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  • Question 1 - At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed...

    Incorrect

    • At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed during bronchoscopy. Can you determine the vertebral level where this lesion is located?

      Your Answer: T3/4

      Correct Answer: T4/5

      Explanation:

      The Vertebral Levels of the Trachea and Suprasternal Notch

      The trachea is a flexible tube that starts at the C7 vertebral level in the lower neck and ends at the T4/5 vertebral level in the mediastinum. At this level, it splits into the right and left main bronchi, which can be seen during bronchoscopy at the carina. The suprasternal notch is located at the T2/3 vertebral level. None of the other choices provided are correct for the vertebral levels of the trachea and suprasternal notch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis visits her GP complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis visits her GP complaining of issues with her right eye and right shoulder pain. Upon examination, the GP notes ptosis on the right side, a small pupil, and narrowing of the palpebral fissure with right lid lag. The left eye appears normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. The patient has a 30-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes daily and consuming 12 units of alcohol per week. She has also been taking paracetamol and ibuprofen for her shoulder pain. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with Horner’s syndrome, including miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping eyelid), and enophthalmos (sunken eye). There may also be anhydrosis (lack of sweating) present. This could be indicative of a Pancoast tumor on the lung, which can infiltrate the brachial plexus and cause shoulder pain. It is important to note the patient’s smoking history in this case. Multiple sclerosis is not likely to be the cause of these symptoms. Argyll-Robertson pupil, Holmes-Adie pupil, and oculomotor nerve palsy are not applicable to this case.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis and primary sclerosing cholangitis visits her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis and primary sclerosing cholangitis visits her GP complaining of colicky abdominal pain and pruritus that has persisted despite taking ursodeoxycholic acid. She also reports unintentional weight loss of 5kg over two months. During the examination, the patient appears mildly jaundiced and a mass is palpable in the right hypochondrium. What screening test can be performed to detect the probable malignancy?

      Your Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

      Correct Answer: CA 19-9

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cholangiocarcinoma

      Cholangiocarcinoma, also known as bile duct cancer, is a type of cancer that affects the bile ducts. The main risk factor for this type of cancer is primary sclerosing cholangitis. Symptoms of cholangiocarcinoma include persistent biliary colic, anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. A palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, known as the Courvoisier sign, may also be present. Additionally, periumbilical lymphadenopathy, known as Sister Mary Joseph nodes, and left supraclavicular adenopathy, known as Virchow node, may be seen. CA 19-9 levels are often used to detect cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and risk factors in order to detect and treat cholangiocarcinoma early.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man from South Africa presents to the clinic with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man from South Africa presents to the clinic with complaints of worsening vision after starting tuberculosis treatment. Which medication is most likely responsible for his decreased visual acuity?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Ethambutol is a frequent cause of optic neuritis in patients, while Isoniazid can also lead to optic neuritis but is not as prevalent as ethambutol.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant for the past two days. He reports feeling like he has the flu and his wife says he has had a fever for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is 38.1ºC, blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and he is tender in the right upper quadrant. Additionally, his sclera have a yellow-tinge. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice, and pain in the right upper quadrant indicates Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which is commonly associated with ascending cholangitis. This combination of symptoms is not typically seen in cases of acute cholecystitis.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being found confused by...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being found confused by her partner. On direct questioning, she tells you that she has taken an overdose of 56 tablets of 20 mg amitriptyline around 12 hours ago.

      On examination, she is alert with Glasgow coma scale 15. The abbreviated mental test score is 8/10. Observations are as follows: respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, pulse 160 beats per minute, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, oxygen sats 98% on air and temperature 37.8 ºC. Examination reveals a regular pulse, heart sounds are normal and the chest is clear. There is hypertonia bilaterally and ophthalmoplegia. Both pupils are dilated.

      Na 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 3.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 60 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Venous blood gas reveals a pH 7.38. ECG reveals a sinus tachycardia at rate 160 bpm, PRc 160 ms, QRS 170ms.

      What initial treatment will you initiate?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis

      Correct Answer: IV sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      88.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Various cardiac diseases necessitate the use of pacemakers to maintain regular heartbeats and...

    Incorrect

    • Various cardiac diseases necessitate the use of pacemakers to maintain regular heartbeats and sustain the patient's life. The following are three types of pacemakers, labeled 1-3: AAI, VVI, and DDD. Can you correctly match each pacemaker to the condition it is typically used to treat?

