00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of severe abdominal pain that has worsened over the past few hours. She has vomited twice and feels lightheaded. Upon examination, she experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Her vital signs are stable, except for a mild tachycardia. A urine pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy. An ultrasound performed by the Obstetrics SHO reveals an empty uterus but shows a 40mm pregnancy in her left fallopian tube. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: She should be managed medically with methotrexate

      Correct Answer: She should be taken to theatre for surgical management

      Explanation:

      If an ectopic pregnancy is larger than 35mm or has a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, surgical intervention is necessary. The patient in this scenario is experiencing symptoms such as pain and dizziness, and her tachycardia indicates a risk of instability. While she is currently stable, surgical management should be performed promptly. A laparotomy is not immediately necessary, but the procedure should be carried out as soon as possible. Waiting for a blood hCG is unnecessary, and medical management is not appropriate.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents at her booking visit...

    Correct

    • A patient with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents at her booking visit at 38 weeks’ gestation. Her booking blood tests include a CD4 count of 480 and a viral load of 40 copies/ml. She is not currently on any antiretrovirals. She wishes to have a vaginal delivery if possible.
      Which of the following best describes this patient’s HIV management during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Combined antiretroviral therapy starting by 24 weeks and continuing lifelong

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral Therapy Options for Pregnant Women with HIV

      The British HIV Association recommends that all pregnant women who are HIV-positive should be started on combined antiretroviral therapy in the second trimester and continue it lifelong. This therapy consists of three agents. Even if the viral load is low, antiretroviral therapy is still recommended.

      For women who refuse combined antiretroviral therapy, zidovudine monotherapy can be offered if the patient has a CD4 count of > 350 and a viral load of < 10 000 copies/ml and agrees to a Caesarean section. This option is less effective than combined therapy but can still be considered. If zidovudine monotherapy is chosen, it should be started in the second trimester and continued until delivery. During delivery, a zidovudine infusion should be running. If the viral load remains < 50 copies/ml, a planned vaginal delivery can be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from a nurse regarding a delivery where the baby's head has been delivered, but the shoulders are not descending with normal downward traction. What is your initial step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the mother to hyperflex their legs and apply suprapubic pressure

      Explanation:

      In cases where the previous method is unsuccessful, an episiotomy may be necessary to facilitate internal maneuvers. Various alternatives may be considered, such as…

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward....

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 162/94 mmHg. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive to start?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are observing an antenatal clinic and your next patient is a 26-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are observing an antenatal clinic and your next patient is a 26-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant with her first child. Take a brief history of this patient.

      The patient has a past medical history of coeliac disease and hypothyroidism. She takes no regular medications and has no known drug allergies. Her family history is relevant for her father has type 1 diabetes. She has never smoked and since pregnancy, has stopped drinking alcohol.

      What additional tests, if any, should be arranged for this patient based on her medical history?

      Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a first-degree relative with diabetes should be screened for gestational diabetes with an OGTT at 24-28 weeks. No further tests are required, but thyroid function tests should be done in each trimester for those with an existing diagnosis of hypothyroidism. OGTT should not be done at 18-22 weeks.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdominal pain that is not relieved by painkillers. She has no significant medical history. During the evaluation, her GP conducts a pregnancy test, which comes back positive. The patient is immediately referred to the hospital, where a transvaginal ultrasound confirms an ectopic pregnancy in the left tube. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an ectopic pregnancy, the treatment plan will depend on various factors such as the size and location of the pregnancy, the patient’s overall health, and the potential impact on their fertility. If the pregnancy is small and the patient’s health is stable, they may be able to receive medication to dissolve the pregnancy. However, if the pregnancy is larger or causing severe symptoms, surgery may be necessary.

      In cases where surgery is required, the surgeon may attempt to preserve the affected fallopian tube if possible. However, if the tube is severely damaged or the patient has other factors that may affect their fertility, such as age or previous fertility issues, the surgeon may opt to remove the tube completely. This decision will also depend on the patient’s desire for future fertility and the likelihood of requiring further treatment with methotrexate or a salpingectomy. If the patient’s contralateral tube is unaffected, complete removal of the affected tube may be the most appropriate course of action.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal visit. She has a history of unprovoked VTE, and the physician discusses thromboprophylaxis with her. What treatment pathway should be followed based on her risk?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) antenatally + 6 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that causes resistance to the breakdown of Factor V by activated Protein C, leading to an increased risk of blood clots. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.37a) for preventing blood clots in pregnant women with this condition. As this patient has a history of VTE, she is at high risk during and after pregnancy and requires both antenatal and postnatal thromboprophylaxis. It is important to note that postnatal prophylaxis must be given for six weeks following antenatal prophylaxis.

      Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.

      Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.

      In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy with an itchy rash that appeared this morning on her arms, legs, and trunk. She also has vesicles on her palms. She mentions feeling unwell for the past two days and experiencing a headache. Last week, she visited her niece in the hospital where a child was treated for a similar rash. Her vital signs are stable. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir and symptomatic relief

      Explanation:

      Managing Chickenpox in Pregnancy: Treatment and Care

      Chickenpox is a common childhood disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. When a pregnant woman contracts chickenpox, it can have detrimental effects on the fetus. However, with proper management and care, the risk of complications can be minimized.

      Oral acyclovir is recommended for pregnant women who develop chickenpox within 24 hours of the rash appearing and are at or over 20 weeks’ gestation. Symptomatic relief, such as adequate fluid intake, wearing light cotton clothing, and using paracetamol or soothing moisturizers, can also help alleviate discomfort.

      Immediate admission to secondary care is necessary for women with severe symptoms, immunosuppression, haemorrhagic rash, or neurological or respiratory symptoms. Women with mild disease can be cared for in the community and should avoid contact with susceptible individuals until the rash has crusted over.

      An immediate fetal growth scan is not necessary unless there are other obstetric indications or concerns. Women who develop chickenpox in pregnancy should have a fetal growth scan at least 5 weeks after the primary infection to detect any possible fetal defects.

      Varicella immunisation is not useful in this scenario, as it is a method of passive protection against chickenpox and not a treatment. Termination of pregnancy is not indicated for chickenpox in pregnancy, but the patient should be informed of the risks to the fetus and possible congenital abnormalities.

      Overall, proper management and care can help minimize the risk of complications from chickenpox in pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to seek medical care if symptoms worsen or if there are any concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her rubella...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her rubella status. Her sister's child has recently been diagnosed with rubella, and she is currently 10 weeks pregnant. What is the initial course of action you would recommend?

      Your Answer: Give MMR vaccine immediately

      Correct Answer: Discuss immediately with the local Health Protection Unit

      Explanation:

      In case of suspected rubella during pregnancy, it is important to consult with the local Health Protection Unit for guidance on appropriate investigations to conduct. If the mother is found to be non-immune to rubella, the MMR vaccine should be administered after childbirth, although the risk of transmission to the fetus is uncertain. If transmission does occur, particularly during this stage of pregnancy, it can cause significant harm to the developing fetus. Hospitalization is not necessary at this point.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally to a healthy baby girl after a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally to a healthy baby girl after a normal pregnancy. What is a third-degree tear of the perineum?

      Your Answer: Injury to the perineum involving the anal sphincter complex

      Explanation:

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitate labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a check-up. The baby was born...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a check-up. The baby was born at 38 weeks gestation and weighed 4.5kg at birth. During the examination, the doctor observes adduction and internal rotation of the right arm. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior shoulder dislocation

      Correct Answer: Erb's palsy

      Explanation:

      If a baby has a birth weight greater than 4kg, regardless of their gestational age, they are diagnosed with foetal macrosomia. This condition can cause dystocia, which may result in injuries to both the mother and baby. Dystocia may also require an operative vaginal delivery or Caesarean-section. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of damage to the upper brachial plexus, resulting in Erb’s palsy. This condition is characterized by the arm being adducted and internally rotated, with the forearm pronated, commonly referred to as the ‘waiter’s tip’. Damage to the lower brachial plexus can cause Klumpke’s palsy, which commonly affects the nerves that innervate the muscles of the hand.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 46-year-old primiparous woman, who is 37 weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old primiparous woman, who is 37 weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of painful vaginal bleeding. She had been feeling unwell for a few days, experiencing lightheadedness upon standing. Despite being pregnant, she has not sought antenatal care, except for her initial booking visit. Upon examination, her heart rate is 130 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 21 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 96/65 mmHg. Her abdomen is tense, with a firm and fixed uterus. What is the most likely risk factor for this complication in this pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Older age

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes becomes pregnant.
    Which of the following statements...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes becomes pregnant.
      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: There is an increased risk of polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Diabetes in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, diabetic patients are at an increased risk of developing polyhydramnios, which is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid index is >25 cm or if the deepest vertical pool is >8 cm. Contrary to popular belief, fetal macrosomia is a risk of a diabetic pregnancy, rather than microsomia. All patients should be treated with insulin because this has no teratogenic effects, in contrast to oral hypoglycaemics. The mortality rate from DKA in pregnant patients approaches 50%, so very close monitoring and counselling about the importance of good diabetic control are essential. Hypertension in pregnancy may be treated with other anti-hypertensives, eg labetalol or methyldopa, as ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy because they are associated with oligohydramnios.

