinic. Which medication is most likely to have exacerbated his psoriasis?

      Your Answer: Nicorandil

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Plaque psoriasis is known to worsen with the use of beta-blockers.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 36-year-old homosexual man presents to the local genitourinary clinic with a solitary...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old homosexual man presents to the local genitourinary clinic with a solitary painless penile ulcer and painful inguinal lymphadenopathy. He also reports rectal pain and tenesmus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum

      Explanation:

      When it comes to genital ulcers, herpes is more common and typically causes pain. Chancroid, on the other hand, is less common and also painful. However, if the genital ulcer is painless, it is more likely to be caused by syphilis rather than lymphogranuloma venereum.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A woman in her 30s undergoes serum alpha feto-protein level testing during pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A woman in her 30s undergoes serum alpha feto-protein level testing during pregnancy. What is the correlation between a low alpha-feto protein level and this condition?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      AFP levels are elevated in cases of neural tube defects and reduced in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein that is created by the fetus during its development. When the levels of AFP are higher than normal, it may indicate the presence of certain conditions such as neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly), abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis), multiple pregnancy, Down’s syndrome, trisomy 18, and maternal diabetes mellitus. On the other hand, decreased levels of AFP may also be significant and should be further investigated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      33.8
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  • Question 26 - You see a 54-year old gentleman as an emergency appointment one afternoon.
    He...

    Correct

    • You see a 54-year old gentleman as an emergency appointment one afternoon.
      He suffers with extensive psoriasis and uses a variety of topical agents. He was recently given some potent topical steroid to apply to the most severely affected areas which has not helped. Over the last few days his skin has become inflamed and he has felt generally unwell.
      On examination, he has widespread generalised erythema affecting his entire body. He has a mild pyrexia and a pulse rate of 106 bpm.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as an emergency

      Explanation:

      Erythrodermic Psoriasis: A Dermatological Emergency

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a severe form of psoriasis that requires immediate medical attention. It is characterized by widespread whole body erythema and systemic unwellness, which can lead to complications such as hypothermia and heart failure. This condition can also be caused by other dermatological conditions or medications such as lithium or anti-malarials.

      Injudicious use of steroids with rapid withdrawal can also trigger erythroderma. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention as soon as possible to prevent skin failure. The correct course of action is immediate hospital admission for supervised treatment. Dermatologists recommend close monitoring and management of erythrodermic psoriasis to avoid life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 6-year-old girl was admitted to hospital the previous day following a 3-day...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl was admitted to hospital the previous day following a 3-day history of a diarrhoeal illness, which had then developed into bloody diarrhoea. The mother telephones the clinic to say she is very ill and has developed blood spots in the skin and had nosebleeds. She says they are also worried about her kidneys.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Guide for General Practitioners

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a serious condition that can occur in response to another illness or trauma. In DIC, the coagulation mechanism is activated inappropriately and in a diffuse way, leading to thrombosis or, more commonly, haemorrhage due to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. DIC is often fatal and associated with organ failure, with bleeding from at least three unrelated sites being typical in the acute form.

      DIC can be triggered by a variety of factors, including infections such as gastroenteritis (e.g. Escherichia coli O157), malignancy (especially leukaemia), and septicaemia (e.g. meningococcal septicaemia). While bleeding is a feature in two-thirds of cases, renal involvement occurs in a quarter of cases, and limb ischaemia can lead to loss of digits or limbs.

      As a general practitioner, it is important to have some knowledge of DIC to respond to any questions that may arise. When presented with a patient with severe and widespread bleeding with kidney injury, DIC is more likely to be the cause than other conditions such as acute leukaemia, haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, or meningococcal septicaemia.

      By understanding DIC and its potential triggers and symptoms, general practitioners can better support their patients and provide appropriate referrals for further treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use was found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use was found to have abnormal liver function tests. His hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) test is reported as positive.
      What is the most accurate interpretation of this finding?

