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  • Question 1 - A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with complaints of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with complaints of a headache, stiffness of the neck, and photophobia. Upon observation, the following were noted: HR 124, BP 86/43, RR 30, SaO 95%, temperature 39.5 deg C. A recently developed non-blanching rash on his legs was also observed.What is most likely the causative agent of the case presented above?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis group A

      Correct Answer: Neisseria meningitidis group B

      Explanation:

      The meningococcus is solely a human pathogen, and up to 50% of the population may carry meningococci in the nasopharynx. Factors that lead to invasion and production of disease include complex inter-relationships of genetic predisposition, host status, environmental conditions, and virulence of the organism.Meningococcal disease is the most common infectious cause of death in childhood in developed countries. It presents as septicaemia, meningitis, or a combination. Septicaemia is the more dangerous presentation, especially with septic shock; meningitis is more likely to lead to neurodevelopmental sequelae. Classic features of septicaemia are a non-blanching rash in a feverish, ill child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Alpha cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones: ...

    Correct

    • Alpha cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding gastric motility and emptying, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding gastric motility and emptying, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Gastric emptying is inhibited by the presence of the products of fat digestion in the duodenum.

      Explanation:

      Gastric emptying is decreased by the presence of fats in the duodenum (by stimulating release of cholecystokinin). Mixing of the food with gastric secretions takes place in the distal body and antrum of the stomach where the muscularis externa layer is thicker. The stomach has an additional inner oblique smooth muscle layer (in addition to the inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer). Gastric emptying is increased by a low gastric pH and decreased by a low duodenal pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The patients listed below have had wounds or injuries and were treated as...

    Incorrect

    • The patients listed below have had wounds or injuries and were treated as described in a local walk-in clinic.Which of the following patients has had adequate tetanus protection?

      Your Answer: 25-year-old from Romania, cut hand on a drinking glass, uncertain of vaccination history - receives immunoglobulin and vaccination

      Correct Answer: 80-year-old diabetic, a rusty nail went through his shoe and into his foot when walking in the woods, uncertain of vaccination history - receives vaccination and immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      25-year-old receives immunoglobulin and vaccination after cutting her hand on a drinking glass and not knowing her vaccination history.Because this is not a tetanus-prone wound, immunoglobulin is not recommended. Because you can’t be sure about her vaccination history, now is the best time to start a tetanus vaccination course to ensure coverage later in life. The first vaccination should be administered at the time of presentation; the patient’s own GP should then review the patient’s vaccination history and schedule the rest of the course as needed.8-year-old whose hand was cut with a kitchen knife, received her first round of vaccinations as a baby and a booster at the age of four – receives vaccination:The tetanus vaccinations for this child are up to date, and the next booster should not be given too soon. Immunoglobulin is not required because this is not a tetanus-prone wound.80-year-old diabetic, a rusty nail went through his shoe and into his foot while walking in the woods, and he was uncertain of his vaccination history – he received vaccination and immunoglobulin:A tetanus vaccination course may not have been completed by an 80-year-old UK resident (the vaccination was introduced in 1961). The vaccination should be given at a walk-in clinic, and the patient’s own GP should be contacted to confirm vaccination history and to schedule the rest of the course as needed. Because this is a tetanus-prone wound (puncture wound and potential soil contact), immunoglobulin would be recommended in a patient with incomplete tetanus vaccinations.A 28-year-old Polish man cuts his leg while working in the garden, the wound is heavily contaminated with soil, and his vaccination history is unknown – he receives vaccination:In a patient with an unknown vaccination history, this is a tetanus-prone wound. In this case, the best course of action would be to administer both the vaccination and immunoglobulin at the walk-in clinic, then contact the patient’s own GP to check his or her vaccination history and schedule the rest of the course as needed.30-year-old with a large amount of devitalized tissue in the torso from an electrical burn – has had all vaccinations, so no need for vaccination or immunoglobulin:Because this is a high-risk tetanus wound (with a lot of devitalized tissue), even if the patient has had a full course of vaccinations in the past, immunoglobulin is recommended. There is no need for any additional vaccinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunological Products & Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Gastrin release from antral G-cells is inhibited by all but which one of...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrin release from antral G-cells is inhibited by all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer: Somatostatin