      Debunking Common Myths about Diabetes in Pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26 year-old woman with type 1 diabetes arrives at the maternity department...

    Correct

    • A 26 year-old woman with type 1 diabetes arrives at the maternity department at 25+3 weeks gestation with tightness and a thin watery discharge. Her pregnancy has been uneventful thus far, with all scans showing normal results. She maintains good diabetes control by using an insulin pump.

      During a speculum examination, no fluid is observed, and the cervical os is closed. A fetal fibronectin (fFN) test is conducted, which returns a positive result of 300.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit for 2 doses IM steroids and monitor BMs closely, adjusting pump accordingly

      Explanation:

      Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein that is released from the gestational sac and is associated with early labor if levels are high. However, a positive result does not guarantee premature labor. Obstetric teams can use this information to prepare for the possibility of premature labor by informing neonatal intensive care and administering steroids to aid in neonatal lung maturity. In this case, the patient is at high risk for premature labor and experiencing tightenings, so further monitoring is necessary before discharge.

      Antibiotics may be necessary if the patient had spontaneously ruptured her membranes, but in this case, a history of watery discharge without fluid seen on speculum examination and a closed os is not enough to initiate antibiotic therapy. However, swabs and urine cultures should be obtained to screen for infection and treat as appropriate since infection can be a factor in premature labor.

      Administering steroids can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics, so blood glucose measurements should be closely monitored. Hyperglycemia in the mother can have adverse effects on the fetus, so hourly blood glucose measurements should be taken, and additional insulin given as needed. If blood glucose levels are difficult to control, a sliding scale should be initiated according to local protocol.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      70.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational diabetes presents in her second pregnancy. She is at eight weeks’ gestation and attends the midwife booking visit.
      What is the most suitable test to diagnose gestational diabetes in this patient?

      Your Answer: A 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24–28 weeks

      Correct Answer: A 2-hour OGTT as soon as possible following the booking visit

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a condition where pregnant women experience high blood sugar levels. It is diagnosed through a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy. Women with risk factors such as a BMI over 30, a previous macrosomic baby, a family history of diabetes, or from an area with high diabetes prevalence should be offered the test. Random serum glucose, fasting serum glucose, HbA1c, and urinalysis are not recommended for diagnosis. Gestational diabetes can have negative effects on both the mother and fetus, including fetal macrosomia, stillbirth, neonatal hypoglycemia, and an increased risk of type II diabetes and obesity in the baby’s later life. Women with pre-existing diabetes should have their HbA1c monitored monthly and at booking to assess pregnancy risk, but HbA1c is not used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Early detection and management of gestational diabetes is crucial to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman is in labor with her first baby. In the second...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is in labor with her first baby. In the second stage, fetal distress is detected, and instrumental delivery is being considered. What would be a contraindication to this procedure?

      Your Answer: Head palpable abdominally

      Explanation:

      Instrumental delivery is a method used to expedite delivery during the second stage of labor in order to prevent fetal and maternal morbidity. It involves the use of traction and is indicated in cases of prolonged active second stage, maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, breech presentation, and prophylactic use in medical conditions such as cardiovascular disease and hypertension. It can also be used to rotate a malpositioned fetal head.

      To be eligible for instrumental delivery, the following requirements must be met, which can be remembered using the acronym FORCEPS:

      – Fully dilated cervix, indicating that the second stage of labor has been reached
      – Occiput anterior (OA) position, preferably with the head in the occiput posterior (OP) position, as delivery is possible with Kielland’s forceps and ventouse. The position of the head must be known to avoid maternal or fetal trauma and failure.
      – Ruptured membranes
      – Cephalic presentation
      – Engaged presenting part, meaning that the head is at or below the ischial spines and cannot be palpated abdominally
      – Pain relief
      – Sphincter (bladder) empty, which usually requires catheterization

      It is important to note that there must be a clear indication for instrumental delivery.

      When is a Forceps Delivery Necessary?

