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  • Question 1 - A 2 year old is brought to the emergency department by his father...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old is brought to the emergency department by his father due to a 24 hour history of worsening left sided otalgia and high temperature. During examination, a bulging red tympanic membrane is observed and acute otitis media is diagnosed.

      What is the most probable causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      The most probable causative organism in this case is Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of acute otitis media, especially in young children. It is known to cause infection in the middle ear, leading to symptoms such as ear pain (otalgia), fever, and a red, bulging tympanic membrane. Other organisms such as Escherichia coli, Candida albicans, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus aureus can also cause ear infections, but Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely culprit in this particular case.

      Further Reading:

      Acute otitis media (AOM) is an inflammation in the middle ear accompanied by symptoms and signs of an ear infection. It is commonly seen in young children below 4 years of age, with the highest incidence occurring between 9 to 15 months of age. AOM can be caused by viral or bacterial pathogens, and co-infection with both is common. The most common viral pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus, and parainfluenza virus. The most common bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes.

      Clinical features of AOM include ear pain (otalgia), fever, a red or cloudy tympanic membrane, and a bulging tympanic membrane with loss of anatomical landmarks. In young children, symptoms may also include crying, grabbing or rubbing the affected ear, restlessness, and poor feeding.

      Most children with AOM will recover within 3 days without treatment. Serious complications are rare but can include persistent otitis media with effusion, recurrence of infection, temporary hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, labyrinthitis, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

      Management of AOM involves determining whether admission to the hospital is necessary based on the severity of systemic infection or suspected acute complications. For patients who do not require admission, regular pain relief with paracetamol or ibuprofen is advised. Decongestants or antihistamines are not recommended. Antibiotics may be offered immediately for patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs of a more serious illness or condition, or have a high risk of complications. For other patients, a decision needs to be made on the antibiotic strategy, considering the rarity of acute complications and the possible adverse effects of antibiotics. Options include no antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, a back-up antibiotic prescription to be used if symptoms do not improve within 3 days, or an immediate antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical advice if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly.

      The first-line antibiotic choice for AOM is a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin. For individuals allergic to or intolerant of penicillin, clarithromycin or erythromycin a 5–7 day course of clarithromycin or erythromycin (erythromycin is preferred in pregnant women).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of palpitations and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of palpitations and difficulty breathing. During triage, the patient reveals that she was previously diagnosed with narrow complex tachycardia a couple of years ago after experiencing palpitations during a night out. You order an ECG. What are the specific criteria used to define narrow complex tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute and QRS duration less than 0.12 seconds

      Explanation:

      Narrow QRS complex tachycardia is a term used to describe a fast heart rhythm with a pulse rate over 100 bpm and a QRS duration shorter than 120 ms.

      Further Reading:

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachyarrhythmia that originates from the atria or above the bundle of His in the heart. It includes all atrial and junctional tachycardias, although atrial fibrillation is often considered separately. SVT typically produces a narrow QRS complex tachycardia on an electrocardiogram (ECG), unless there is an underlying conduction abnormality below the atrioventricular (AV) node. Narrow complex tachycardias are considered SVTs, while some broad complex tachycardias can also be SVTs with co-existent conduction delays.

      SVT can be classified into three main subtypes based on where it arises: re-entrant accessory circuits (the most common type), atrial tachycardias, and junctional tachycardias. The most common SVTs are AVNRT (AV nodal re-entry tachycardia) and AVRT (AV re-entry tachycardia), which arise from accessory circuits within the heart. AVNRT involves an accessory circuit within the AV node itself, while AVRT involves an accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles that allows additional electrical signals to trigger the AV node.

      Atrial tachycardias originate from abnormal foci within the atria, except for the SA node, AV node, or accessory pathway. Junctional tachycardias arise in the AV junction. The ECG features of SVTs vary depending on the type. Atrial tachycardias may have abnormal P wave morphology, an isoelectric baseline between P waves (in atrial flutter), and inverted P waves in certain leads. AVNRT may show pseudo R waves in V1 or pseudo S waves in certain leads, with an RP interval shorter than the PR interval. AVRT (WPW) may exhibit a delta wave on a resting ECG and retrograde P waves in the ST segment, with an RP interval shorter than the PR interval. Junctional tachycardias may have retrograde P waves before, during, or after the QRS complex, with inverted P waves in certain leads and upright P waves in others.

