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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman receives a Levonorgestrel-intrauterine system for birth control on the 6th day of her menstrual cycle. How many more days of contraception does she need?
Your Answer: None
Explanation:No additional contraception is needed if an LNG-IUS or Levonorgestrel-IUS is inserted on day 1-7 of the cycle. However, if it is inserted outside this timeframe, 7 days of additional contraception is required. Since the patient is currently on day 6 of her cycle, there is no need for extra precautions.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her susceptibility to ovarian cancer, given the recent media coverage. What factor is most closely linked to the development of ovarian cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early menarche
Explanation:The hormonal factors are responsible for the risk of ovarian cancer. Women who experience ovulation without suppression are at a higher risk. Therefore, early menarche and late menopause, which increase ovulation, are considered risk factors for ovarian cancer. On the other hand, hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and obesity, not low body weight, are also risk factors.
Pregnancy, which suppresses ovulation, is a protective factor against ovarian cancer. Similarly, the use of combined oral contraceptives is also considered protective.
The media often highlights vague symptoms such as bloating as potential signs of ovarian cancer. However, it is important to reassure patients and conduct a thorough history and examination to identify any risk factors.
Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.
There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.
To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to your GP practice 8 months after receiving the subdermal contraceptive implant (Nexplanon). She experienced light irregular bleeding for the first six months of implant use, but has since noticed a change in her bleeding pattern. She now experiences vaginal bleeding almost every day for the past two months. She denies any pain, dyspareunia, or change in vaginal discharge. She has not experienced any postcoital bleeding. Prior to receiving the implant, she had regular periods with a 28-day cycle and no intermenstrual bleeding. She has had one regular male partner for the past three months, and before that, she had a different regular male partner for six months. Her last normal smear test was three years ago.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical examination of cervix and sexually transmitted infection screen
Explanation:The FSRH advises that women who experience problematic bleeding for more than three months after starting the contraceptive implant should undergo a clinical examination, including a speculum, and be screened for sexually transmitted infections if they are at risk. If a woman is experiencing these symptoms, it is not recommended to repeat her smear test outside of the screening program. Instead, if her cervix appears abnormal, she should be referred for colposcopy.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents for a cervical smear. Her previous three smears have all been negative. However, her latest smear reveals mild dyskaryosis. The local cervical screening programme includes human papillomavirus (HPV) testing as part of the screening process, and her sample has tested 'positive' for high-risk HPV. What is the next best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:HPV Testing in Cervical Screening
The use of HPV testing in cervical screening has been studied to determine if it can improve the accuracy of identifying women who need further investigation and treatment. Currently, only a small percentage of women referred for colposcopy actually require treatment as low-grade abnormalities often resolve on their own. By incorporating HPV testing, women with borderline or mild dyskaryosis who test negative for high-risk HPV can simply return to routine screening recall, while those who test positive are referred for colposcopy.
HPV testing is also used as a test of cure for women who have been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. Those with normal, borderline, or mild dyskaryosis smear results who are HPV negative can return to three-yearly recall. This approach ensures that women receive appropriate follow-up care while minimizing unnecessary referrals and treatments. Overall, the use of HPV testing in cervical screening has the potential to improve the accuracy and efficiency of the screening process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents at home with a few days of lower cramping abdominal pain and some scanty brownish PV discharge. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago, and she typically has regular 28/5 cycles. She is sexually active but doesn't use any regular contraception.
Upon examination, she is haemodynamically unstable and has generalised abdominal tenderness. A pregnancy test is not available, but her partner is willing to go to the Pharmacy to obtain one if necessary.
What is the most appropriate next step to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call 999
Explanation:Urgent Action Required for Haemodynamically Unstable Patient
The most appropriate course of action in this case is to call 999 and request an ambulance. This patient may have an ectopic pregnancy or may be miscarrying, and is therefore unstable and requires immediate resuscitation and transfer to hospital. While waiting for the ambulance, an attempt at IV cannulation and fluid resuscitation should be made.
Arranging an assessment at the EPAU within 24 hours is inappropriate, as the patient is haemodynamically unstable and requires urgent admission via ambulance. Conducting a pelvic exam is not appropriate as this patient is haemodynamically unstable and has abdominal tenderness. Similarly, conducting a urine pregnancy test or taking blood for a serum βHCG would only cause unnecessary delay.