      Correct Answer: Vagal stimulation

      Explanation:

      Gastrin secretion is inhibited by:Low gastric pH (negative feedback mechanism)SomatostatinSecretinGastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP)Cholecystokinin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Sodium nitroprusside

      Correct Answer: Nicardipine

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      143.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are instructed by a senior to administer Mannitol to an RTA patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are instructed by a senior to administer Mannitol to an RTA patient with increased intracranial pressure. Mannitol is a low molecular weight compound that freely filters at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed.Out of the following, which is a contraindication to the use of mannitol?

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Correct Answer: Severe pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure. It is recommended to use mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema in a dose of 0.25-2 g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.Mannitol has several contraindications and some of them are listed below:1. Anuria due to renal disease2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)3. Severe cardiac failure4. Severe dehydration5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?

      Your Answer: 25% of the mean arterial pressure over the first hour

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding Cryptococcus neoformans, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Cryptococcus neoformans, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Transmission is by inhalation of spores.

      Correct Answer: Patients with complement deficiency are at particular risk of infection.

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcus neoformans typically causes infection in patients with lymphoma, those taking steroid or cytotoxic therapy, those with T-cell deficiency e.g. AIDS and those with intense exposure, such as pigeon fanciers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which anatomical structure is divided following an emergency department anterolateral thoracotomy? ...

    Correct

    • Which anatomical structure is divided following an emergency department anterolateral thoracotomy?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Thoracotomy describes an incision made in the chest wall to access the contents of the thoracic cavity. Thoracotomies typically can be divided into two categories; anterolateral thoracotomies and posterolateral thoracotomies. These can be further subdivided into supra-mammary and infra-mammary and, of course, further divided into the right or left chest. Each type of incision has its utility given certain circumstances.A scalpel is used to sharply divide the skin along the inframammary crease overlying the fifth rib. Electrocautery is then used to divide the pectoralis major muscle and serratus anterior muscle. Visualization of the proper operative field can be achieved with the division and retraction of the latissimus dorsi. Either the fourth or fifth intercostal space is then entered after the division of intercostal muscles above the rib to ensure the preservation of the neurovascular bundle. Once the patient is properly secured to the operating table, the ipsilateral arm is raised and positioned anteriorly and cephalad to rest above the head. The incision is started along the inframammary crease and extended posterolaterally below the tip of the scapula. It is then extended superiorly between the spine and the edge of the scapula, a short distance. The trapezius muscle and the subcutaneous tissues are divided with electrocautery. The serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi muscles are identified and can be retracted. The intercostal muscles are then divided along the superior border of the ribs, and the thoracic cavity is accessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding the heart sounds in the cardiac cycle, which of the following statements...

    Correct

    • Regarding the heart sounds in the cardiac cycle, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The third heart sound is caused by filling of an abnormally stiff ventricle in atrial systole.

      Explanation:

      Heart Sound – Phase of Cardiac Cycle – Mechanical Event:First heart sound – Start of systole – Caused by closure of the atrioventricular (mitral & tricuspid) valvesSecond heart sound – End of systole – Caused by closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonary) valvesThird heart sound – Early diastole – Caused by rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles during the ventricular filling phaseFourth heart sound – Late diastole – Caused by filling of an abnormally stiff ventricle in atrial systole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 14-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Room by her mother after...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Room by her mother after a fall from a tree in which she injured her elbow. An elbow fracture is suspected based on the examination findings, and she is given Entonox for analgesia as her elbow is set in a cast. Which one of the following statements regarding this drug is true?

