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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old female comes to ask you about cervical screening.

    She recently received...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female comes to ask you about cervical screening.

      She recently received a letter inviting her to make an appointment at the surgery for a cervical smear. She tells you that she is in a relationship with another woman and has never had sexual intercourse with a man. Her partner had told her that as this was the case she doesn't need to have a smear.

      Which of the following patient groups are not eligible for routine cervical screening as part of the national cervical screening programme?

      Your Answer: Women who have never been sexually active

      Correct Answer: Women over the age of 65

      Explanation:

      Cervical Screening in the UK

      Cervical screening is recommended for all women in England aged 25-64, and from 20 onwards in Wales and Scotland. This screening is important because certain human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes underlie the development of almost all cases of cervical cancer. HPV is transmitted during sexual intercourse and intimate sexual contact, and even homosexual women can still pass the virus on to female partners.

      Women who have been vaccinated as part of the national HPV programme will be protected against the main two HPV subtypes that cause the majority of cervical cancers, but there are other less common subtypes that can lead to cervical cancer that they are not vaccinated against. Women with a previously abnormal smear require follow up either with further smears or referral for colposcopy/treatment depending on the exact abnormalities detected.

      Women who have never been sexually active would be very low risk so following discussion with their GP often may decide not to participate in cervical screening. However, they are eligible to be screened routinely and would be offered screening. The only group above who are not eligible for routine cervical screening are women over the age of 65. Routine screening runs up to the age of 64. However, if a woman has abnormalities that require further follow up smears then this would of course be done beyond the age of 65 if clinically indicated.

      In summary, cervical screening is an important part of women’s health in the UK, and all women should consider participating in routine screening to help prevent cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old lady presents following an ultrasound pelvis which found a 2cm fibroid....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old lady presents following an ultrasound pelvis which found a 2cm fibroid. This was an incidental finding and on direct questioning, she reports no menorrhagia, no compressive symptoms and no history of difficulties conceiving. On examination, her abdomen was soft and non tender.

      What is the MOST SUITABLE NEXT step in management?

      Your Answer: Repeat ultrasound in one year

      Explanation:

      Management of Asymptomatic Fibroids in Women

      The absence of menorrhagia is an important point to note in the management of asymptomatic fibroids in women. According to guidelines, annual follow-up to monitor size and growth is recommended for such cases. However, routine referral to a gynaecologist is not required unless there are symptoms that have not improved despite initial treatments, complications, fertility or obstetric problems associated with fibroids, or a suspicion of malignancy. Treatment options for menorrhagia associated with fibroids are available but have no role in the management of small asymptomatic fibroids. NSAIDs and/or tranexamic acid should be stopped if symptoms have not improved within three menstrual cycles. It is important to consider these factors when managing asymptomatic fibroids in women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman visits her GP and asks for a blood test to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her GP and asks for a blood test to confirm menopause. She reports experiencing tolerable vaginal dryness and her last menstrual period was 10 months ago. However, she has had intermittent vaginal bleeding in the past week, which has left her confused. Upon clinical examination, including a speculum examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for urgent hospital assessment

      Explanation:

      If a woman is 55 years or older and experiences postmenopausal bleeding (i.e. bleeding occurring more than 12 months after her last menstrual cycle), she should be referred through the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out endometrial cancer. As this woman is over 50 years old and has not had a menstrual cycle for over a year, she has reached menopause and doesn’t require blood tests to confirm it. The recent vaginal bleeding she has experienced is considered postmenopausal bleeding and requires further investigation to eliminate the possibility of endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on switching from the progesterone-only pill to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on switching from the progesterone-only pill to combined oral contraception due to irregular bleeding. She is concerned about the risk of blood clotting adverse effects but there are no contraindications to the combined pill. What advice should be given to her regarding additional contraception when making the switch?

      Your Answer: 7-days of additional barrier contraception is needed

      Explanation:

      When switching from a traditional POP to COCP, 7 days of barrier contraception is needed. The safest option is to recommend 7 days of barrier contraception while commencing the combined oral contraceptive to prevent unwanted pregnancy. 10 or 14 days of additional barrier contraception is not required, and 3 days is too short. It is safest to recommend 7 days of additional contraception.

      Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Concurrent Antibiotic Use:
      In the UK, doctors have previously advised that taking antibiotics concurrently with the combined oral contraceptive pill may interfere with the enterohepatic circulation of oestrogen, making the pill ineffective. As a result, extra precautions were advised during antibiotic treatment and for seven days afterwards. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines, abandoning the previous approach. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated in line with this guidance. Precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Switching Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills:
      The BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice on switching combined oral contraceptive pills. The Clinical Effectiveness Unit of the FSRH has stated in the Combined Oral Contraception guidelines that the pill-free interval doesn’t need to be omitted. However, the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given the uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 5 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 18 months ago...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 18 months ago and the result showed positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) with a negative cytology report.

      She has now undergone a repeat smear and the result is once again positive for hrHPV with a negative cytology report.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Repeat sample in 12 months

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines for cervical cancer screening, if a person’s first repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), they should have another smear test 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months after the initial test). If the person remains hrHPV positive but has negative cytology results at 12 and 24 months, they should be referred to colposcopy. However, if they become hrHPV negative at 24 months, they can return to routine recall.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 6 - What is a risk factor for breast cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Nulliparity

      Correct Answer: Younger first time mothers

      Explanation:

      Factors affecting breast cancer risk

      Breast cancer risk is influenced by various factors. Women who experience late menopause, early menarche, and use combined oral contraceptive pills are at an increased risk of developing breast cancer. Additionally, older first-time mothers are also at a higher risk. However, childbearing can reduce the risk of breast cancer. According to Cancer Research UK, women who have had children have a 30% lower risk of developing breast cancer compared to those who have not.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 7 - You are reviewing the results of a cervical smear test for a 33-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing the results of a cervical smear test for a 33-year-old patient. The test has come back as high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) negative and it is noted that this is a repeat test. Upon further review, you see that this is the patient's second repeat test following an abnormal result at a routine screening 2 years ago. Her last test was 6 months ago when she tested hrHPV positive. Cytologically normal. She has not been invited for a colposcopy.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in this case?

      Your Answer: Return to routine recall (in 3 years)

      Explanation:

      If the results of the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months show that the patient is now negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the appropriate action is to return to routine recall in 3 years. This is based on the assumption that the patient had an initial abnormal smear 2 years ago, which showed hrHPV positive but with normal cytology. The patient then had a repeat test at 12 months, which also showed hrHPV positive but with normal cytology. If the patient had still been hrHPV positive, she would have been referred for colposcopy. However, since she is now negative, there is no need for further testing or repeat smear in 4 weeks or 12 months. It is also not necessary to check cytology on the sample as the latest cervical screening programme doesn’t require it if hrHPV is negative. It is important to note that transient hrHPV infection is common and doesn’t necessarily indicate a high risk of cervical cancer.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 8 - Samantha is a 26-year-old woman who complains of bilateral breast tenderness before her...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 26-year-old woman who complains of bilateral breast tenderness before her period. She also observes that her breasts feel lumpier than usual. The discomfort is unbearable, and she wants to know the best course of action. Since Samantha has just completed her menstrual cycle, there is no pain when her breasts are palpated, and there are no detectable lumps.

      What is the primary treatment option for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Cerazette

      Correct Answer: A supportive bra

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for cyclical mastalgia involves wearing a supportive bra and taking simple analgesia, as stated by NICE guidelines. This type of breast pain is linked to hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle. Simple analgesia options include paracetamol and NSAIDs, while codeine is not advised. The use of Cerazette, a progesterone-only contraceptive pill, may exacerbate breast tenderness. NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of vitamin E or primrose oil.

      Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 9 - A 17-year-old girl presents to you today. She is currently in a relationship...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to you today. She is currently in a relationship and has started having sexual intercourse while using condoms as contraception. She expresses her desire to switch to hormonal contraception and has chosen the combined contraceptive pill, Rigevidon, as she has no contraindications. During the consultation, you discover that she is on day 4 of her menstrual cycle. What guidance do you provide her regarding commencing the pill at this stage of her cycle?

