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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of breath, palpitations and difficulty balancing.
      On examination, her vitals are heart rate 110 bpm at rest and 140 bpm on ambulation, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, temperature 37 ° C and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. She is pale. Her lungs are clear to auscultation; her heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs or gallops; her abdomen is soft and non-tender; she is moving all extremities equally, and a stool guaiac test is heme-negative. Her gait is wide and she has difficulty balancing. She has decreased sensation to fine touch in her feet. Her mini-mental status exam is normal.
      Blood work shows:
      Haematocrit: 0.19 (0.35–0.55)
      Mean cell volume: 110 fl (76–98 fl)
      White blood cell count: 5 × 109/l (4–11 × 109/l)
      Which one of the following findings would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Causes and Symptoms of Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. The most common cause of this deficiency is the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without it, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency and anaemia. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include fatigue, lethargy, dyspnoea on exertion, and neurological symptoms such as peripheral loss of vibration and proprioception, weakness, and paraesthesiae. If left untreated, it can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and demyelination of the spinal cord, causing ataxia.

      Diagnosis can be made with a vitamin B12 level test, which reveals anaemia, often pancytopenia, and a raised MCV. A blood film reveals hypersegmented neutrophils, megaloblasts, and oval macrocytes. Treatment involves replacement of vitamin B12.

      Other possible causes of vitamin B12 deficiency include intestinal tapeworm, which is rare, and gastrointestinal malignancy, which causes iron deficiency anaemia with a low MCV. Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord describes anterolateral sclerosis (ALS), which is characterised by progressive muscle weakness and would not cause anaemia or loss of sensation. Enlargement of the ventricles on head CT indicates hydrocephalus, which could explain the wide-based gait but not the anaemia and other symptoms. A haemoglobin A1c of 12.2% is associated with diabetes, which could explain decreased peripheral sensation to fine touch but would not be associated with megaloblastic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old patient presented with red rashes on their feet. Upon examination, they...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient presented with red rashes on their feet. Upon examination, they were found to be pale with purpuric spots on their lower legs. Their temperature was 38.3 °C and they also complained of nausea. On the second day of admission, their fever increased and they became disoriented. New bleeding spots started appearing on their face. Blood reports revealed low hemoglobin, high white cell count, low platelets, and high creatinine levels. A peripheral blood smear showed helmet cells and anisocytosis. The CSF study was normal. What test should be done next for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urinary β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is characterized by low platelet count due to clotting and platelet sequestration in small vessels. TTP is associated with haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenic purpura, fever, and neurological and renal abnormalities. The patient’s risk factors for TTP include being female, obese, pregnant, and of Afro-Caribbean origin. To determine the appropriate management, a urinary β-hCG test should be performed to establish pregnancy status. The first-line treatment for TTP is plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma. Blood cultures should also be performed to check for underlying septicaemia. Antiplatelet antibody titres can be raised in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), but ITP does not cause renal failure. A bone marrow study is appropriate to rule out leukaemia. Illicit drug use should also be considered as a cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - A 62-year-old woman is being evaluated in the pre-operative clinic for an elective...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman is being evaluated in the pre-operative clinic for an elective cholecystectomy. She has no other medical conditions except for two episodes of cholecystitis within the past year. Additionally, she has never undergone a blood transfusion before. What information should be included in the request to the blood bank?

      Your Answer: Group and save only

      Explanation:

      Blood Testing for Elective Surgeries

      When it comes to elective surgeries, a group and save blood testing procedure is typically sufficient. This is a common practice in modern blood banks and involves determining the patient’s blood group and confirming it, as well as conducting an antibody screen. If the antibody screen test comes back positive, additional tests such as a cross match or direct Coombs’ test (also known as the direct antiglobulin test or DAT) may be necessary. However, these tests are not typically performed unless the patient has a recent history of blood transfusions or known red cell antibodies. Overall, the group and save method is a standard and effective way to ensure that patients have the appropriate blood type available in case of a transfusion during elective surgeries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She is diagnosed with a genetic disorder that causes abnormal blood cell shape due to a dysfunctional membrane protein. As a result, these cells are broken down by the spleen, leading to haemolytic anaemia and splenomegaly. What is the most probable abnormality observed in a blood film of individuals with this condition?

      Your Answer: Sphere-shaped red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormalities in Red Blood Cells: Hereditary Spherocytosis and Other Conditions

      Hereditary spherocytosis is an inherited condition that causes red blood cells to take on a sphere shape instead of their normal biconcave disc shape. This abnormality leads to increased rupture of red blood cells in capillaries and increased degradation by the spleen, resulting in hypersplenism, splenomegaly, and haemolytic anaemia. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis often present with jaundice, splenomegaly, anaemia, and fatigue.

      Schistocytes, irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are the result of mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as haemolytic anaemia.

      Acanthocytes or spur cells, which have a spiked, irregular surface due to deposition of lipids and/or proteins on the membrane, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are seen in several conditions, including cirrhosis, anorexia nervosa, and pancreatitis.

      Microcytic red blood cells, which are smaller than normal red blood cells but have a normal shape, are typically seen in iron deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, and anaemia of chronic disease.

      Teardrop-shaped red blood cells are seen in conditions where there is an abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis. This is different from hereditary spherocytosis, which is a primary disorder of abnormal red blood cell shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types

      Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.