      Treatment of SVT follows the 2021 resuscitation council algorithm for tachycardia with a pulse. The algorithm provides guidelines for managing stable patients with SVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a health condition during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a health condition during the 2nd trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the newborn developed kernicterus and early closure of the ductus arteriosus.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The use of low-dose aspirin during pregnancy is considered safe and can be used to manage recurrent miscarriage, clotting disorders, and pre-eclampsia. On the other hand, high-dose aspirin carries several risks, especially if used in the third trimester. These risks include delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus (a condition that affects the brain due to high levels of bilirubin). Additionally, there is a slight increase in the risk of first-trimester abortion if high-dose aspirin is used early in pregnancy.

      Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      Drug: ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril)
      Adverse effects: If given in the second and third trimester, ACE inhibitors can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Drug: Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin)
      Adverse effects: Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity (damage to the ear) and deafness.

      Drug: Aspirin
      Adverse effects: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) have no significant associated risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp chest pain over the past 24 hours. The patient reports that the pain worsens with deep inspiration and feels more comfortable when sitting leaning forward. When asked about pain radiation, the patient confirms that the pain extends to the left side of the neck and points to the ridge of the trapezius. Physical examination reveals clear lung fields, regular rhythm with quiet heart sounds, and no murmurs. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 94 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Radiation to the trapezius ridge is a distinct symptom of acute pericarditis. The patient in question exhibits characteristics that align with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Pericarditis is a common condition affecting the pericardium, and it is often considered as a potential cause for chest pain. It is worth noting that the specific radiation of pain to the trapezius ridge is highly indicative of pericarditis, as it occurs when the phrenic nerve, which also innervates the trapezius muscle, becomes irritated while passing through the pericardium.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been present for...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been present for the past three days. The pain is worsened by deep inspiration and lying flat and relieved by sitting forwards. He recently returned from a vacation in Spain, which involved a short flight. He has no significant medical history but smokes 15 cigarettes per day. His father died from a heart attack at the age of 58. His vital signs are as follows: HR 102, BP 128/72, temperature 37.1oC, SaO2 96% on room air. His ECG shows widespread concave ST elevation and PR depression.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis refers to the inflammation of the pericardium, which can be caused by various factors such as infections (typically viral, like coxsackie virus), drug-induced reactions (e.g. isoniazid, cyclosporine), trauma, autoimmune conditions (e.g. SLE), paraneoplastic syndromes, uremia, post myocardial infarction (known as Dressler’s syndrome), post radiotherapy, and post cardiac surgery.

      The clinical presentation of pericarditis often includes retrosternal chest pain that worsens with lying flat and improves when sitting forwards, along with shortness of breath, rapid heartbeat, and the presence of a pericardial friction rub.

      Characteristic electrocardiogram (ECG) changes associated with pericarditis typically show widespread concave or ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation, widespread PR depression, reciprocal ST depression and PR elevation in aVR (and sometimes V1), and sinus tachycardia is commonly observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of gum swelling. Upon examination, significant gum hypertrophy is noted.
      Which SPECIFIC anti-epileptic medication is she most likely to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is widely known for its ability to cause gum hypertrophy. This condition is believed to occur as a result of decreased folate levels, but studies have shown that taking folic acid supplements can help prevent it. In addition to gum hypertrophy, other side effects that may occur with phenytoin use include megaloblastic anemia, nystagmus, ataxia, hypertrichosis, pruritic rash, hirsutism, and drug-induced lupus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 38 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden...

    Correct

    • A 38 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden tremors, excessive sweating, and a rapid heartbeat. Upon triage, the patient's blood pressure is found to be extremely high at 230/124 mmHg. Phaeochromocytoma is suspected. What would be the most suitable initial treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Phenoxybenzamine 10 mg by slow intravenous injection

      Explanation:

      The first step in managing hypertension in patients with phaeochromocytoma is to use alpha blockade, usually with a medication called phenoxybenzamine. This is followed by beta blockade. Before undergoing surgery to remove the phaeochromocytoma, patients need to be on both alpha and beta blockers. Alpha blockade is typically achieved by giving phenoxybenzamine intravenously at a dose of 10-40 mg over one hour, and then switching to an oral form (10-60 mg/day in divided doses). It is important to start alpha blockade at least 7 to 10 days before surgery to allow for an increase in blood volume. Beta blockade is only considered once alpha blockade has been achieved, as starting beta blockers too soon can lead to a dangerous increase in blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.

      The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.

      Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.

      The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You evaluate a 45-year-old woman who presents with lower abdominal and pelvic pain....