It is crucial to prioritize the patient’s immediate medical needs and take urgent action to ensure their safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are reviewing the results of a cervical smear test for a 33-year-old patient. The test has come back as high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) negative and it is noted that this is a repeat test. Upon further review, you see that this is the patient's second repeat test following an abnormal result at a routine screening 2 years ago. Her last test was 6 months ago when she tested hrHPV positive. Cytologically normal. She has not been invited for a colposcopy.
What would be the most appropriate next step in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Return to routine recall (in 3 years)
Explanation:If the results of the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months show that the patient is now negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the appropriate action is to return to routine recall in 3 years. This is based on the assumption that the patient had an initial abnormal smear 2 years ago, which showed hrHPV positive but with normal cytology. The patient then had a repeat test at 12 months, which also showed hrHPV positive but with normal cytology. If the patient had still been hrHPV positive, she would have been referred for colposcopy. However, since she is now negative, there is no need for further testing or repeat smear in 4 weeks or 12 months. It is also not necessary to check cytology on the sample as the latest cervical screening programme doesn’t require it if hrHPV is negative. It is important to note that transient hrHPV infection is common and doesn’t necessarily indicate a high risk of cervical cancer.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about her delayed onset of menstruation. They have noticed that all her peers have already started their periods and are worried that there may be an underlying issue.
Blood tests reveal the following results:
FSH 10 IU/L (4-8)
LH 11 IU/L (4-8)
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:If a patient with primary amenorrhea has elevated FSH/LH levels, it may indicate gonadal dysgenesis, such as Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.
To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.
In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of feeling generally unwell. She reports discomfort and distension in her abdomen, as well as loose stools and dyspnea with exertion. On examination, there is diffuse abdominal tenderness without guarding, and all vital signs are within normal limits. The patient is currently undergoing fertility treatment and received a gonadorelin analogue injection the previous week.
What is the most probable diagnosis based on the given information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
Explanation:Ovulation induction can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) as a potential side effect. The symptoms of OHSS often involve gastrointestinal discomfort such as bloating, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Additionally, patients may experience shortness of breath, fever, peripheral edema, and oliguria.
OHSS can range in severity from mild to life-threatening, and can result in complications such as dehydration, thromboembolism, acute kidney injury (AKI), and pulmonary edema. Severe OHSS typically has a delayed onset compared to milder cases. In the given scenario, the patient received a GnRH agonist injection within the past week, indicating that her symptoms may be less severe.
Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories
Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.
There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old lady presents to your clinic after receiving a health screen at a private clinic. The results showed a slightly elevated CA 125 level of 55 (normal range 0-35). She provides you with a printout of her normal FBC, LFT, U&E, height, weight, and ECG. Her QRisk2 score is 8.4%. During the consultation, she mentions experiencing occasional bloating, but a VE examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an ultrasound scan of her abdomen and pelvis
Explanation:Elevated Ca125 and Normal Examination: What to Do Next?
This patient has an elevated Ca125 but a normal examination. Although the elevated result was detected during screening, she admits to experiencing bloating, which can be an early symptom of ovarian cancer. However, it’s important to note that Ca125 can be elevated for non-malignancy reasons, and if the ovarian cancer is not epithelial in origin, the Ca125 can be normal.
According to NICE guidelines, if a woman has symptoms that suggest ovarian cancer, serum CA125 should be measured in primary care. If the serum CA125 is 35 IU/ml or greater, an ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If the ultrasound suggests ovarian cancer, the woman should be referred urgently for further investigation.
If a woman has a normal serum CA125 (less than 35 IU/ml) or a CA125 of 35 IU/ml or greater but a normal ultrasound, she should be assessed carefully for other clinical causes of her symptoms and investigated if appropriate. If no other clinical cause is apparent, she should be advised to return to her GP if her symptoms become more frequent and/or persistent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy which she has taken since her periods stopped three years ago. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:
Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 3 cm simple ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology
Explanation:Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.
When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.
For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.
Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You encounter a 24-year-old woman at your family planning clinic who wishes to initiate the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has no significant medical history, but she does smoke 5-10 cigarettes per day. Her BMI and blood pressure are both within normal ranges. Her aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at the age of 55.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer
Explanation:The use of combined hormonal contraceptive pills can lead to a decreased risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for many years even after discontinuation. However, for women under 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 2, indicating that the benefits of using the method generally outweigh the potential risks. For women over 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 3 if they smoke less than 15 cigarettes a day and 4 if they smoke more than 15 cigarettes a day.