      Your Answer: Start pill - there is no need for additional contraception

      Explanation:

      To avoid the need for additional barrier contraception, the woman should begin taking the pill immediately as she is currently menstruating and therefore not at risk of pregnancy. The combined contraceptive pill, except for Qlaira and Zoely, can be started within the first five days of a menstrual cycle without requiring further contraception. If started on day six or later, seven days of barrier contraception or abstinence is recommended. Waiting until day eight or the next menstrual period is unnecessary as the starting rules remain the same.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of vaginal itching and increased...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of vaginal itching and increased discharge with a peculiar consistency, but no odour. During the examination, the GP observes erythema in the areas surrounding her vagina, along with some clumpy white discharge. The patient reports experiencing dysuria but no abdominal pain, and her urine appears pale yellow. She also mentions having three similar episodes in the past year. What possible conditions should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to a specialist due to the frequency of vaginal infections

      Correct Answer: A blood test to rule out diabetes

      Explanation:

      In cases of recurrent vaginal candidiasis, it is important to consider a blood test to rule out diabetes as a potential underlying cause. This is because poorly controlled diabetes can increase the risk of Candida growth. While it is important to treat the symptoms of the infection, it is also crucial to investigate any predisposing factors that may be contributing to the recurrence.

      Measuring TSH, free T3 and T4 levels to rule out hyperthyroidism is not necessary as there is no link between an overactive thyroid and Candida infections. Similarly, mid-stream urine to rule out UTI is not necessary unless the patient’s symptoms suggest a urinary tract infection. Referral to a specialist is also not necessary as recurrent vaginal candidiasis can be managed in primary care with an induction-maintenance regimen of antifungals. Specialist referral may only be necessary if the infective organism is resistant to treatment or if it is a non-albicans Candida species.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having stopped...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having stopped breastfeeding her youngest child one week ago. She has a history of mastitis during breastfeeding her older children. On examination, a non-tender lump is found in the left breast at the three o'clock position, 4 cm away from the nipple. The skin overlying the lump appears unaffected. Her vital signs are as follows:

      Heart rate: 88, respiratory rate: 12, blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg, Oxygen saturation: 98%, Temperature: 37.4 Cº.

      What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

      Your Answer: Galactocele, fine need aspiration and cytology of fluid

      Correct Answer: Galactocele, no further investigation necessary

      Explanation:

      Galactocele and breast abscess can be distinguished based on clinical history and examination findings, without the need for further investigation. Recent discontinuation of breastfeeding is a common risk factor for both conditions. However, galactoceles are typically painless and non-tender on examination, with no signs of infection, while breast abscesses are usually associated with local or systemic signs of infection. Although the patient’s history of mastitis raises suspicion for a breast abscess, the absence of tenderness, erythema, and fever strongly suggests a galactocele in this case.

      Understanding Galactocele

      Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and doesn’t cause any local or systemic signs of infection.

      In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and doesn’t require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of severe pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of severe pain and swelling around her vagina, making it difficult for her to sit, walk or have sexual intercourse. Upon examination, the left side of the labia majora appears red and inflamed, and a 4 cm tender, warm, tense mass is present at the four o'clock position in the vulvar vestibule. The patient is treated with marsupialisation.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bartholin's abscess

      Explanation:

      Marsupialisation is the definitive treatment for Bartholin’s abscess, which presents with sudden pain and difficulty urinating. On examination, a hard mass with surrounding cellulitis is found at the site of the Bartholin’s glands in the vulvar vestibule. The abscess is caused by infection of the Bartholin’s cyst. Bartholin’s cyst, on the other hand, is caused by a buildup of mucous secretions from the Bartholin’s glands and is typically asymptomatic unless it grows larger. Inclusion cysts, which are caused by vaginal wall trauma, are usually small and found on the posterior vaginal wall. Skene’s gland cysts, which form when the duct is obstructed, may cause dyspareunia or urinary tract infection symptoms. Vesicovaginal fistulas, which allow urine to continuously discharge into the vaginal tract, require surgical treatment.