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old woman who presents with lower abdominal and pelvic pain. During a bimanual vaginal examination, you detect a significant pelvic mass. She has no significant medical history or gynecological issues, such as uterine fibroids.
      What would be the MOST suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent ultrasound scan and review with results

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology service (for an appointment within 2 weeks)

      Explanation:

      Women who are 18 years or older and have a pelvic mass that is not clearly uterine fibroids should be promptly referred for assessment. In this case, an abdominal X-ray would not provide much useful information, and it is not advisable to take no action at this point. For more information, please refer to the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)....

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). She had initially improved after receiving fluids, but her condition has worsened in the past hour. She is now expressing discomfort due to a headache and is displaying irritability. She has started vomiting again, and the nursing staff has observed an increase in her blood pressure and a decrease in her heart rate.
      What complication has developed?

      Your Answer: Cerebral oedema

      Explanation:

      Cerebral edema is the most significant complication of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), leading to death in many cases. It occurs in approximately 0.2-1% of DKA cases. The high blood glucose levels cause an osmolar gradient, resulting in the movement of water from the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the extracellular fluid (ECF) space and a decrease in cell volume. When insulin and intravenous fluids are administered to correct the condition, the effective osmolarity decreases rapidly, causing a reversal of the fluid shift and the development of cerebral edema.

      Cerebral edema is associated with a higher mortality rate and poor neurological outcomes. To prevent its occurrence, it is important to slowly normalize osmolarity over a period of 48 hours, paying attention to glucose and sodium levels, as well as ensuring proper hydration. Monitoring the child for symptoms such as headache, recurrent vomiting, irritability, changes in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), abnormal slowing of heart rate, and increasing blood pressure is crucial.

      If cerebral edema does occur, it should be treated with either a hypertonic (3%) saline solution at a dosage of 3 ml/kg or a mannitol infusion at a dosage of 250-500 mg/kg over a 20-minute period.

      In addition to cerebral edema, there are other complications associated with DKA in children, including cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, and acute renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents with gradually worsening shortness of breath on exertion...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents with gradually worsening shortness of breath on exertion that has been ongoing for the past four weeks. The breathlessness is worse when lying flat, and he has noticed his ankles have become swollen. This morning he had a small amount of blood in his sputum. He is currently 32 weeks pregnant, and his pregnancy is progressing normally. On examination, you note that he has a tapping apex beat and a low-volume pulse. On auscultation, you note a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      The clinical symptoms of mitral stenosis include shortness of breath, which tends to worsen during exercise and when lying flat. Tiredness, palpitations, ankle swelling, cough, and haemoptysis are also common symptoms. Chest discomfort is rarely reported.

      The clinical signs of mitral stenosis can include a malar flush, an irregular pulse if atrial fibrillation is present, a tapping apex beat that can be felt as the first heart sound, and a left parasternal heave if there is pulmonary hypertension. The first heart sound is often loud, and a mid-diastolic murmur can be heard best at the apex in the left lateral position during expiration using the bell of the stethoscope.

      Mitral stenosis is typically caused by rheumatic heart disease, with about two-thirds of patients being female. During pregnancy, the increase in plasma volume can lead to elevated left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures. This can exacerbate any symptoms related to mitral stenosis and potentially result in pulmonary edema, as seen in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A young woman with a previous case of urethritis has a urethral swab...

    Correct

    • A young woman with a previous case of urethritis has a urethral swab sent to the laboratory for examination. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is identified in the sample, confirming a diagnosis of gonorrhea.

      Which ONE statement about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is accurate?

      Your Answer: It adheres to the genitourinary epithelium via pili

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a type of bacteria that causes the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhoea. It is a Gram-negative diplococcus, meaning it appears as pairs of bacteria under a microscope. This infection is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 and 35, and it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. One important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is its ability to undergo antigenic variation, which means that recovering from an infection does not provide immunity and reinfection is possible.

      When Neisseria gonorrhoeae infects the body, it first attaches to the genitourinary epithelium using pili, which are hair-like structures on the surface of the bacteria. It then invades the epithelial layer and triggers a local acute inflammatory response. In men, the clinical features of gonorrhoea often include urethritis (inflammation of the urethra) in about 80% of cases, dysuria (painful urination) in around 50% of cases, and mucopurulent discharge. Rectal infection may also occur, usually without symptoms, but it can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis, or inflammation of the throat, is usually asymptomatic in men.