      Your Answer: AAI – AF; VVI – sinus node dysfunction; DDD – first-degree heart block

      Correct Answer: AAI – sinus node dysfunction; VVI – AF; DDD – second-degree heart block

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pacemaker Coding and Indications

      Pacemakers are electronic devices that are implanted in the chest to regulate the heartbeat. They are used to treat a variety of heart conditions, including sinus node dysfunction, atrial fibrillation (AF), and heart block. Pacemakers are coded based on the chambers they pace, sense, and respond to, as well as their ability to modulate heart rate and provide multisite pacing.

      AAI pacemakers are used to pace the atria in patients with sinus node dysfunction and intact AV conduction. VVI pacemakers are used in patients with chronic atrial impairment, such as AF. DDD pacemakers are used to pace both the atria and ventricles in patients with second-degree heart block.

      It is important to note that AAI pacemakers would not be effective in treating ventricular systolic dysfunction, and DDD pacemakers cannot be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome. However, pacemakers can be used in long QT syndrome if clinically necessary, and DDD pacing may be appropriate for some patients with first-degree heart block.

      In summary, understanding pacemaker coding and indications is crucial for selecting the appropriate device for each patient’s unique heart condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue. He reports experiencing 'abdominal complaints' for the past 6 years, without relief from any treatments. Upon examination, he appears severely pale and has glossitis. He has been having bowel movements five to six times per day. The only significant history he has is that he had to undergo surgery at the age of 4 to remove a swallowed toy. Blood tests show the following results: Hemoglobin - 98 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), Vitamin B12 - 60 pmol/l (normal range: 160-900 pmol/l), Folate - 51 μg/l (normal range: 2.0-11.0 μg/l), and Cholesterol - 2.7 mmol/l (normal range: <5.2 mmol/l). What is the appropriate definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Gluten free diet

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)

      Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, chronic diarrhea, and megaloblastic anemia. It is often caused by a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, such as decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility. Patients who have had intestinal surgery are also at an increased risk of developing SIBO.

      The most effective treatment for SIBO is a course of antibiotics, such as metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, or rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.

      In contrast, a gluten-free diet is the treatment for coeliac disease, which presents with malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia. Steroids are not an appropriate treatment for SIBO or coeliac disease, as they can suppress local immunity and allow further bacterial overgrowth.

      Vitamin B12 replacement is necessary for patients with SIBO who have megaloblastic anemia due to B12 malabsorption and metabolism by bacteria. There is no indication of intestinal tuberculosis in this patient, but in suspected cases, intestinal biopsy may be needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 47-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her newly...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis. The clinician employs a scoring system to assist in the patient's treatment plan.

      What is the probable scoring system utilized?

      Your Answer: GAD-7

      Correct Answer: DAS28

      Explanation:

      The measurement of disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis is done using the DAS28 score. This score evaluates the level of disease activity by assessing 28 joints, hence the name DAS28, where DAS stands for disease activity score.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies

      The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder has been consistently taking her medication during...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder has been consistently taking her medication during pregnancy. During her recent ultrasound, her baby was found to have characteristics linked to spina bifida. Which medication is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      The Teratogenic Effects of Certain Medications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, certain medications can have teratogenic effects on the developing fetus. One such medication is sodium valproate, which is an anticonvulsant and bipolar disorder treatment. Its use during pregnancy is contraindicated due to its association with congenital malformations and neurodevelopmental disorders, such as spina bifida, congenital heart defects, cleft lip, and neonatal bleeding disorders. If sodium valproate must be used during pregnancy, the lowest effective dose should be administered and additional monitoring is required.

      Lithium therapy during pregnancy has also been linked to an increased risk of congenital heart disease, stillbirth, and early infant deaths, as well as increased risk of toxicity for both the mother and fetus. Olanzapine, on the other hand, has been found to have the same risk of congenital defects as the general population.