      Understanding Bartholin’s Abscess

      Bartholin’s glands are two small glands situated near the opening of the vagina. They are typically the size of a pea, but they can become infected and swell, resulting in a Bartholin’s abscess. This condition can be treated in a variety of ways, including antibiotics, the insertion of a word catheter, or a surgical procedure called marsupialization.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old woman who has undergone a hysterectomy seeks guidance regarding hormone replacement...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman who has undergone a hysterectomy seeks guidance regarding hormone replacement therapy. How does the use of a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation differ from an oestrogen-only preparation?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      To minimize the risk of breast cancer, it is recommended to avoid adding progestogen in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Therefore, women who have had a hysterectomy are usually prescribed oestrogen-only treatment. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), the risk of stroke remains unchanged regardless of whether the HRT preparation includes progesterone.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

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  • Question 14 - A 13-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother who wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother who wants to know more about HPV vaccination. Which of the following statements about HPV vaccination is not true?

      Your Answer: HPV is the main aetiological factor in the development of cervical cancer

      Correct Answer: Cervarix has the advantage over Gardasil of offering protection against genital warts

      Explanation:

      Protection against genital warts is an advantage offered by Gardasil, as opposed to Cervarix.

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.

      The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.

      Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 15 - Emma is a 27-year-old woman who visited her GP for a routine smear...

    Incorrect

    • Emma is a 27-year-old woman who visited her GP for a routine smear test. While conducting the test, a 2 cm lump was discovered just lateral to the introitus. Emma reported no accompanying symptoms.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Marsupialisation

      Correct Answer: Do nothing

      Explanation:

      Bartholin’s cysts that are asymptomatic do not need any treatment and can be managed conservatively.

      In cases where the cysts are recurrent or causing discomfort, marsupialisation or balloon catheter insertion can be considered as management options. These procedures have been shown to decrease the likelihood of recurrence.

      If an abscess is suspected, antibiotics may be necessary. Symptoms of an abscess include pain, swelling, redness, and fever.

      Women who are 40 years old or older should be referred for a biopsy to rule out the possibility of carcinoma.

      Bartholin’s cyst occurs when the Bartholin duct’s entrance becomes blocked, causing mucous to build up behind the blockage and form a mass. This blockage is usually caused by vulval oedema and is typically sterile. These cysts are often asymptomatic and painless, but if they become large, they may cause discomfort when sitting or superficial dyspareunia. On the other hand, Bartholin’s abscess is extremely painful and can cause erythema and deformity of the affected vulva. Bartholin’s abscess is more common than the cyst, likely due to the asymptomatic nature of the cyst in most cases.

      Bartholin’s cysts are usually unilateral and 1-3 cm in diameter, and they should not be palpable in healthy individuals. Limited data suggest that around 3000 in 100,000 asymptomatic women have Bartholin’s cysts, and these cysts account for 2% of all gynaecological appointments. The risk factors for developing Bartholin’s cyst are not well understood, but it is thought to increase in incidence with age up to menopause before decreasing. Having one cyst is a risk factor for developing a second.

      Asymptomatic cysts generally do not require intervention, but in older women, some gynaecologists may recommend incision and drainage with biopsy to exclude carcinoma. Symptomatic or disfiguring cysts can be treated with incision and drainage or marsupialisation, which involves creating a new orifice through which glandular secretions can drain. Marsupialisation is more effective at preventing recurrence but is a longer and more invasive procedure. Antibiotics are not necessary for Bartholin’s cyst without evidence of abscess.

      References:
      1. Berger MB, Betschart C, Khandwala N, et al. Incidental Bartholin gland cysts identified on pelvic magnetic resonance imaging. Obstet Gynecol. 2012 Oct;120(4):798-802.
      2. Kaufman RH, Faro S, Brown D. Benign diseases of the vulva and vagina. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Mosby; 2005:240-249.
      3. Azzan BB. Bartholin’s cyst and abscess: a review of treatment of 53 cases. Br J Clin Pract. 1978 Apr;32(4):101-2.