      In women, the clinical features of gonorrhoea commonly include vaginal discharge in about 50% of cases, lower abdominal pain in around 25% of cases, dysuria in 10-15% of cases, and pelvic/lower abdominal tenderness in less than 5% of cases. Endocervical discharge and/or bleeding may also be present. Similar to men, rectal infection is usually asymptomatic but can cause anal discharge, and pharyngitis is usually asymptomatic in women as well.

      Complications of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection can be serious and include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women, epididymo-orchitis or prostatitis in men, arthritis, dermatitis, pericarditis and/or myocarditis, hepatitis, and meningitis.

      To diagnose gonorrhoea, samples of pus from the urethra, cervix, rectum, or throat should be collected and promptly sent to the laboratory in specialized transport medium. Traditionally, diagnosis has been made using Gram-stain and culture techniques, but newer PCR testing methods are becoming more commonly used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after confessing to consuming a significant amount of amitriptyline following a breakup. The patient then experiences a seizure. Which medication is the most suitable for managing the seizure?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing seizures in cases of TCA overdose, benzodiazepines are considered the most effective treatment. Diazepam or lorazepam are commonly administered for this purpose. However, it’s important to note that lamotrigine and carbamazepine are typically used for preventing seizures rather than for immediate seizure control.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You assess a patient with a decreased potassium level.
    Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient with a decreased potassium level.
      Which of the following is NOT a known factor contributing to hypokalemia?

      Your Answer: Type 4 renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One common cause is inadequate dietary intake, where a person does not consume enough potassium-rich foods. Gastrointestinal loss, such as through diarrhoea, can also lead to hypokalaemia as the body loses potassium through the digestive system. Certain drugs, like diuretics and insulin, can affect potassium levels and contribute to hypokalaemia.

      Alkalosis, a condition characterized by an imbalance in the body’s pH levels, can also cause hypokalaemia. Hypomagnesaemia, or low magnesium levels, is another potential cause. Renal artery stenosis, a narrowing of the arteries that supply blood to the kidneys, can lead to hypokalaemia as well.

      Renal tubular acidosis, specifically types 1 and 2, can cause hypokalaemia. These conditions affect the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance, resulting in low potassium levels. Conn’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome, and Gitelman’s syndrome are all rare inherited defects that can cause hypokalaemia. Bartter’s syndrome affects the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, while Gitelman’s syndrome affects the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney.

      Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis is another condition that can cause low potassium levels. Excessive ingestion of liquorice, a sweet treat made from the root of the liquorice plant, can result in hypokalaemia due to its impact on mineralocorticoid levels.

      It is important to note that while type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis cause hypokalaemia, type 4 renal tubular acidosis actually causes hyperkalaemia, or high potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old diabetic smoker presents with central chest pain that radiates to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old diabetic smoker presents with central chest pain that radiates to his left shoulder and jaw. He is given 300 mg aspirin and morphine, and his pain subsides. The pain lasted approximately 90 minutes in total. His ECG shows normal sinus rhythm. He is referred to the on-call medical team for admission, and a troponin test is scheduled at the appropriate time. His blood tests today reveal a creatinine level of 298 micromoles per litre.
      Which of the following medications should you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Fondaparinux

      Correct Answer: Unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient’s medical history suggests a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome. It is important to provide pain relief as soon as possible. This can be achieved by administering GTN (sublingual or buccal), but if there is suspicion of an acute myocardial infarction (MI), intravenous opioids such as morphine should be offered.

      Aspirin should be given to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and should be continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications such as a high risk of bleeding or aspirin hypersensitivity. A single loading dose of 300 mg should be given immediately after presentation.

      For patients without a high risk of bleeding and no planned coronary angiography within 24 hours of admission, fondaparinux should be administered. However, if coronary angiography is planned within 24 hours, unfractionated heparin can be offered as an alternative to fondaparinux. For patients with significant renal impairment (creatinine above 265 micromoles per litre), unfractionated heparin should be considered, with dose adjustment based on clotting function monitoring.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but oxygen saturation should be monitored using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be given to individuals with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for an SpO2 of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 of 88-92% should be achieved until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a potential treatment for adults with STEMI undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 62-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough that has been ongoing for...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough that has been ongoing for several months. She reports that the cough occasionally produces a small amount of phlegm, especially in the morning. She has experienced a significant weight loss of 28 pounds over the past six months and constantly feels fatigued. Even with minimal physical activity, she becomes short of breath. She has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker. She enjoys keeping and racing pigeons as a hobby. Upon examination, bilateral fine end-inspiratory crackles are heard.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely to have pigeon fancier’s lung, which is a type of extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) caused by chronic exposure to avian antigens found in bird droppings. This condition leads to hypersensitivity pneumonitis and the formation of granulomas in the lungs.