      Bupropion has been associated with an increased risk of congenital heart defects if used during pregnancy. However, studies suggest that carbamazepine has one of the lowest rates of teratogenicity when used during pregnancy. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of medication use during pregnancy and to explore alternative options whenever possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 51-year-old woman with bipolar affective disorder is brought to casualty by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman with bipolar affective disorder is brought to casualty by her daughter after being found at home with two empty bottles of her prescribed medication (lithium) by her side. She is believed to have taken the tablets several hours ago. No other tablets were found at the scene.
      She is Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) 14/15 and is haemodynamically stable.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Serum lithium level 5.9 mmol/l Therapeutic range: 0.4–1.0 mol/l
      Haemoglobin 123 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 199 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 28 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 550 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Which one of the following is the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Oral charcoal

      Correct Answer: Commence haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Lithium Overdose

      Lithium is a drug that should only be prescribed on specialist advice due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity. Patients on lithium require monitoring to ensure their serum levels stay within the desired range. In cases of neurological symptoms, renal impairment, or a lithium concentration above 7.5 mmol/l, urgent haemodialysis is necessary.

      Oral charcoal is not effective in preventing absorption of lithium in the stomach several hours after ingestion. IV sodium bicarbonate is not useful in treating lithium overdose. In mild cases of toxicity, discontinuing the drug and providing fluids may be sufficient, but diuretics should be avoided. IV immunoglobulin has no role in treating lithium overdose. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if lithium overdose is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb)...

    Incorrect

    • A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays suddenly pierced his chest. The tip of the barb pierced the right ventricle and the man instinctively removed it in the water. When he was brought onto the boat, there was absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      What was the most likely diagnosis for the young marine biologist who was snorkelling among giant stingrays and had the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays pierce his chest, causing the tip of the barb to pierce the right ventricle? Upon being brought onto the boat, the young man exhibited absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      Your Answer: Stroke

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with chest trauma

      When evaluating a patient with chest trauma, it is important to consider various potential diagnoses based on the clinical presentation and mechanism of injury. Here are some possible explanations for different symptoms:

      – Cardiac tamponade: If a projectile penetrates the fibrous pericardium, blood can accumulate in the pericardial cavity and compress the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential death.
      – Deep vein thrombosis: This condition involves the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, often in the leg. However, it does not typically cause the symptoms described in this case.
      – Stroke: A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, usually due to a blockage or rupture of an artery. This is not likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
      – Pulmonary embolism: If a clot from a deep vein thrombosis travels to the lungs and obstructs blood flow, it can cause sudden death. However, given the history of trauma, other possibilities should be considered first.
      – Haemothorax: This refers to the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity around a lung. While it can cause respiratory distress and chest pain, it does not typically affect jugular veins or heart sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain and pain in his left shoulder. He had spent the previous 2 h shoveling snow, but had to stop because of the pain. He admits to several prior episodes of chest pain under similar circumstances. No ST segment changes are seen on the electrocardiogram (ECG). The patient is given sublingual nitroglycerin, which relieves his pain, and is admitted for an overnight stay. The following morning, serum cardiac enzymes are within normal limits and no ECG changes are seen.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prinzmetal variant angina

      Correct Answer: Stable (typical) angina

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Angina

      When a patient presents with chest pain, it is important to differentiate between the different types of angina. In the case of a patient who has experienced chest pain triggered by heavy physical labor without characteristic ECG changes, and without rise in serum cardiac enzymes, it is likely that they are experiencing stable (typical) angina. This is not the patient’s first episode, and the pain is not becoming progressively worse with less severe triggers, ruling out unstable (crescendo) angina. Additionally, the fact that the pain was triggered by physical activity rather than occurring at rest rules out Prinzmetal variant angina. Subendocardial infarction and transmural infarction can also be ruled out as both would result in elevated cardiac enzyme levels and characteristic ECG changes, such as ST depression or ST elevation and Q waves, respectively. Therefore, based on the patient’s presentation, stable (typical) angina is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      65.7
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has worsened over the past 2 days. She also reported feeling ‘a little run down’ with a sore throat a week ago. She has history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. She reports diffuse chest pain that feels better when she leans forward. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.94 °C and a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg. Her heart rate is 76 bpm. A friction rub is heard on cardiac auscultation, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates ST segment elevation in nearly every lead. Her physical examination and blood tests are otherwise within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of her chest pain?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Correct Answer: Post-viral complication

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis as a Post-Viral Complication: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium, can occur as a post-viral complication. Patients typically experience diffuse chest pain that improves when leaning forward, and a friction rub may be heard on cardiac auscultation. Diffuse ST segment elevations on ECG can be mistaken for myocardial infarction. In this case, the patient reported recent viral symptoms and then developed acute pericardial symptoms.