      Your Answer: It is stored in red and blue cylinders

      Correct Answer: It can cause inhibition of vitamin B12 synthesis

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a mixture of 50% Oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide and is given in an inhaled form as a quick form of analgesia. Entonox causes non-competitive inhibition of NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors, which are a subtype of the glutamate receptor. It is stored in blue and white cylinders and administered via a pressure regulator and demand valve. The administration of this medicine reduces pain and anxiety in paediatric and dental procedures ands during labour. Effects are apparent after 20 seconds, and peak action occurs after 3 to 5 minutes as it is a drug with a rapid onset and the patient will also recover rapidly from its effects. Entonox is widely used as it does not accumulate in the body and does not cause many side effects. However, a notable side effect is the inhibition of Vitamin B12 synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was taken and a neurological examination was performed.Which of the following cranial nerves is correctly paired with its lesion?

      Your Answer: The trochlear nerve: the eye appears to look ‘down and out’

      Correct Answer: The oculomotor nerve: the eye appears to look ‘down and out’

      Explanation:

      The following are the lesions of the cranial nerves:1. Olfactory nerve (I)Reduced taste and smell, but not to ammonia which stimulates the pain fibres carried in the trigeminal nerve2. Optic nerve (II)Manifested by visual field defects, pupillary abnormalities, optic neuritis, optic atrophy, papilledema3. Oculomotor nerve (III)A fixed, dilated pupil which doesn’t accommodate, ptosis, complete internal ophthalmoplegia (masked by ptosis), unopposed lateral rectus causes outward deviation of the eye. If the ocular sympathetic fibres are also affected behind the orbit, the pupil will be fixed but not dilated.4. Trochlear nerve (IV)Diplopia due to weakness of downward and inward eye movement. The most common cause of a pure vertical diplopia. The patient tends to compensate by tilting the head away from the affected side.5. Trigeminal nerve (V)Reduced sensation or dysesthesia over the affected area. Weakness of jaw clenching and side-to-side movement. If there is a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion, the jaw deviates to the weak side when the mouth is opened. There may be fasciculation of temporalis and masseter.6. Abducens nerve (VI)Inability to look laterally. The eye is deviated medially because of unopposed action of the medial rectus muscle.7. Facial nerve (VII)Facial weakness. In an LMN lesion the forehead is paralysed – the final common pathway to the muscles is destroyed; whereas the upper facial muscles are partially spared in an upper motor neurone (UMN) lesion because of alternative pathways in the brainstem. There appear to be different pathways for voluntary and emotional movement. CVAs usually weaken voluntary movement, often sparing involuntary movements (e.g., spontaneous smiling). The much rarer selective loss of emotional movement is called mimic paralysis and is usually due to a frontal or thalamic lesion.8. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)Unilateral sensorineural deafness, tinnitus. Slow-growing lesions seldom present with vestibular symptoms as compensation has time to occur.9. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)Unilateral lesions do not cause any deficit because of bilateral corticobulbar connections. Bilateral lesions result in pseudobulbar palsy. These nerves are closely interlinked.10. Vagus nerve (X)Palatal weakness can cause ‘nasal speech’ and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.11. Accessory nerve (XI)Weakness and wasting of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles12.Hypoglossal nerve (XII)An LMN lesion produces wasting of the ipsilateral side of the tongue, with fasciculation; and on attempted protrusion the tongue deviates towards the affected side, but the tongue deviates away from the side of a central lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old known intravenous drug user has a history of persistent high-fever. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old known intravenous drug user has a history of persistent high-fever. On examination you hear a harsh systolic murmur and the patient says a murmur has never been heard before in previous hospital visits. A diagnosis of endocarditis is suspect.Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin and metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin and gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis is infective or non infective inflammation (marantic endocarditis) of the inner layer of the heart and it often involves the heart valves.Risk factors include:Prosthetic heart valvesCongenital heart defectsPrior history of endocarditisRheumatic feverIllicit intravenous drug useIn the presentation of endocarditis, the following triad is often quoted:Persistent feverEmbolic phenomenaNew or changing murmurFlucloxacillin and gentamicin are current recommended by NICE and the BNF for the initial ‘blind’ therapy in endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in...

    Correct

    • You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in the past. Her most recent blood tests show that she has severe renal impairment.Which medication adjustments should you make in this patient's case?