      While his presentation could also be consistent with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, the fact that he keeps and races pigeons makes EAA more likely in this case.

      EAA can manifest as either an acute or chronic condition. The acute form typically presents with flu-like symptoms such as fever, cough, chest tightness, and breathlessness occurring 4 to 6 hours after exposure.

      The clinical features of chronic pigeon fancier’s lung include a productive cough, progressive breathlessness, weight loss, anorexia, fatigue, and malaise.

      Other forms of EAA include farmer’s lung (caused by exposure to Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula from wet hay), malt-worker’s lung (caused by exposure to Aspergillus clavatus from moldy malt), cheese-worker’s lung (caused by exposure to Penicillium casei from moldy cheese), chemical worker’s lung (caused by exposure to trimetallic anhydride, diisocyanate, and methylene diisocyanate), mushroom worker’s lung (caused by exposure to thermophilic actinomycetes in mushroom compost), and hot tub lung (caused by exposure to Mycobacterium avium from poorly maintained hot tubs).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. He has been involved in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. You evaluate his airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. You decide to perform intubation on the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing early intubation in a burn patient?

      Your Answer: Superficial partial-thickness circumferential neck burns

      Explanation:

      Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a burned patient. Airway obstruction can occur rapidly due to direct injury or swelling from the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated while maintaining cervical spine control.

      There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, and neck, burns inside the mouth, large burn area and increasing burn depth, associated trauma, and a carboxyhemoglobin level above 10%.

      In cases where significant swelling is anticipated, it may be necessary to urgently secure the airway with an uncut endotracheal tube before the swelling becomes severe. Delaying recognition of impending airway obstruction can make intubation difficult, and a surgical airway may be required.

      The American Burn Life Support (ABLS) guidelines recommend early intubation in certain situations. These include signs of airway obstruction, extensive burns, deep facial burns, burns inside the mouth, significant swelling or risk of swelling, difficulty swallowing, respiratory compromise, decreased level of consciousness, and anticipated transfer of a patient with a large burn and airway issues without qualified personnel to intubate during transport.

      Circumferential burns of the neck can cause tissue swelling around the airway, making early intubation necessary in these cases as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 62 year old man is brought into the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old man is brought into the emergency department by his daughter. The patient had been dozing on the beach chair for a few hours during the scorching weather but then became increasingly disoriented and started vomiting. The patient takes furosemide for swollen ankles. The patients observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 118/68 mmHg
      Pulse 108 bpm
      Respiratory rate 24 bpm
      Temperature 41.4ºC
      Oxygen sats 96% on air

      The patient's skin is hot and dry to the touch. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Heat stroke

      Explanation:

      Anhydrosis, or the inability to sweat, is frequently observed in individuals who experience heat stroke. This patient exhibits the main characteristics of heat stroke, including a core body temperature exceeding 40ºC and encephalopathy, which is evident through significant confusion. Additionally, the patient’s use of diuretics and advanced age are risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing severe heat-related illness. It is important to note that in the UK, most fatalities resulting from heat stroke occur in individuals aged 70 or older, typically within the initial days of a heat wave.

      Further Reading:

      Heat Stroke:
      – Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
      – Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
      – Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
      – Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
      – Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
      – Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
      – Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
      – Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°C

      Heat Exhaustion:
      – Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
      – Core temperature elevated but <40°C
      – Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
      – Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
      – Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and rest

      Other Heat-Related Illnesses:
      – Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
      – Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
      – Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydration

      Risk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
      – Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factors

      Management:
      – Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
      – Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
      – Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
      – Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
      – Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
      – Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old patient presents with a 48-hour history of right-sided facial weakness accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient presents with a 48-hour history of right-sided facial weakness accompanied by pain behind the right ear. On examination, there is noticeable asymmetry in the face, with the patient unable to raise the right eyebrow or lift the right side of the mouth. There is no tenderness or swelling in the mastoid area, and the external auditory canal and tympanic membrane appear normal. Evaluation of the remaining cranial nerves shows no abnormalities, and there are no other focal neurological deficits detected. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe aciclovir 800 mg five times a day for seven days

      Correct Answer: Prescribe prednisolone 50 mg daily for 10 days

      Explanation:

      The main treatment options for Bell’s palsy are oral prednisolone and proper eye care. Referral to a specialist is typically not necessary. It is recommended to start steroid treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset. Currently, NICE does not recommend the use of antiviral medications for Bell’s palsy.