      While systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can cause pericarditis, other symptoms such as rash, myalgia, or joint pain would be expected, along with a positive anti-nuclear antibodies test. Uraemia can also cause pericarditis, but elevated blood urea nitrogen would be present, and this patient has no history of kidney disease. Dressler syndrome, or post-myocardial infarction pericarditis, can cause diffuse ST elevations, but does not represent transmural infarction. Chest radiation can also cause pericarditis, but this patient has no history of radiation exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are contacted by the nurse in charge of the ward to evaluate...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted by the nurse in charge of the ward to evaluate a patient who has been recently admitted from her nursing home with pneumonia and confusion. While bathing her, the nurses have observed a pressure sore near her sacrum and have requested for you to examine it. Upon assessment, you discover a 4 cm circular wound lateral to the sacrum with some surrounding redness. It is roughly 1-2 cm deep. The wound bed shows subcutaneous fat with some slough, but no bone, muscle, or tendon is exposed. What grade of pressure sore would be consistent with this?

      Your Answer: EPUAP Grade/Stage I

      Correct Answer: EPUAP Grade/Stage III

      Explanation:

      Understanding EPUAP Pressure Sore Grades/Stages

      Pressure sores, also known as pressure ulcers, are a common problem for individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility. The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel (EPUAP) has established a grading system to classify pressure sores based on their severity.

      Grade I pressure sores are the mildest form and are characterised by non-blanching erythema, which means the skin is red but not broken. Grade II pressure sores are shallow open ulcers with a pink wound bed. Grade III pressure sores involve full thickness tissue loss with exposed subcutaneous fat, but not muscle or tendon. These can be shallow or deep and may include some undermining of the wound edges. Grade IV pressure sores are the most severe and involve exposed bone, muscle, or tendon.

      It is important to understand the different grades of pressure sores to properly assess and treat them. Early detection and intervention can prevent the progression of pressure sores and improve the overall health and well-being of individuals at risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on her forearms. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on her forearms. She has recently noticed a white lacy intra-oral lesion.
      What is the most likely cause of this?

      Your Answer: Ringworm

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Lichen Planus, Erythema Multiforme, Tinea Versicolour, Psoriasis, and Ringworm

      Lichen planus is an inflammatory skin condition that affects both cutaneous and mucosal surfaces. It is characterized by flat-topped plaques and papules with a purple hue and white striae. Topical steroids and immunomodulators are used to treat it, as it can increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated.

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that presents with targetoid lesions with a central depression, usually starting on the acral extensor surfaces. It can be caused by medications, infections, or underlying conditions such as sarcoidosis and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

      Tinea versicolour, also known as pityriasis versicolor, is a fungal skin infection that causes pale or dark patches on the arms, neck, and trunk. It does not involve mucosal surfaces.

      Psoriasis is an autoimmune chronic skin condition that presents with erythematous plaques with overlying grey scale on the extensor surfaces of extremities. It is not associated with intra-oral mucosal lesions.

      Ringworm, also known as tinea corporis, is a fungal skin infection that causes erythematosus, scaly patches on the skin surface of the trunk, back, and extremities. It is not usually seen on the scalp, groin, palms, and soles. The patches progressively enlarge and worsen, and can lead to the formation of pustules or vesicles. Following central resolution, the lesions can remain annular.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.6
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  • Question 17 - A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.
      Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and displays obvious signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.
      What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.

      Capgras syndrome is a delusional disorder where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.

      Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that affects patients with significant vision loss. These patients experience vivid visual hallucinations, which can be simple or complex. However, they are aware that these hallucinations are not real and do not experience any other forms of hallucinations or delusions.

      De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may also perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.

      The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old woman goes for her first ultrasound and discovers that she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman goes for her first ultrasound and discovers that she is carrying monochorionic twins. Her GP advises her to inform them immediately if she experiences sudden abdominal distension or shortness of breath. What is the complication of monochorionic multiple pregnancy that the GP is referring to?