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  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal soreness, and decreased libido. She has not had a period in the past year and understands that she is going through menopause. The patient is interested in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but is worried about the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE).

      Which HRT option would be the safest for this patient in terms of her VTE risk?

      Your Answer: Transdermal HRT

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

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  • Question 17 - You are providing treatment for a 28-year-old female patient who has vulvovaginal Candida...

    Incorrect

    • You are providing treatment for a 28-year-old female patient who has vulvovaginal Candida infection using intravaginal and topical clotrimazole. Is there a form of contraception that may become less effective due to this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Condom

      Explanation:

      Patients should be cautioned that vaginal and topical imidazoles, such as clotrimazole, may harm barrier methods of contraception. However, there is no clear guidance on the duration of abstinence or use of non-barrier methods. According to NICE CKS, patients should avoid using barrier methods during treatment and for several days after stopping antifungal treatment.

      Limited evidence suggests that the combined oral contraceptive pill may contribute to the development of genital Candida infection. Patients with recurrent infections may benefit from switching to the progesterone depot injection. While the IUS increases the presence of Candida, it doesn’t increase the rate of symptomatic infection.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

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  • Question 18 - Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast....

    Incorrect

    • Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast. She has been breastfeeding her newborn daughter for the past four weeks. During her visit to the GP, the doctor notes the inflammation and a temperature of 38.2ºC. The GP diagnoses mastitis and prescribes medication while encouraging Jane to continue breastfeeding.

      Which organism is most commonly responsible for causing mastitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mastitis: Symptoms, Management, and Risks

      Mastitis is a condition that occurs when the breast tissue becomes inflamed, and it is commonly associated with breastfeeding. It affects approximately 1 in 10 women and is characterized by symptoms such as a painful, tender, and red hot breast, as well as fever and general malaise.

      The first-line management of mastitis is to continue breastfeeding, and simple measures such as analgesia and warm compresses can also be helpful. However, if a woman is systemically unwell, has a nipple fissure, or if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal, treatment with antibiotics may be necessary. The most common organism causing infective mastitis is Staphylococcus aureus, and the first-line antibiotic is oral flucloxacillin for 10-14 days. It is important to note that breastfeeding or expressing should continue during antibiotic treatment.

      If left untreated, mastitis can lead to the development of a breast abscess, which may require incision and drainage. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen. By understanding the symptoms, management, and risks associated with mastitis, women can take proactive steps to address this condition and ensure their overall health and well-being.

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  • Question 19 - A 23-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the possibility of pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the possibility of pregnancy after engaging in consensual, unprotected sexual intercourse last night. She is currently on day 10 of her menstrual cycle and had taken the morning-after-pill seven days ago after a similar incident. She had stopped taking her combined oral contraceptive pill four weeks ago and was scheduled to have a levonorgestrel intrauterine system inserted next week. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she has a height of 180cm and a weight of 74kg (BMI 22.8). What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel at double dose by mouth

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is to double the dose of levonorgestrel to 3 mg by mouth for this patient, as she has a weight of over 70kg, despite having a healthy BMI. This information is based on the BNF guidelines.

      Inserting a copper intrauterine device would not be the best option for this patient, as she already has plans for levonorgestrel device insertion and may be using it for additional hormonal benefits, such as reducing the heaviness of her bleeding.

      Inserting the levonorgestrel uterine system would not provide the emergency contraception required for this patient, as it takes about 7 days to become effective. Therefore, it is not appropriate in this situation.

      The standard dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg would be given to females who weigh less than 70 kg or have a BMI less than 26. However, in this case, it would be inappropriate due to the patient’s weight being over 70kg.

      It would be risky to suggest to this patient that she doesn’t need to take another form of emergency contraception, as the initial pill may not have prevented ovulation during this cycle.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

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  • Question 20 - You see a 40-year-old lady in your GP clinic who has recently started...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 40-year-old lady in your GP clinic who has recently started a new relationship and would like to discuss contraception with you. She is particularly interested in the progesterone-only implant (IMP).

      Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The IMP has not been shown to affect bone mineral density

      Explanation:

      The use of Nexplanon® IMP is not limited by age and is licensed for contraception for a period of 3 years. It contains 68 mg etonogestrel and doesn’t pose an increased risk of VTE, stroke, or MI. Additionally, it has not been found to have a significant impact on bone mineral density (BMD). While the progesterone-only injectable contraceptive may initially decrease BMD, this effect is not exacerbated by menopause.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old woman presents to your GP practice 8 months after receiving the...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to your GP practice 8 months after receiving the subdermal contraceptive implant (Nexplanon). She experienced light irregular bleeding for the first six months of implant use, but has since noticed a change in her bleeding pattern. She now experiences vaginal bleeding almost every day for the past two months. She denies any pain, dyspareunia, or change in vaginal discharge. She has not experienced any postcoital bleeding. Prior to receiving the implant, she had regular periods with a 28-day cycle and no intermenstrual bleeding. She has had one regular male partner for the past three months, and before that, she had a different regular male partner for six months. Her last normal smear test was three years ago.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinical examination of cervix and sexually transmitted infection screen

      Explanation:

      The FSRH advises that women who experience problematic bleeding for more than three months after starting the contraceptive implant should undergo a clinical examination, including a speculum, and be screened for sexually transmitted infections if they are at risk. If a woman is experiencing these symptoms, it is not recommended to repeat her smear test outside of the screening program. Instead, if her cervix appears abnormal, she should be referred for colposcopy.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

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  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also reported as normal. However, a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary while the right ovary and uterus appear normal. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.

      When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.

      For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.

      Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.

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  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of breast discharge. The discharge is...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of breast discharge. The discharge is only from her right breast and is blood-stained. The patient reports feeling fine and has no other symptoms. During the examination, both breasts appear normal with no skin changes. However, a tender and fixed lump is palpable beneath the right nipple. No additional masses are detected upon palpation of the axillae and tails of Spence.

      What is the probable diagnosis based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intraductal papilloma

      Explanation:

      Blood stained discharge from the nipple is most commonly associated with an intraductal papilloma, which is a benign tumor that develops within the milk ducts of the breast. Surgical excision is the recommended treatment for papillomas, with histology performed to rule out any signs of breast cancer.

      Breast fat necrosis, on the other hand, is typically caused by trauma and presents as a firm lump in the breast tissue. It is not associated with nipple discharge and usually resolves on its own.

      Fibroadenomas are another type of benign breast lump that are small, non-tender, and mobile. They do not cause nipple discharge and do not require treatment.

      Mammary duct ectasia is a condition where the breast ducts become dilated, often leading to blockage. It is most common in menopausal women and can cause nipple discharge, although this is typically thick, non-bloody, and green in color. Surgery may be necessary in some cases.

      While pituitary prolactinoma is a possible cause of nipple discharge, it typically presents as bilateral and non-bloodstained. Larger prolactinomas can also cause vision problems due to pressure on the optic chiasm.

      Understanding Nipple Discharge: Causes and Assessment

      Nipple discharge is a common concern among women, and it can be caused by various factors. Physiological discharge may occur during breastfeeding, while galactorrhea may be triggered by emotional events or certain medications. Hyperprolactinemia, pituitary tumors, mammary duct ectasia, and intraductal papilloma are other possible causes of nipple discharge.

      To assess patients with nipple discharge, a breast examination should be conducted to determine the presence of a mass lesion. If a mass is detected, triple assessment is recommended to evaluate the condition. Reporting of investigations should follow a system that uses a prefix denoting the type of investigation, such as M for mammography, followed by a numerical code indicating the findings.

      For non-malignant nipple discharge, endocrine disease should be excluded, and smoking cessation advice may be given for duct ectasia. In severe cases of duct ectasia, total duct excision may be necessary. Nipple cytology is generally unhelpful in diagnosing the cause of nipple discharge.