      Your Answer: He has an acute hepatitis B infection

      Correct Answer: He has either acute hepatitis B infection or one of the chronic forms of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Surface Antigen and Antibodies

      The hepatitis B virus is surrounded by a coating called the surface antigen (HBsAg). If this antigen is present, it indicates a hepatitis B infection, which can be either acute or chronic. The infected person can also infect others. It usually takes 4-12 weeks for HBsAg to appear after infection. When the surface antigens disappear and surface antibodies (anti-HBs) appear, the infection is considered cleared, which typically happens within 4 months of symptoms appearing. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either an infection or immunization. Chronic hepatitis B is diagnosed when HBsAg is present for more than 6 months. Patients with chronic active hepatitis B have persistent liver inflammation and are at risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer. Patients with the inactive form usually remain asymptomatic and have less risk of complications but remain infectious. Understanding the role of surface antigen and antibodies is crucial in diagnosing and managing hepatitis B infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for follow up; he recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for follow up; he recently suffered a myocardial infarction (MI). He is a non-smoker with no past medical history of note; he is not diabetic. His father died of a MI aged 43.
      His total cholesterol is 10.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.10–4.11 mmol/l). His triglycerides are just above the normal range, while his high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is normal. He has a markedly raised non-HDL cholesterol.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s raised cholesterol?

      Your Answer: Familial combined hyperlipidaemia

      Correct Answer: Heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      There are several types of genetic dyslipidaemia that can cause high levels of cholesterol and/or triglycerides in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. One such condition is heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia, which is caused by mutations in the LDLR gene or the gene for apolipoprotein B. This can result in extremely high levels of cholesterol and VLDL, and may lead to premature coronary heart disease. Familial combined hyperlipidaemia is another common genetic dyslipidaemia that can cause moderate-to-severe mixed hyperlipidaemia and may be polygenic in origin. Familial hypertriglyceridaemia is an autosomal-dominant condition that causes elevated triglyceride levels and is associated with premature coronary disease. Remnant hyperlipidaemia is an autosomal-recessive trait that can cause high levels of both cholesterol and triglycerides, and is often associated with obesity, glucose intolerance, and hyperuricaemia. Finally, there are several secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia, including certain medical conditions, medications, pregnancy, obesity, and alcohol abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      76.8
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man has a six week history of dry cough, weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has a six week history of dry cough, weight loss of 1 stone and generalised fatigue. He has smoked 15 cigarettes per day for 45 years. He had a chest x ray done a week ago which reports a suspicious mass in the left lung with hilar enlargement ? lung cancer. The radiologist recommends urgent referral.

      You explain the findings to the patient and his wife and discuss the need for referral. The patient states that he has private medical insurance to cover out-patient appointments and he also has a close friend who is a general physician. He requests private referral to him as he knows he will be seen within a few days.

      There are other options for referral in your area. You have a district general hospital nearby where a respiratory physician does a clinic once a month, however the last clinic has only just been held. You have a community hospital nearby with a general physician visiting every two weeks. The tertiary referral hospital is some distance away but this is where the specialist lung cancer multi-disciplinary team are based and the patient will be seen within two weeks.

      The patient would rather be seen as near to home as possible.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: NHS referral to the respiratory physician at the district general hospital

      Correct Answer: NHS referral to multi-disciplinary lung cancer team at the tertiary hospital

      Explanation:

      Referral for Cancer Symptoms

      NICE guidance recommends that patients with symptoms suggestive of cancer should be referred to a team specializing in the management of that particular type of cancer. Referral to a private physician or a general physician at a community hospital doesn’t fulfill this requirement for specialized care. While a respiratory physician at a district general hospital may be an option, the potential delay of more than four weeks is not ideal. Therefore, despite the greater distance to travel, the best course of action is to refer the patient to a specialist team for optimal management of their cancer symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      70.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/3) 33%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (0/2) 0%
Haematology (2/3) 67%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Passmed