      Further Reading:

      Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle weakness or drooping. The exact cause is unknown, but it is believed to be related to viral infections such as herpes simplex or varicella zoster. It is more common in individuals aged 15-45 years and those with diabetes, obesity, hypertension, or upper respiratory conditions. Pregnancy is also a risk factor.

      Diagnosis of Bell’s palsy is typically based on clinical symptoms and ruling out other possible causes of facial weakness. Symptoms include rapid onset of unilateral facial muscle weakness, drooping of the eyebrow and corner of the mouth, loss of the nasolabial fold, otalgia, difficulty chewing or dry mouth, taste disturbance, eye symptoms such as inability to close the eye completely, dry eye, eye pain, and excessive tearing, numbness or tingling of the cheek and mouth, speech articulation problems, and hyperacusis.

      When assessing a patient with facial weakness, it is important to consider other possible differentials such as stroke, facial nerve tumors, Lyme disease, granulomatous diseases, Ramsay Hunt syndrome, mastoiditis, and chronic otitis media. Red flags for these conditions include insidious and painful onset, duration of symptoms longer than 3 months with frequent relapses, pre-existing risk factors, systemic illness or fever, vestibular or hearing abnormalities, and other cranial nerve involvement.

      Management of Bell’s palsy involves the use of steroids, eye care advice, and reassurance. Steroids, such as prednisolone, are recommended for individuals presenting within 72 hours of symptom onset. Eye care includes the use of lubricating eye drops, eye ointment at night, eye taping if unable to close the eye at night, wearing sunglasses, and avoiding dusty environments. Reassurance is important as the majority of patients make a complete recovery within 3-4 months. However, some individuals may experience sequelae such as facial asymmetry, gustatory lacrimation, inadequate lid closure, brow ptosis, drooling, and hemifacial spasms.

      Antiviral treatments are not currently recommended as a standalone treatment for Bell’s palsy, but they may be given in combination with corticosteroids on specialist advice. Referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary if the patient has eye symptoms such as pain, irritation, or itch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 38-year-old man comes in after experiencing a seizure. His wife was present...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man comes in after experiencing a seizure. His wife was present during the episode and reported that his eyes rolled upwards before he became rigid. He felt extremely tired afterwards. Following that, he had shaking movements in all four limbs for approximately 3 minutes and lost control of his bladder. He has no other medical conditions and is generally healthy.
      What type of seizure did he have?

      Your Answer: Generalised, tonic-clonic

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history aligns with a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The observer of the incident provided a detailed description, which is crucial in diagnosing epilepsy.

      Diagnosing epilepsy can sometimes rely solely on the patient’s history. It is common to ask the patient to maintain a seizure diary to identify patterns and potential triggers. Additionally, EEG tests, along with an MRI scan or CT scan of the brain, can provide further insight into the type and possible cause of the seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.7
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  • Question 20 - A 10 year old is brought into the emergency department by his parents...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old is brought into the emergency department by his parents as they are concerned he has become lethargic over the past 4-6 hours. They inform you that the patient started complaining of feeling unwell last night before going to bed and had been urinating frequently.

      After conducting an assessment, you diagnose the patient with diabetic ketoacidosis and initiate fluids and an insulin infusion. 4 hours later, you are called to reassess the patient as he had been experiencing headaches and is now becoming increasingly drowsy. During the examination, you observe that the patient is grunting and has had an episode of urinary incontinence. What complication is likely to have developed?

      Your Answer: Cerebral oedema

      Explanation:

      During the examination, the child is observed to be grunting and has had an episode of urinary incontinence. The question asks about the likely complication that has developed.

      The most likely complication in this case is cerebral edema. Cerebral edema refers to the swelling of the brain due to an increase in fluid accumulation. It is a severe and potentially life-threatening complication of diabetic ketoacidosis, particularly in children. The symptoms observed, such as headaches, increasing drowsiness, grunting, and urinary incontinence, are indicative of cerebral edema.

      Cerebral edema can occur due to various factors, including the rapid correction of hyperglycemia and dehydration, as well as the release of inflammatory mediators. It is crucial to recognize and manage cerebral edema promptly as it can lead to increased intracranial pressure and neurological deterioration.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      368.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose & Throat (1/2) 50%
Cardiology (3/5) 60%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Passmed