      Understanding the causes and assessment of nipple discharge is crucial in providing appropriate management and treatment for patients. Proper evaluation and reporting of investigations can help in identifying any underlying conditions and determining the best course of action.

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  • Question 24 - You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep pain during intercourse. Examination of the abdomen and pelvis was unremarkable. A recent GUM check-up and transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scan were normal. She is not keen to have any invasive tests at present.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Management of Endometriosis-Related Pain and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      When it comes to managing endometriosis-related pain, a trial of paracetamol or an NSAID (alone or in combination) is recommended as first-line treatment. If this proves ineffective, other forms of pain management, including neuropathic pain treatment, should be considered. Hormonal treatment, such as COCP and POP, is also a sensible first-line option for women with suspected or confirmed endometriosis.

      For pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), metronidazole + ofloxacin is often used as first-line treatment. However, there is no indication of this from the patient’s history. Referral to gynaecology would not add much at this stage, as they would likely offer the same options. Additionally, the patient is not keen on any surgical intervention at this point, which would include laparoscopy.

      It’s important to note that GnRH agonists are not routinely started in primary care. They are sometimes started by gynaecology as an adjunct to surgery for deep endometriosis. Overall, a tailored approach to management is necessary for both endometriosis-related pain and PID, taking into account the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman has reached out for a phone consultation to discuss her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has reached out for a phone consultation to discuss her recent cervical smear results. She underwent routine screening and is currently not experiencing any symptoms. Her last smear test was conducted 3 years ago and was normal. The results of her recent test are as follows:

      High-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV): POSITIVE.
      Cytology: NEGATIVE.

      What should be the next course of action in managing her case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 12 months

      Explanation:

      For individuals who test positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) but receive a negative cytology report during routine primary HPV screening, the recommended course of action is to repeat the HPV test after 12 months. If the HPV test is negative at this point, the individual can return to routine recall. However, if the individual remains hrHPV positive and cytology negative, another HPV test should be conducted after a further 12 months. If the individual is still hrHPV positive after 24 months, they should be referred to colposcopy. It is important to note that repeating the cervical smear in 3 months or waiting 3 years for a repeat smear would not be appropriate in this scenario. Additionally, routine referral to colposcopy is not necessary unless there is abnormal cytology.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain. She believes she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain. She believes she is approximately 8 weeks pregnant according to her last menstrual period and has been feeling fine until 5 days ago when she started experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort that has been gradually intensifying. What should be avoided during her evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examination for an adnexal mass

      Explanation:

      NICE advises against examining an adnexal mass as it may lead to rupture.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Women with ectopic pregnancy typically experience lower abdominal pain, which is often the first symptom. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen. Vaginal bleeding is another common symptom, which is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Women with ectopic pregnancy may also experience dizziness, fainting, or syncope.

      During a physical examination, doctors may find abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation, also known as cervical motion tenderness. However, they are advised not to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels above 1,500 suggest an ectopic pregnancy.

      In summary, ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Women who experience lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding should seek medical help immediately. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman who smokes 10 cigarettes per day presents for a consultation...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who smokes 10 cigarettes per day presents for a consultation regarding contraception. She has previously used an intra-uterine system but had it removed before getting pregnant with her child. She is now nine months postpartum and still breastfeeding. She has no significant medical history but was recently diagnosed with biliary colic and is awaiting review for a possible cholecystectomy. Her blood pressure is normal, and her BMI is 27 kg/m2.

      What is the primary factor that would discourage you from prescribing the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient's gallbladder disease

      Explanation:

      The combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) is not recommended for individuals with current gallbladder disease as per the United Kingdom Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) 3. This is because the risks of using COC outweigh the benefits, as it may increase the risk of gallbladder disease and worsen existing conditions. However, if the patient has undergone cholecystectomy or is asymptomatic, COC may be considered as per UKMEC 2.

      The patient’s age is not a factor in determining the suitability of COC in this scenario, as being aged 40 or over is the only age-related UKMEC 3.

      The patient’s BMI is within an acceptable range for COC use.