While some meta-analyses have shown a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, there is no significant risk of breast cancer after 10 years of discontinuation. Additionally, COCP can help reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is a risk factor for breast cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Younger first time mothers
Explanation:Factors affecting breast cancer risk
Breast cancer risk is influenced by various factors. Women who experience late menopause, early menarche, and use combined oral contraceptive pills are at an increased risk of developing breast cancer. Additionally, older first-time mothers are also at a higher risk. However, childbearing can reduce the risk of breast cancer. According to Cancer Research UK, women who have had children have a 30% lower risk of developing breast cancer compared to those who have not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You encounter a 36-year-old woman who complains of vaginal discharge. She has a history of bacterial vaginosis (BV) and has been treated for it around five times in the past year. A high vaginal swab reveals BV once again, and her vaginal pH remains >4.5. She is bothered by the unpleasant odor and requests further treatment. She has had a copper intrauterine device (IUD) for three years.
In addition to prescribing a 7-day course of oral metronidazole, what other recommendations could you make?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider removing the IUD and advising the use of an alternative form of contraception
Explanation:There is not enough evidence to recommend any specific treatment for recurrent BV in primary care. However, in women with an intrauterine contraceptive device and persistent BV, it may be advisable to remove the device and suggest an alternative form of contraception.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You see a 55-year-old lady in your family planning clinic. She is fit and well with no relevant past medical history. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for 10 years. She takes no other medication, has no relevant family history. Her blood pressure (BP) and BMI are normal. She takes the COCP as contraception as she is still having regular periods.
Which statement below is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be advised to stop taking the COCP for contraception, and prescribe an alternative, safer method
Explanation:For women over 40, combined hormonal contraception (COCP) can be beneficial in reducing menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviating menopausal symptoms. However, it is important to consider certain factors when prescribing COCP to women over 40. The UKMEC criteria for women over 40 is 2, while for women from menarche until 40, it is 1. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health recommends the use of COCP until age 50, provided there are no other contraindications. However, women over 50 should be advised to switch to a safer alternative method of contraception, as the risks associated with COCP use outweigh the benefits. Women who smoke should stop using COCP at 35, as smoking increases the risk of mortality. While COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer, there is a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, which diminishes after 10 years of cessation. Women using COCP for non-contraceptive benefits after the age of 50 should be considered on an individual basis using clinical judgement and informed choice.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Ms. Smith, a 28-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks into her first pregnancy, presents with symptoms of vaginal thrush. After addressing her concerns, she inquires about pregnancy supplements. Ms. Smith has been taking a branded pregnancy multivitamin but wonders if it is necessary to continue taking it now that she is past the first trimester due to the cost. She is generally healthy, not taking any regular medications, and is receiving midwife-led care as her pregnancy has been deemed low risk. Additionally, there is no family history of spina bifida.
What guidance should be provided to Ms. Smith?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid preconception and until 12 weeks gestation, vitamin D throughout the whole pregnancy (except summer months)
Explanation:Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old lady presents to you with a six week history of bilateral breast pain. She has no significant medical history. She has had two normal vaginal deliveries and breastfed each baby. She reports losing around 20 pounds through a strict diet and exercise routine in the past six months.
During the examination, you note that her BMI is 20 kg/m2 and there is erythema and indentation of the skin adjacent to the underwiring of her bra. Her breasts appear normal and there is no palpable lymphadenopathy.
The patient denies smoking or drinking. Her grandfather passed away from lung cancer and her mother has asthma.
What would be your next steps?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggest a better fitting bra and reassess if the pain persists
Explanation:Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Breast Cancer
Current NICE guidelines focus on symptoms and signs of breast cancer in individuals aged 30 and over. Referral for an appointment within two weeks is recommended for those with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or for those aged 50 and over with nipple discharge, retraction, or other changes of concern. Non-urgent referral may be considered for those under 30 with an unexplained breast lump. However, in cases where the cause of the problem may be an ill-fitting bra, conservative management is recommended. Topical NSAIDs may be given for symptom relief, but evening primrose oil has no evidence to support its use for cyclical mastalgia. Re-examination should be considered if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of painful periods and deep pain during intercourse. She has previously been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced lower abdominal pain. She is concerned about the impact of the pain on her desire to start a family. What is the recommended course of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology
Explanation:If a woman experiences both deep dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, it is probable that she has endometriosis. However, if she is trying to conceive, she cannot use initial treatment options like the combined pill. To confirm the diagnosis, a laparoscopy is the preferred method. A pelvic ultrasound is not the most effective way to diagnose endometriosis and may not show any abnormalities in cases of mild to moderate disease.