      Your Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is excreted through the kidneys, and impaired renal function can lead to elevated digoxin levels and toxicity.The patient’s digoxin dose should be reduced in this case, and their digoxin level and electrolytes should be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Normal saline (sodium chloride 0.9%) contains which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal saline (sodium chloride 0.9%) contains which of the following:

      Your Answer: Sodium chloride, bicarbonate and calcium

      Correct Answer: Sodium and chloride

      Explanation:

      Normal saline (sodium chloride 0.9%) contains:Na+150 mmol/LCl-150 mmol/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You suspected a fungal nail infection in a 50-year-old man who presented with...

    Incorrect

    • You suspected a fungal nail infection in a 50-year-old man who presented with an itchy, scaly rash between his toes and a thicker, discoloured nail on his big toe that has been there for almost one month already. Which of the following tests is most likely to confirm your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nail clippings for NAAT

      Correct Answer: Nail clippings for microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Nail clippings for microscopy and culture are a diagnostic test for fungal infection. Because some fungi are restricted to the lower parts of the nail, clippings should be taken from the discoloured or brittle parts and cut back as far as possible from the free edge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated episodes of abdominal pain and the passage of dark coloured urine every morning. He also reports increasing fatigue over the past several months. On examination, there are raised, painful red nodules over the skin of the back. Laboratory workup shows haemolytic anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Which one of the following disorders is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria is an acquired genetic disorder that causes a decrease in red blood cells due to a membrane defect that allows increased complement binding to RBCs, causing haemolysis. Patients complain of dark-coloured urine first in the morning due to haemoglobinuria secondary to lysis of red blood cells overnight. Thrombosis occurs, which affects hepatic, abdominal, cerebral and subdermal veins. Thrombosis of hepatic veins can lead to Budd-Chiari syndrome, thrombosis of subdermal veins can lead to painful nodules on the skin, and thrombosis of cerebral vessels can lead to stroke. The presence of dark urine in the morning only and at no other time differentiates this condition from other conditions.Multiple myeloma would present with bone pain, signs of radiculopathy if there were nerve root compression and a history of repeated infections. Patients with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma would complain of enlarged lymph nodes, fatigue, fever, weight loss and a history of repeated infections. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia presents more commonly in children than in adults. The patient would complain of bone pain, and on examination, there would be hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Adrenocorticotropic hormone release from the anterior pituitary is stimulated by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Adrenocorticotropic hormone release from the anterior pituitary is stimulated by which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticotropin-releasing hormone

      Explanation:

      ACTH secretion is stimulated by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found to have weakness on the left side of her body and her eyes are deviated towards the right hand side. These are signs of damage to which of the following areas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Some potential symptoms of frontal lobe damage can include loss of movement, either partial or complete, on the opposite side of the body. In the patient’s case, it is a result of motor cortex damage on the right side since her left side of the body is affected. The conjugate eye deviation symptom towards the side of the lesion is a result of damage to the frontal eye field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of amitriptyline: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of amitriptyline:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects include:Antimuscarinic effects: Dry mouth, Blurred vision, Constipation, Urinary retention, Sedation, ConfusionCardiovascular effects: Heart block, Arrhythmias, Tachycardia, Postural hypotension, QT-interval prolongation, Hepatic impairment, Narrow-angle glaucoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A dermatological examination of a patient presenting with a lump shows a visible...

    Incorrect

    • A dermatological examination of a patient presenting with a lump shows a visible collection of fluid measuring 0.3 cm in diameter.Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vesicle

      Explanation:

