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Question 1
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A 50-year-old woman presents with headaches and nosebleeds and is found to have a raised platelet count. She is diagnosed with essential thrombocytosis by the haematologist.
Which of the following might be used to treat essential thrombocytosis?Your Answer: Hydroxyurea
Explanation:Common Medications and Their Uses
Thrombocytosis and Hydroxyurea
Thrombocytosis is a condition characterized by an elevated platelet count, which can lead to bleeding or thrombosis. Primary or essential thrombocytosis is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in overproduction of platelets by the bone marrow. Hydroxyurea is the first-line treatment for essential thrombocytosis, as it inhibits an enzyme involved in DNA synthesis and reduces the rate of platelet production.Interferon Gamma for Immunomodulation
Interferon gamma is an immunomodulatory medication used to reduce the frequency of infections in patients with chronic granulomatous disease and severe malignant osteopetrosis. It is administered by subcutaneous injection.Cromoglycate for Inflammation
Sodium cromoglycate is a synthetic non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used in the treatment of asthma, allergic rhinitis, and various food allergies.Interferon β for Multiple Sclerosis
Interferon β is a cytokine used in the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. It is administered subcutaneously.Ranitidine for Acid Reduction
Ranitidine is a H2 (histamine) receptor blocker that inhibits the production of acid in the stomach. It can be used in the treatment of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, and gastritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a two-month history of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath during physical activity. She is currently using a progesterone-only oral contraceptive and taking hydrocortisone 10 mg twice daily and fludrocortisone 100 µg per day. Her glycaemic control has been reasonable, with a last HbA1c of 65 mmol/mol (20-46), and she is receiving mixed insulin twice daily. On examination, she appears pale. A full blood count reveals the following results: haemoglobin 52 g/L (120-160), MCV 115 fL (80-96), WCC 4.2 ×109/L (4-11), platelets 126 ×109L (150-400), and MCH 32 pg (28-32). The blood film shows multilobed nuclei in neutrophils and macrophages. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Megaloblastic Anemia and Pernicious Anemia
This patient is suffering from a macrocytic anemia, specifically a megaloblastic anemia, which is characterized by multilobed nuclei. The most probable cause of this condition is a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is commonly associated with pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is part of the autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome, which is linked to other autoimmune disorders such as Addison’s disease, type 1 diabetes, Sjögren’s disease, and vitiligo. Although there are other potential causes of macrocytosis, none of them are evident in this patient. Hypothyroidism, for example, does not cause megaloblastic anemia, only macrocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 91-year-old woman with known vascular dementia presents to the Emergency Department after a routine blood test uncovered that the patient had a sodium level of 149 mmol/l. Her carer comments that the patient’s fluid intake has been minimal over the past week. The patient’s past medical history includes a previous lacunar stroke and peripheral vascular disease. Her regular medications are atorvastatin, ramipril, amlodipine and clopidogrel. She currently is fully dependent on the assistance provided by carers. The patient’s National Early Warning (NEWS) score is 0, and her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15.
A physical examination does not reveal any source of infection. A bedside capillary glucose is recorded as 5.8 mmol/mmol. A full set of blood tests are repeated, reported as follows:
Full blood count and urea and electrolytes (U&Es):
Investigations Results Normal Values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 91 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets (Plt) 215 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 3.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 66 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
A routine chest X-ray and urinalysis are performed and show no abnormalities.
Which of the following is the most suitable to correct the patient’s hypernatraemia?Your Answer: 500 ml of 10% dextrose
Correct Answer: Oral water
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hypernatraemia: A Case Study
Hypernatraemia is a condition characterized by an elevated sodium concentration in the blood. In this case study, the patient’s hypernatraemia is mild and caused by insufficient free water intake. It is important to rule out infection as a cause of hypernatraemia, which can increase free water loss. Mild calcification of the aortic arch is a common finding in the elderly and unrelated to the patient’s current complaint.
Hypertonic saline infusion is not recommended as it would further increase the sodium concentration. Standard dialysis is not necessary in this case as the hypernatraemia is not profound enough. 500 ml of 10% dextrose is not appropriate as it is not equivalent to giving free water and is used to reverse hypoglycaemia. 500 ml of 0.9% saline is not the correct option for this patient, but it may be appropriate for hypovolaemic and hypotensive patients to restore circulating volume.
The most appropriate treatment option for this patient is to provide free water, which can be achieved by administering 5% dextrose. It is important to monitor the patient’s sodium levels and fluid intake to prevent further complications. The decision to start hypertonic saline infusion or dialysis should be made by a consultant in severe cases of hypernatraemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with lethargy and poor exercise tolerance. She also mentions that, over the last month, she has had excessive thirst and polyuria.
Initial investigations show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 78 g/l 115–155 g/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 109 mm/h 0–10mm in the first hour
Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 26.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 268 µmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 3.02 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Which of the following tests is the most appropriate to confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Serum PTH level
Correct Answer: Serum and urine electrophoresis
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Multiple Derangements
The patient in question presents with several abnormalities in their blood tests, including anaemia, hypercalcaemia, electrolyte imbalances, and a significantly elevated ESR. These findings, along with the patient’s symptoms, suggest a diagnosis of malignancy, specifically multiple myeloma.
Multiple myeloma is characterized by the malignant proliferation of plasma cells, leading to bone marrow infiltration, pancytopenia, osteolytic lesions, hypercalcaemia, and renal failure. The ESR is typically elevated in this condition. To confirm a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, serum and urine electrophoresis can be performed to identify the presence of monoclonal antibodies and Bence Jones proteins, respectively. Bone marrow examination can also reveal an increased number of abnormal plasma cells.