      Your Answer: Umbilical cord compression

      Correct Answer: Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Multiple Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Multiple pregnancies, such as twins and triplets, have different incidences. Twins occur in 1 out of 105 pregnancies, while triplets occur in 1 out of 10,000 pregnancies. Twins can be either dizygotic or monozygotic, with the former being more common at 80%. Monoamniotic monozygotic twins have higher risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, and prematurity. Twin-to-twin transfusions may occur, which require laser ablation of interconnecting vessels.

      Dizygotic twins are becoming more common due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilization, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean. Antenatal complications may arise, such as polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and anemia, while fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations.

      During labor, complications may occur, such as postpartum hemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement. Management includes rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labor, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most twins are induced at 38-40 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has come to her GP complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has come to her GP complaining of sudden lower back pain. Her medical history does not indicate any alarming symptoms and her neurological examination appears normal.
      What initial pain relief medication should the GP suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of lower back pain, it is recommended to offer NSAIDS like ibuprofen or naproxen as the first line of treatment. Codeine with or without paracetamol can be used as a second option. In case of muscle spasm, benzodiazepines may be considered. However, NICE does not recommend the use of topical NSAIDS for lower back pain.

      Management of Non-Specific Lower Back Pain

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, NICE updated their guidelines on the management of non-specific lower back pain. The guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for back pain. Lumbar spine x-rays are not recommended, and MRI should only be offered to patients where malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected.

      Patients with non-specific back pain are advised to stay physically active and exercise. NSAIDs are recommended as the first-line analgesia, and proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs. For patients with sciatica, NICE guidelines on neuropathic pain should be followed.

      Other possible treatments include exercise programmes and manual therapy, but only as part of a treatment package including exercise, with or without psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anaesthetic and steroid may also be considered for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the management of non-specific lower back pain involves encouraging self-management, staying physically active, and using NSAIDs as the first-line analgesia. Other treatments may be considered as part of a treatment package, depending on the severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman is suffering from a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is suffering from a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is experiencing distress due to the foul-smelling discharge from the affected breast. This is causing significant social embarrassment. What is the best treatment option to alleviate this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral metronidazole or gel

      Explanation:

      Managing Foul Odors in Palliative Care

      In palliative care, patients with fungating tumors may experience unpleasant smells caused by anaerobic organisms. Metronidazole is a medication that can help improve these odors by targeting the infecting organisms. Additionally, charcoal dressings can be used to absorb malodorous substances and provide some relief to patients.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with prescribing in palliative care. The British National Formulary (BNF) offers a helpful section on this topic, including introductory information that is often tested in exams. By utilizing these resources and strategies, healthcare providers can effectively manage foul odors and improve the quality of life for their patients in palliative care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Practice
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man visits his general practitioner (GP), as he is concerned that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his general practitioner (GP), as he is concerned that he may have inherited a heart condition. He is fit and well and has no history of any medical conditions. However, his 28-year-old brother has recently been diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) after collapsing when he was playing football. The patient’s father died suddenly when he was 42, which the family now thinks might have been due to the same condition.
      Which of the following signs is most likely to be found in a patient with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur decreased by squatting

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ejection Systolic Murmur in Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy: Decreased by Squatting

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition characterized by asymmetrical hypertrophy of both ventricles, with the septum hypertrophying and causing an outflow obstruction of the left ventricle. This obstruction leads to an ejection systolic murmur and reduced cardiac output. However, interestingly, this murmur can be decreased by squatting, which is not typical for most heart murmurs.

      Squatting affects murmurs by increasing afterload and preload, which usually makes heart murmurs louder. However, in HCM, the murmur intensity is decreased due to increased left ventricular size and reduced outflow obstruction. Other findings on examination may include a jerky pulse and a double apex beat.

      While HCM is often asymptomatic, it can present with dyspnea, angina, and syncope. Patients are also at risk of sudden cardiac death, most commonly due to ventricular arrhythmias. Poor prognostic factors include syncope, family history of sudden death, onset of symptoms at a young age, ventricular tachycardia on Holter monitoring, abnormal blood pressure response during exercise, and septal thickness greater than 3 cm on echocardiogram.