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years and has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). During her visit to your clinic, she reports discomfort during intercourse due to vaginal dryness. Upon examination, you observe atrophic genitalia without any other abnormalities. The patient and her partner have attempted to use over-the-counter lubricants, but they have not been effective.
What would be the most suitable course of action for you to take next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue with HRT and prescribe low-dose vaginal oestrogen
Explanation:To alleviate vaginal symptoms, vaginal topical oestrogen can be used alongside HRT. Compared to systemic treatment, low-dose vaginal topical oestrogen is more effective in providing relief for vaginal symptoms. Patients should be reviewed after 3 months of treatment. It is recommended to consider stopping treatment at least once a year, but in some cases, long-term treatment may be necessary for persistent symptoms. If symptoms persist, increasing the dose or seeking specialist referral may be necessary. Testosterone supplementation is only recommended for sexual dysfunction and should be initiated after consulting a specialist. Sildenafil is not effective in treating menopausal symptoms.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.
HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.
Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the possibility of pregnancy after engaging in consensual, unprotected sexual intercourse last night. She is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had taken the morning-after-pill seven days ago after a similar incident. She had stopped taking her combined oral contraceptive pill four weeks ago and was scheduled to have a levonorgestrel intrauterine system inserted next week. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she has a height of 180cm and a weight of 74kg (BMI 22.8). What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel at double dose by mouth
Explanation:The correct answer is to double the dose of levonorgestrel to 3 mg by mouth for this patient, as she has a weight of over 70kg, despite having a healthy BMI. This information is based on the BNF guidelines.
Inserting a copper intrauterine device would not be the best option for this patient, as she already has plans for levonorgestrel device insertion and may be using it for additional hormonal benefits, such as reducing the heaviness of her bleeding.
Inserting the levonorgestrel uterine system would not provide the emergency contraception required for this patient, as it takes about 7 days to become effective. Therefore, it is not appropriate in this situation.
The standard dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg would be given to females who weigh less than 70 kg or have a BMI less than 26. However, in this case, it would be inappropriate due to the patient’s weight being over 70kg.
It would be risky to suggest to this patient that she doesn’t need to take another form of emergency contraception, as the initial pill may not have prevented ovulation during this cycle.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdomen pain, headache, flushing, anxiety, and restlessness during her menstrual cycle. Her symptoms improve as she approaches the end of her period. Blood tests reveal no apparent cause, and a symptom diary suggests a possible diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome.
According to NICE, which of the following is a potential treatment option for premenstrual syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Explanation:According to NICE, the treatment of premenstrual syndrome should be approached from various angles, taking into account the severity of symptoms and the patient’s preferences. Effective treatment options include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs taken orally, combined oral contraceptive, cognitive behavioural therapy and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. However, the copper intrauterine device, tricyclic antidepressants, diazepam and progestogen only pill are not recommended as treatment options.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are working in a community sexual health clinic. Your patient is a 17-year-old female who is complaining of vaginal discharge. She reports a 3 week history of 'clumpy' white discharge with no odour. She also reports itching and reddening of skin around the vaginal opening.
She has no relevant past medical history and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. Sexual history reveals that she has recently broken up with her long-term boyfriend, thus has a new sexual partner. She is concerned about the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection.
Based on the pH test result of a sample of the patient's discharge, what is the most appropriate treatment for the cause of her vaginal discharge?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole cream
Explanation:The patient has vaginal candidiasis, indicated by itching, reddening, and ‘curdy’ discharge with pH <4.5. Treatment with vaginal clotrimazole is appropriate. Other treatments are used for bacterial vaginosis, Trichomonas vaginalis, Chlamydia, and gonorrhoea infections. Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 24 hours ago and has not had any other instances of unprotected sex. She has no history of using emergency contraception or regular contraception. Her last menstrual period was 12 days ago, and she has a regular 30-day cycle. She has a medical history of severe asthma and takes oral steroids. She declines the use of an intrauterine device.
On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and her body-mass index is 35 kg/m2.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer the patient levonorgestrel 3 mg, and advice the patient to perform a pregnancy test within 3-weeks
Explanation:It is incorrect to advise the patient that she doesn’t require emergency contraception as she is at risk of pregnancy. Although oral emergency contraception may not be effective if taken after ovulation, the patient’s last menstrual period was only 10 days ago, making it a potential option. The patient has declined an intrauterine device, which is the most effective option, but should not be pressured into using it for emergency contraception. Ulipristal acetate is not recommended for the patient due to her severe asthma and use of oral steroids. It is important to note that patients with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70 kg should be given a double dose of levonorgestrel for emergency contraception. Additionally, it is crucial to discuss ongoing contraception and sexual health with the patient.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rubbery 3-cm swelling of the left breast disc. He has no past history of breast disease and is currently undergoing hormone therapy for prostatic cancer. His body mass index is 28 kg/m2. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia
Explanation:Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Gynaecomastia is a common condition characterized by the benign enlargement of male breast tissue. It affects more than 30% of men and can occur at any age, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition presents as a firm or rubbery mass that extends concentrically from the nipples. While usually bilateral, it can also be unilateral.