      While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after consuming 30 tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after consuming 30 tablets of warfarin which belonged to her mother. She has diarrhoea but has no mucosal bleeding. She admits to previously attending a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour. She has no remarkable medical history. Her mother has a history of recurrent venous thrombosis for which she is taking warfarin.
      What will the patient’s coagulation screen likely be?

      Your Answer: Elevated activated partial thromboplastin time and normal prothrombin time, international normalised ratio, platelet counts

      Correct Answer: Elevated prothrombin time, international normalised ratio, activated partial thromboplastin time and normal platelet counts

      Explanation:

      Warfarin poisoning is characterized by elevated prothrombin time (PT), international normalized ratio (INR), and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), along with normal platelet counts. This is due to the drug’s ability to block the function of vitamin K epoxide reductase, leading to a depletion of the reduced form of vitamin K that serves as a cofactor for gamma carboxylation of vitamin-K-dependent coagulation factors. As a result, the vitamin-K-dependent factors cannot function properly, leading to elevated PT and INR, normal or elevated APTT, and normal platelet counts. Thrombocytopenia with normal PT, INR, and APTT can be caused by drugs like methotrexate and carboplatin isotretinoin, which induce direct myelosuppression. Decreased factor VIII levels are seen in haemophilia A, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and von Willebrand disease, but not in warfarin overdose. Isolated APTT elevation is seen in heparin overdose, while elevated fibrinogen levels can be seen in inflammation, acute coronary syndrome, and stroke, but not in warfarin overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
    On examination, his left plantar response was...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
      On examination, his left plantar response was extensor, and deep tendon jerks were increased on the left side. A computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain revealed a right-middle cerebral artery territory infarct. He was not known to have diabetes or hypertension. He was not receiving any drugs, either.
      His blood count revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 331 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophil count 145 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Metamyelocyte 3000/mm3
      Platelet 490 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Peripheral smear Many band forms, myelocytes, basophils
      What is the next appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer: Leukapheresis

      Explanation:

      Leukapheresis and Other Treatment Options for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia with High White Blood Cell Count and Ischaemic Stroke

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia can cause an extremely high white blood cell count, leading to hyperviscosity of the blood and an increased risk of ischaemic events such as stroke. While anticoagulation medications are important, they do not address the underlying issue of the high cell count. Leukapheresis is a procedure that can reduce the white cell volume by 30-60%, making it a crucial emergency treatment option. Other treatments, such as hydroxyurea and imatinib, can also be used to control disease burden. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is effective in treating chronic myeloid leukaemia with the Philadelphia chromosome translocation. Aspirin and heparin have limited roles in this scenario. While aspirin is recommended for long-term therapy after an ischaemic stroke, it does not address the hypercoagulable state caused by the high white blood cell count. Heparin is not used in the treatment of ischaemic strokes. Overall, leukapheresis should be the first step in emergency management for chronic myeloid leukaemia with a high white blood cell count and ischaemic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - Who among the following prospective blood donors would be ineligible to donate whole...

    Correct

    • Who among the following prospective blood donors would be ineligible to donate whole blood or plasma?

      Your Answer: A 32-year-old lady whose sister was diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease three years ago

      Explanation:

      Blood Donation Guidelines

      Blood donation guidelines set by the National Blood Service UK state that individuals who have a family member (parent or sibling) with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease cannot donate blood. This is due to the risk of transmitting the disease through blood transfusion.

      Other factors that may exclude individuals from donating blood include hepatitis or jaundice within the last 12 months, acupuncture within the last four months (unless performed by a registered professional), body piercing or tattoos within the last six months, any infection within the preceding two weeks, or a course of antibiotics within the last seven days.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. By excluding individuals who may have a higher risk of transmitting diseases or infections, the blood supply can remain safe and effective for those in need of transfusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle...

    Correct

    • A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle cramps, and circumoral paraesthesia. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Investigate and treat citrate toxicity

      Explanation:

      Citrate Toxicity and Hypocalcaemia in Apheresis Patients

      This patient is experiencing symptoms of citrate toxicity, which has led to hypocalcaemia. While it is possible for haemorrhage to occur at the site of venepuncture or venous access, this is typically easy to identify through clinical examination. Sepsis is an uncommon occurrence if proper aseptic precautions have been taken, and the symptoms described here are not indicative of an infection. Immediate treatment is necessary, and this can be achieved by slowing or stopping the apheresis process. Treatment options include the administration of oral or intravenous calcium replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      12
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old male has a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis for the past...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male has a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis for the past four years. Despite being compliant with therapy (NSAIDs and methotrexate), the disease remains poorly controlled. Recently, he has been experiencing extreme fatigue. Upon conducting an FBC, the following results were obtained:
      - Haemoglobin 70 g/L (120-160)
      - White cell count 1.5 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelet count 40 ×109/L (150-400)

      What could be the possible cause of his pancytopenia?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Pancytopenia in a Patient with Erosive Rheumatoid Arthritis

      This patient is showing signs of pancytopenia, a condition where there is a decrease in all three blood cell types (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Given her history of erosive rheumatoid arthritis for the past three years, it is likely that she has been on immunosuppressive therapy, which can lead to this type of blood disorder.

      Immunosuppressive drugs such as methotrexate, sulfasalazine, penicillamine, and gold can all have an impact on blood cell production and lead to pancytopenia. It is important to monitor patients on these medications for any signs of blood disorders and adjust treatment accordingly. Early detection and management can prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (8/10) 80%
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