      In summary, understanding the ejection systolic murmur in HCM and its unique response to squatting can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss. He reports no eye redness, ocular trauma, or headaches. The loss of vision began from the outside and progressed inward, accompanied by flashes and floaters. He wears corrective glasses and sometimes contact lenses, but he cannot recall his prescription. What characteristic raises the likelihood of this patient developing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myopia

      Explanation:

      Myopia increases the likelihood of retinal detachment, which should be suspected if a patient experiences gradual vision loss starting from the periphery and moving towards the centre. This may be accompanied by the sensation of a curtain or veil descending over their vision, preceded by flashes and floaters caused by the vitreous humour tugging at the retina. Myopia elongates the eyeball, stretching the retina and making it more susceptible to tearing and detachment. Astigmatism, a refractive error caused by an irregularly shaped eyeball, does not increase the risk of RD. Contact lens use is not associated with RD but may increase the risk of infection. Hypermetropia, or farsightedness, does not increase the risk of RD but is associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, which presents with severe ocular pain, visual blurring, a hard and red eye, and systemic symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old woman presents for review of her chronic kidney disease.
    Her investigation results...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents for review of her chronic kidney disease.
      Her investigation results show:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Calcium 1.70 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Potassium 6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Phosphate 2.5 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Urea 80 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 400 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      What is the mechanism for the low calcium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced vitamin D hydroxylation

      Explanation:

      This patient has hypocalcaemia due to chronic renal failure, which reduces the production of calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D that plays a crucial role in calcium absorption. Calcitriol increases the permeability of tight junctions in the small intestine, allowing for the absorption of calcium through both passive and active pathways. In the active pathway, calcitriol stimulates the production of calbindin, which helps transport calcium into the enteral cells. However, in chronic kidney disease, the hydroxylation of calcidiol to calcitriol is impaired, leading to reduced calcium absorption and hypocalcaemia. Other potential causes of hypocalcaemia, such as increased tubular loss of calcium or a parathyroid tumour, have been ruled out in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department after a road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department after a road traffic collision (RTC). During examination, he is found to be tachycardic at 120 bpm, sweating profusely, and pale. His right side has decreased breath sounds and chest movement, and his trachea is deviated to the left. You are requested to insert a large-bore cannula.
      Where would you position it in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds

      Explanation:

      To treat a tension pneumothorax, emergency intervention is required. A large-bore cannula should be inserted into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side where breath sounds are decreased to relieve pressure in the pleural space. This is the correct location for needle decompression. However, it is important to note that definitive management involves inserting an intercostal chest drain. Inserting a needle into the fifth intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is incorrect for needle decompression, but it is where the chest drain will be inserted afterwards. Inserting a needle into the second intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side with normal breath sounds is the correct space, but the wrong location and wrong side of the body. It would be challenging to insert a needle into this location in reality. Inserting a needle into the third intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the incorrect intercostal space. Similarly, inserting a needle into the sixth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the chest with decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the wrong intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old woman weighing 70kg is brought to the emergency department with burns...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman weighing 70kg is brought to the emergency department with burns covering 25% of her body surface area.

      Using the Parkland formula, calculate the volume of Hartmann's solution that is recommended to be given in the first 8 hours after the burn.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3.5L

      Explanation:

      To calculate the amount of Hartmann’s solution to be administered in the first 24 hours after a burn, multiply the body surface area by the weight in kilograms. For example, if the body surface area is 4 and the weight is 70 kg, the calculation would be 4 x 25 x 70 = 7000 ml. Half of this amount should be given within the first 8 hours after the burn, which equals 3.5 liters.

      Fluid Resuscitation for Burns

      Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.

      The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.

      It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 26 - A 51-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department as a trauma alert, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department as a trauma alert, with knife stab wounds in the right arm and thorax. On arrival, he has a heart rate of 120 bpm, blood pressure (BP) of 100/70 mmHg, a weak pulse and raised jugular vein pressure (JVP) (+5 cm), respiratory rate (RR) of 20 breaths/min, with widespread wheeze bilaterally, and oxygen saturations of 100% on 5 litres of oxygen. He is complaining of chest pain despite just having had 1 g of paracetamol.
      What complication is he likely to have suffered as a consequence of his injuries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with a Penetrating Chest Injury: Cardiac Tamponade, Fractured Ribs, Tension Pneumothorax, Hypovolaemia from Haemorrhage, and Traumatic Aortic Dissection

      A patient with a penetrating chest injury presents with tachycardia, hypotension, weak pulses, and a raised JVP. The most likely diagnosis is cardiac tamponade, which is characterized by Beck’s triad of hypotension, distended neck veins, and distant heart sounds. Other clinical findings may include pulsus paradoxus, decreased level of consciousness, and Kussmaul’s sign. Immediate investigations required are a 12-lead electrocardiogram, a chest X-ray, and an echocardiogram. Treatment in this case is pericardiocentesis and drain, to relieve the tamponade.