      A forceps delivery may be necessary in certain situations during childbirth. These situations include fetal distress, maternal distress, failure to progress, and the need to control the head in a breech delivery. Fetal distress occurs when the baby is not receiving enough oxygen and can be detected through changes in the baby’s heart rate. Maternal distress can occur when the mother is exhausted or experiencing complications such as high blood pressure. Failure to progress refers to a situation where the mother has been pushing for an extended period of time without making progress. In a breech delivery, the baby’s head may need to be controlled to prevent injury. In these situations, a forceps delivery may be recommended by the healthcare provider to safely deliver the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old woman undergoes a vaginal delivery and is examined on the ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman undergoes a vaginal delivery and is examined on the ward after the placenta is delivered. The examination shows a minor tear on the perineum without any muscle involvement. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Suture on the ward or in theatre

      Correct Answer: No repair required

      Explanation:

      A first-degree perineal tear typically does not need suturing.

      In the case of this woman, she has a first-degree perineal tear that only affects the surface of the perineum and does not involve any muscles. Therefore, no repair is necessary as these types of tears usually heal on their own.

      The answer glue on the ward is incorrect because first-degree perineal tears do not require closure and should be left to heal naturally. Additionally, glue is not suitable for use in the perineal area and is only appropriate for small, straight, superficial, low-tension wounds.

      Similarly, staples in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears do not require repair and will heal on their own. Staples are not recommended for use in the perineal region.

      The answer suture in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears typically do not require suturing and can be left to heal on their own. If suturing is necessary for a first-degree tear, it can be done on the ward by a trained practitioner. Only third or fourth-degree tears require repair in a theatre setting under regional or general anaesthesia.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and lethargy. She is in her 38th week of pregnancy and has never been pregnant before. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced and has a temperature of 37.7ºC. Her blood pressure and heart rate are normal.

      The results of her blood tests are as follows:
      - Bilirubin: 80 µmol/l
      - ALP: 240 u/l
      - ALT: 550 u/l
      - AST: 430 u/l
      - γGT: 30 u/l
      - INR: 1.8
      - Hb: 110 g/l
      - Platelets: 331 * 109/l
      - WBC: 12.5 * 109/l

      An acute viral hepatitis screen comes back negative. An urgent US doppler liver shows steatosis with patent hepatic and portal vessels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Based on the presented symptoms, the most probable diagnosis is acute fatty liver of pregnancy. This is supported by the presence of jaundice, mild fever, elevated liver function tests, increased white blood cell count, coagulopathy, and steatosis on imaging. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy typically presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea, whereas cholestasis of pregnancy is characterized by severe itching. The absence of abnormalities in hemoglobin, platelet count, and viral screening makes the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis unlikely. Additionally, pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria. It is important to note that placental ALP can cause an increase in serum ALP levels during pregnancy.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman contacts her GP via telephone. She is currently 20 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman contacts her GP via telephone. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and has had no complications thus far. However, she is now concerned as she recently spent time with her niece who has developed a rash that her sister suspects to be chickenpox. The patient is unsure if she had chickenpox as a child, but she had no symptoms until the past 24 hours when she developed a rash. She feels fine otherwise but is worried about the health of her baby. What is the most appropriate course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir

      Explanation:

      When pregnant women who are at least 20 weeks along contract chickenpox, they are typically prescribed oral acyclovir if they seek treatment within 24 hours of the rash appearing. This is in accordance with RCOG guidelines and is an important topic for exams. If the patient is asymptomatic after being exposed to chickenpox and is unsure of their immunity, a blood test should be conducted urgently. If the test is negative, VZIG should be administered. However, if the patient is certain that they are not immune to chickenpox, VZIG should be given without the need for a blood test. It is incorrect to administer both VZIG and oral acyclovir once symptoms of chickenpox have appeared, as VZIG is no longer effective at that point. Intravenous acyclovir is only necessary in cases of severe chickenpox.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - As the junior doctor on the labour ward, you are summoned to attend...

    Correct

    • As the junior doctor on the labour ward, you are summoned to attend a first delivery of a 26-year-old patient. The patient experienced spontaneous preterm rupture of membranes at 34 weeks, and now the umbilical cord is palpable above the level of the introitus. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus

      Explanation:

      In the event of cord prolapse, which occurs when the umbilical cord descends below the presenting part of the fetus after membrane rupture, fetal hypoxia and death can occur due to cord compression or spasm. To prevent compression, tocolytics should be administered and a Caesarean delivery should be performed. The patient should be advised to assume an all-fours position. It is important not to push the cord back into the uterus. The preferred method of delivery is an immediate Caesarean section.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (12/20) 60%
Passmed