      Breastfeeding less than six weeks postpartum is not recommended as per UKMEC 4, as it poses an unacceptable risk to health. From two weeks to six months, it is UKMEC 2, and from six months onwards, it is UKMEC 1.

      Smoking ten cigarettes per day is only a UKMEC 3 if the patient is over 35 years of age.

      Contraindications for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential cautions and contraindications on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 represents a condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method, while UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, immobility, and a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension.

      In 2016, the UKMEC was updated to reflect that breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum is now classified as UKMEC 2 instead of UKMEC 3. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these contraindications when deciding whether to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill to their patients.

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  • Question 28 - Ms. Smith, a 28-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks into her first...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Smith, a 28-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks into her first pregnancy, presents with symptoms of vaginal thrush. After addressing her concerns, she inquires about pregnancy supplements. Ms. Smith has been taking a branded pregnancy multivitamin but wonders if it is necessary to continue taking it now that she is past the first trimester due to the cost. She is generally healthy, not taking any regular medications, and is receiving midwife-led care as her pregnancy has been deemed low risk. Additionally, there is no family history of spina bifida.

      What guidance should be provided to Ms. Smith?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid preconception and until 12 weeks gestation, vitamin D throughout the whole pregnancy (except summer months)

      Explanation:

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

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  • Question 29 - A 24-year-old female patient complains of dysuria, malaise, vaginal pain, fever, and myalgia....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female patient complains of dysuria, malaise, vaginal pain, fever, and myalgia. During a vaginal examination, several painful ulcerations are discovered around the vagina and perineum. Urinalysis shows trace leukocytes, no nitrites, and microscopic haematuria. Swabs are taken and sent for testing, and a urine MCS is also sent. What is the most suitable treatment for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valaciclovir twice daily for 10 days

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing genital ulcers and systemic symptoms due to a primary herpes simplex genital infection, which commonly causes painful ulcers. While waiting for swab results, treatment should be initiated with an antiviral such as valaciclovir for a longer course in an initial infection.

      If a simple urinary tract infection is suspected, trimethoprim for 3 days may be appropriate. However, dysuria and trace leukocytes can also be indicative of primary herpes simplex infection.

      Valaciclovir is the correct treatment for this patient, but a 3-day course is insufficient for a primary infection and would be more appropriate for a recurrence of genital herpes.

      If lymphogranuloma venereum is suspected, doxycycline daily for 7 days may be appropriate. However, this is less likely in this case as it typically leads to painless ulceration and is uncommon.

      If a complicated urinary tract infection is suspected, trimethoprim for 7 days may be appropriate. However, given the presence of painful ulceration, herpes infection is the most likely cause regardless of urinalysis results and dysuria.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old woman returns for review. She has been experiencing lower abdominal pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman returns for review. She has been experiencing lower abdominal pains and bloating for the last four to five months.

      She reports a history of constipation since her teenage years and uses lactulose as needed to ensure regular bowel movements. Currently, she has daily bowel movements with soft and easily passed stools. She denies any rectal bleeding or mucous passage and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding or discharge since her last period at age 50.

      On clinical examination, her abdomen feels soft and no masses are palpable.

      As part of her investigation in primary care, which tumour marker would be appropriate to request?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers in Clinical Contexts

      Tumour markers can be a useful tool in certain clinical contexts, but they are not a routine primary care investigation. One example of a valuable tumour marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian cancer. Ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms that can be easily attributed to more benign pathology, so a high index of suspicion is needed. The use of the CA125 tumour marker can be helpful in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer during initial primary care investigations.

      NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer that occur more than 12 times a month or for more than a month are offered CA125 testing. These symptoms include bloating, appetite loss, early satiety, abdominal pain, pelvic pain, urinary frequency/urgency, lethargy, weight loss, and change in bowel habit.

      Other tumour markers are typically specialist tests that would rarely, if at all, be requested in primary care. These markers are associated with other types of cancer, such as α fetoprotein for hepatocellular carcinoma, CEA for colonic carcinoma, CA19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and Chromogranin A for neuroendocrine tumours.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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