      Fractured ribs may occur in some cases of penetrating chest wall injuries, but they would not lead to shock and this presenting complaint. Tension pneumothorax may also occur, but bilateral wheeze on auscultation suggests otherwise. Hypovolaemia from haemorrhage would lead to a lower/absent JVP, and there is no mention of any external haemorrhage. Traumatic aortic dissection is rare in cases of blunt trauma from stabbing, and clinical signs are rarely present. Chest X-rays will usually show a large haemothorax, and on insertion of a chest drain, a large initial rush of bright red arterial blood is indicative of an aortic dissection. In these cases, patients should be transferred to theatre for a thoracotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hand pains that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hand pains that have been bothering her for several years. She reports that the pains started in both wrists a few years ago and have since spread to several joints in her fingers. The pain tends to worsen after use and improves with rest. Although the affected joints feel stiff upon waking, this only lasts for a few minutes. The patient reports that she can still complete tasks without any difficulty.

      During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness in the carpometacarpal joints and several distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) on both sides. There are also painless nodes that can be felt over several DIPs. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by involvement of the carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joints, as well as the presence of painless swellings known as Heberden’s nodes. Gout, pseudogout, and psoriatic arthritis are less likely diagnoses due to their acute presentation, involvement of different joints, and/or lack of a psoriasis history.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 28 - You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have...

    Incorrect

    • You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have been asked to review a 60-year-old female who has been referred to the unit for palpitations.

      The venous gas has been performed by the nurse and has revealed a potassium of 6.5 mmol/L. The patient's ECG shows tented T waves.

      What is the most important first drug intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate 10% 10 ml

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition with a strict definition of K+ > 5.5 mmol/L. The underlying causes can be divided into renal, intracellular shift out, increased circulatory K+, and false positives. In severe cases with symptomatic and ECG changes, calcium chloride should be given first to stabilise the myocardium. The conventional treatment is a combination of insulin and dextrose infusions, with salbutamol nebulisers and sodium bicarbonate as additional options. Sodium bicarbonate should be used in discussion with a renal physician.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her lips were swollen; she had stridor and was short of breath, and she was sweaty and clammy. She has a known allergy to shellfish and had eaten some seafood at a family gathering.
      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 300 mcg of 1 : 1000 adrenaline im

      Explanation:

      Correct Doses and Administration of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis

      Adrenaline is a crucial medication for treating anaphylaxis, and it is always administered intramuscularly (im) at a concentration of 1:1000. However, it is essential to know the correct doses and volumes for different age groups, as vials can vary.

      For adults and children over 12 years old, the appropriate dose is 500 mcg or 0.5 ml. For children aged 6-12 years, the correct dose is 300 mcg or 0.3 ml. For children under 6 years old, the recommended dose is 150 mcg or 0.15 ml.

      It is crucial to administer the correct dose for the patient’s age and weight to avoid adverse effects. Additionally, it is essential to administer adrenaline im and not intravenously (iv) to prevent complications. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment of anaphylaxis with adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 30 - Your next patient in an antenatal clinic is a woman who is 32...

    Incorrect

    • Your next patient in an antenatal clinic is a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant. What examination findings would cause you to be concerned?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fundal height growth of 2 cm per week

      Explanation:

      The expected fundal height growth per week after 24 weeks is 1 cm, not 2 cm. If the fundal height is increasing by 2 cm per week, there may be a multiple pregnancy or the baby may be larger than expected, requiring further investigation. The fundus should be palpable at the umbilicus by 20 weeks and at the xiphoid sternum by 36 weeks. The head is typically free on palpation until around 37 weeks for nulliparous women, but may engage earlier in multiparous women. Breech presentation is common before 34 weeks and only becomes a concern if preterm labor occurs.

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiothoracic (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Cardiology (1/5) 20%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
General Practice (0/1) 0%
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