Gynaecomastia can be classified as physiological or pathological. Physiological gynaecomastia is seen in newborns, adolescents during puberty, and elderly men with low testosterone levels. Pathological causes include lack of testosterone, increased estrogen levels, liver disease, and obesity. Drugs, such as finasteride and spironolactone, can also cause gynaecomastia in adults.
In this scenario, the patient is likely being treated with a gonadorelin analogue for prostate cancer, which can cause side effects similar to orchidectomy. While the patient is overweight, his body mass index doesn’t meet the definition of obesity.
It is important to note that male breast cancer accounts for only 1% of all breast cancer cases. While unilateral swelling may increase the likelihood of breast cancer, other factors such as rapid growth, a hard irregular swelling, or a size greater than 5cm should also be considered.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for gynaecomastia can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and seek appropriate medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with an eight month history of amenorrhoea. She started her periods aged 14.
Over the last three years she tells you that she has had irregular infrequent periods. She has gone three to four months between periods in the past but never more than this until now. She was last sexually active four months ago and tells you she has done three pregnancy tests over the last four weeks, which have all been negative. She is not currently in a relationship and has no desire for contraception at present.
She is not taking any prescribed medication but uses over-the-counter acne treatments. Her body mass index is 31 kg/m2, she has a small amount of hair growth on her chin, abdominal and pelvic examinations are normal.
She is investigated further and her blood results show:
LH 11.8 (0.5-14.5)
FSH 4.2 (1-11)
Testosterone 3.5 (0.8-3.1)
Prolactin 512 (90-520)
Fasting glucose 6.3 (<6.0)
HbA1c 37 mmol/mol -
TSH and T4 are within normal limits.
She has no desire for pregnancy at present and has only attended as she was concerned with regard to the frequency of her periods. Which of the following should you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is no need to refer for ultrasound scanning if the diagnosis of PCOS is obvious on clinical and biochemical grounds
Explanation:Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is diagnosed based on the Rotterdam criteria, which requires the presence of at least two of the following: oligo/anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scanning. Patients may be asymptomatic or present with menstrual disturbance, infertility, obesity, male pattern hair loss, hirsutism, and acne. Blood tests can support the diagnosis, with elevated LH and testosterone levels being common findings. Mild prolactinaemia and insulin resistance may also be present. Ultrasound scanning is not necessary if the diagnosis is obvious on clinical and biochemical grounds. Confirming the diagnosis is important to rule out other potential causes and to monitor for associated health problems such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and endometrial cancer. Women with PCOS should have regular periods or progesterone-induced withdrawal bleeds to reduce the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents for contraceptive advice. She wishes to resume taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after a 12-year hiatus due to a new relationship. She is in good health with no significant medical history, but she does smoke occasionally, averaging 2-3 cigarettes per day. Her body mass index (BMI) is 26 kg/m².
According to the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), what is the most appropriate advice to provide regarding the COCP?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The disadvantages outweigh the advantages and alternative methods should be used
Explanation:The FSRH has issued UKMEC recommendations for the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) due to the heightened risk of cardiovascular disease. According to these guidelines, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 2 for individuals under the age of 35. For those over the age of 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes per day, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 3. However, for those over the age of 35 who smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day, the COCP is classified as UKMEC 4. Progestogen-only contraceptives, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and are therefore classified as UKMEC 1, regardless of the patient’s age or cigarette intake.
The choice of contraceptive for women may be affected by comorbidities. The FSRH provides UKMEC recommendations for different conditions. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular disease, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women under 35 and UKMEC 3 for those over 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes/day, but is UKMEC 4 for those who smoke more. Obesity increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² and UKMEC 3 for those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or more. The COCP is contraindicated for women with a history of migraine with aura, but is UKMEC 3 for those with migraines without aura and UKMEC 2 for initiation. For women with epilepsy, consistent use of condoms is recommended in addition to other forms of contraception. The choice of contraceptive for women taking anti-epileptic medication depends on the specific medication, with the COCP and POP being UKMEC 3 for most medications, while the implant is UKMEC 2 and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS are UKMEC 1. Lamotrigine has different recommendations, with the COCP being UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS being UKMEC 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Sadia is a 32-year-old woman who has come with complaints of cyclical breast pain. What would be the initial recommended course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A supportive bra
Explanation:The initial approach to treating cyclical mastalgia involves a supportive bra and basic pain relief measures like paracetamol, ibuprofen, or topical NSAIDs. Codeine is not the preferred first-line option. The evidence is inadequate to suggest reducing caffeine intake or using the progestogen-only pill. A systematic review revealed that evening primrose oil is not superior to placebo.
Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering that she is pregnant. She had the Mirena coil inserted for heavy periods approximately nine months ago. She inquires about whether she needs to have her Mirena coil removed.
What is the appropriate guidance concerning the removal of the Mirena coil?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Mirena coil should not be removed if the pregnancy is diagnosed after 12 weeks gestation
Explanation:Contraception and Pregnancy
When a woman becomes pregnant while using contraception, it is usually recommended to stop or remove the method. However, it is important to note that contraceptive hormones do not typically harm the fetus.
If an intrauterine method is in place when pregnancy is diagnosed, the woman should be informed of the potential risks of leaving it in-situ, such as second-trimester miscarriage, preterm delivery, and infection. While removal in the first trimester carries a small risk of miscarriage, it may reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. If the threads of the intrauterine contraceptive are visible or can be retrieved, it should be removed up to 12 weeks gestation, but not after this point.
Overall, it is important for women to discuss their contraceptive options with their healthcare provider and to inform them if they suspect they may be pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on switching from the progesterone-only pill to combined oral contraception due to irregular bleeding. She is concerned about the risk of blood clotting adverse effects but there are no contraindications to the combined pill. What advice should be given to her regarding additional contraception when making the switch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7-days of additional barrier contraception is needed
Explanation:When switching from a traditional POP to COCP, 7 days of barrier contraception is needed. The safest option is to recommend 7 days of barrier contraception while commencing the combined oral contraceptive to prevent unwanted pregnancy. 10 or 14 days of additional barrier contraception is not required, and 3 days is too short. It is safest to recommend 7 days of additional contraception.
Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Concurrent Antibiotic Use:
In the UK, doctors have previously advised that taking antibiotics concurrently with the combined oral contraceptive pill may interfere with the enterohepatic circulation of oestrogen, making the pill ineffective. As a result, extra precautions were advised during antibiotic treatment and for seven days afterwards. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines, abandoning the previous approach. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated in line with this guidance. Precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.Switching Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills:
The BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice on switching combined oral contraceptive pills. The Clinical Effectiveness Unit of the FSRH has stated in the Combined Oral Contraception guidelines that the pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted. However, the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given the uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A breastfeeding mother who is 4 weeks postpartum presents with right sided nipple pain. She describes sharp pain during feeds which eases afterwards. She has been seeing her health visitor for baby weighing and he is growing along the 75th centile, but she has not had an observed feed. She doesn't have any concerns about the baby. On examination you notice some fissuring on the right nipple inferiorly but otherwise examination is normal. She is afebrile.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nipple damage from inefficient infant attachment (‘latch’)
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers may experience nipple damage due to poor latch, which can cause pain and fissuring. This is often caused by incorrect positioning and attachment of the baby to the breast. It is important to seek help from a breastfeeding expert to improve positioning and address any underlying issues, such as tongue tie.
Nipple candidiasis can cause burning pain, itching, and hypersensitivity in both nipples, as well as deep breast pain. A bacterial infection may result in purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Vasospasm, also known as Raynaud’s disease of the nipple, can cause intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as blanching, cyanosis, and/or erythema.
If a breastfeeding mother experiences itching and a dry, scaly rash on both nipples, it may be a sign of eczema. For more information and guidance on breastfeeding problems, consult the NICE clinical knowledge summary and the GP infant feeding network.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. On ultrasound examination, ascites is observed. Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cells (WBC): 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
- Sodium (Na+): 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145 mmol/L)
- Potassium (K+): 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
- Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 mmol/L)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120 µmol/L)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 8 mg/L (normal range: <5 mg/L)
- Hematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48)
What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy
Explanation:Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a result of ovulation induction, as seen in this case with symptoms such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit. Different medications can be used for ovulation induction, with gonadotrophin therapy carrying a higher risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome compared to other options like clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. It is likely that the patient in question was given gonadotrophin therapy.
Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories
Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.
There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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