Treatment for multiple myeloma typically involves a combination of chemotherapy and bisphosphonate therapy, with radiation therapy as an option as well. This condition is more common in men, particularly those in their sixth or seventh decade of life.
Other diagnostic tests that may be considered include an oral glucose tolerance test (to rule out diabetes as a cause of polydipsia and polyuria), a chest X-ray (to evaluate for a possible small cell carcinoma of the lung), and an abdominal CT scan (to assess the extent of disease and the presence of metastasis). A serum PTH level may also be useful in ruling out primary hyperparathyroidism as a cause of hypercalcaemia, although the patient’s symptoms and blood test results make malignancy a more likely diagnosis.
Diagnostic Tests and Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Multiple Derangements
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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By how much does the haemoglobin concentration increase with the infusion of one unit of fresh blood?
Your Answer: 10 g/L
Explanation:The Effect of Fresh Blood on Haemoglobin Levels
When one unit of fresh blood is transfused, it increases the haemoglobin levels in the body by approximately 10 g/L. This is equivalent to the effect of one unit of red cell concentrate. Both fresh blood and red cell concentrate contain red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. Therefore, the increase in haemoglobin levels is due to the additional red blood cells that are introduced into the bloodstream. This information is important for medical professionals who need to monitor and manage the haemoglobin levels of their patients, particularly those who have undergone significant blood loss or have conditions that affect their red blood cell count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Beta Thalassaemia
Beta thalassaemia can be diagnosed through the presence of mild microcytic anaemia, target cells on the peripheral blood smear, and a normal red blood cell count. However, the diagnosis is confirmed through the elevation of Hb A2, which is demonstrated by electrophoresis. In beta thalassaemia patients, the Hb A2 level is typically around 4-6%.
It is important to note that in rare cases where there is severe iron deficiency, the increased Hb A2 level may not be observed. However, it becomes evident with iron repletion. Additionally, patients with the rare delta-beta thalassaemia trait do not exhibit an increased Hb A2 level.
In summary, the diagnosis of beta thalassaemia can be suggested through certain symptoms and blood tests, but it is confirmed through the measurement of Hb A2 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female patient presents at the clinic for a check-up. She complains of irregular, heavy menstrual periods, has a BMI of 30 kg/m2, and experiences acne and excessive facial hair growth. She is not taking any medication. Her sister has been diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and she suspects that she may have the same condition.
During the physical examination, her blood pressure is 149/90 mmHg, and her pulse is regular at 78 bpm. She has excessive hair growth on her beard line and upper torso, and central obesity. However, the rest of her physical examination is normal.
Which blood test is the most diagnostic for PCOS?Your Answer: FSH
Correct Answer: Total/free testosterone
Explanation:Diagnosis and Associated Risks of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is diagnosed when there is evidence of at least two out of three features, with other potential causes excluded. These features include oligoamenorrhoea, elevated levels of total/free testosterone (or clinical features suggestive of hyperandrogenism), or the presence of polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. While an extremely marked elevation in testosterone can suggest an androgen-secreting tumor, this is rare. Additionally, raised luteinising hormone (LH) with a normal follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) can lead to an elevated LH/FSH ratio, but this is not diagnostic.
PCOS is associated with an increased risk of impaired glucose tolerance, although this may take a number of years to become apparent. Furthermore, there may be a reduction in levels of oestriol, although this is not always a consistent finding. It is important to diagnose PCOS early on to manage the associated risks and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to his doctor with complaints of night sweats and unintended weight loss. He has a medical history of axillary lymphadenopathy. The doctor suspects that he may have non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the most probable test to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Core needle biopsy of an enlarged lymph node
Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of an enlarged lymph node
Explanation:Diagnostic Investigations for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. There are several diagnostic investigations that can be used to diagnose this condition.
Excisional Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: This is the most common diagnostic investigation for suspected non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It involves removing all of the abnormal tissue from an enlarged lymph node.
Computed Tomography (CT) of the Chest, Neck, Abdomen, and Pelvis: CT scanning can indicate features suggestive of lymphoma, such as lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. However, it cannot provide a tissue diagnosis.
Core Needle Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: If a surgical excisional biopsy is not appropriate, a core needle biopsy can be performed. However, if this does not reveal a definite diagnosis, then an excisional biopsy should be undertaken.
Full Blood Count: A full blood count can be a helpful first-line investigation if a haematological malignancy is suspected, but it is not sufficient to be diagnostic for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Protein Electrophoresis and Urine Bence-Jones Protein: Protein electrophoresis can be helpful in screening for multiple myeloma, but it is not helpful for diagnosing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic investigations can be used to diagnose non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. However, excisional biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types
Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.
In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.
While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
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A 25-year-old patient presented with red rashes on their feet. Upon examination, they were found to be pale with purpuric spots on their lower legs. Their temperature was 38.3 °C and they also complained of nausea. On the second day of admission, their fever increased and they became disoriented. New bleeding spots started appearing on their face. Blood reports revealed low hemoglobin, high white cell count, low platelets, and high creatinine levels. A peripheral blood smear showed helmet cells and anisocytosis. The CSF study was normal. What test should be done next for this patient?
Your Answer: Urinary β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
Explanation:The patient is presenting with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is characterized by low platelet count due to clotting and platelet sequestration in small vessels. TTP is associated with haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenic purpura, fever, and neurological and renal abnormalities. The patient’s risk factors for TTP include being female, obese, pregnant, and of Afro-Caribbean origin. To determine the appropriate management, a urinary β-hCG test should be performed to establish pregnancy status. The first-line treatment for TTP is plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma. Blood cultures should also be performed to check for underlying septicaemia. Antiplatelet antibody titres can be raised in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), but ITP does not cause renal failure. A bone marrow study is appropriate to rule out leukaemia. Illicit drug use should also be considered as a cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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