      A vesicle is a visible collection of fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus. A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together. A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are reviewing a patient with hypocalcaemia secondary to hypoparathyroidism. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient with hypocalcaemia secondary to hypoparathyroidism. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) acts to increased calcium reabsorption at which of the following sites in the nephron:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a peptide hormone synthesised by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands, located immediately behind the thyroid gland. PTH is primarily released in response to decreasing plasma [Ca2+] concentration. PTH acts to increase plasma calcium levels and decrease plasma phosphate levels.Parathyroid hormone (PTH) acts to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the nephron (by activating Ca2+entry channels in the apical membrane and the Ca2+ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane) and increase phosphate excretion by inhibiting reabsorption in the proximal tubule of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Where is angiotensin I primarily converted to angiotensin II: ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is angiotensin I primarily converted to angiotensin II:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by the removal of two C-terminal residues by the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). This primarily occurs in the lungs, although it does also occur to a lesser degree in endothelial cells and renal epithelial cells.The main actions of angiotensin II are:Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle (resulting in increased blood pressure)Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus (resulting in an increased filtration fraction and preserved glomerular filtration rate)Stimulation of aldosterone release from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortexStimulation of anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin) release from the posterior pituitaryStimulation of thirst via the hypothalamusActs on the Na+/H+ exchanger in the proximal tubule of the kidney to stimulate Na+reabsorption and H+excretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding cellular respiration, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cellular respiration, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When fats are used as the primary energy source, an excess of acetyl-CoA is produced.

      Explanation:

      Cellular respiration is the process by which cells obtain energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). ATP transfers chemical energy from the energy rich substances in the cell to the cell’s energy requiring reactions e.g. active transport, DNA replication and muscle contraction.Cellular respiration is essentially a three step process: 1) Glycolysis, 2)The Krebs cycle, 3)The electron transfer system.The main respiratory substrate used by cells is 6-carbon glucose. Fats and proteins can also be used as respiratory substrates. When fats are being used as the primary energy source, in the absence of glucose, an excess amount of acetyl-CoA is produced, and is converted into acetone and ketone bodies. This can occur in starvation, fasting or in diabetic ketoacidosis. Proteins are used as an energy source only if protein intake is very high, or if glucose and fat sources are depleted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding alteplase, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding alteplase, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alteplase is commonly associated with hypotensive effects.

      Explanation:

      Alteplase is a recombinant tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA), a naturally occurring fibrin-specific enzyme that has selectivity for activation of fibrin-bound plasminogen. It has a short half-life of 3 – 4  minutes and must be given by continuous intravenous infusion but is not associated with antigenic or hypotensive effects, and can be used in patients when recent streptococcal infections or recent use of streptokinase contraindicates the use of streptokinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionnaires' Disease. By...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionnaires' Disease. By what route was the infection most likely to have been acquired:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhalation of aerosolised contaminated water

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 daysCough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)Pleuritic chest painHaemoptysisHeadacheNausea, vomiting and diarrhoeaAnorexiaLegionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refractory ventricular fibrillation in cardiac arrest

      Explanation:

      IV Lidocaine is indicated in Ventricular Arrhythmias or Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (after defibrillation, attempted CPR, and vasopressor administration)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A study investigating the risk of suffering a stroke in patients with atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigating the risk of suffering a stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation taking the new antiplatelet drug ticagrelor, compared with standard treatment with warfarin is done over a 2-year time period. 30 of the 300 patients taking ticagrelor and 20 of the 500 patients taking warfarin suffered a stroke over the 2-year period. One of these statements is true regarding the outcomes of this study.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ticagrelor increases the risk of stroke

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk and relative risk are used to assess the strength of a relationship between a disease and a factor that may affect it.Absolute risk (AR) is the risk of developing a disease over a time period:AR = the number of events that occur in a group / number of people in that groupThe absolute risk reduction (ARR) is the difference between the absolute risk in the control group (ARC) and the absolute risk in the treated group (ART). ARR = ARC – ARTThe control group is the warfarin group, therefore the ARC is 20/500 (0.04). Treatment group is the ticagrelor group and ART = 30/300 (0.1). ARR = 0.04 – 0.1 = -0.06. This shows that treatment with ticagrelor increases risk of developing stroke. This is also termed a relative risk increase.Relative risk, or risk ratio, (RR) is used to compare the risk in the two different groups. It is the ratio of the absolute risks of the disease in the treatment group (ART) to the absolute risk of the disease in the control group (ARC):RR=ART /ARCTherefore RR = 0.1 / 0.04 = 2.5RR < 1 means the intervention reduces the risk of the outcome being studiedRR = 1 means the treatment has no effect on the outcome being studiedRR > 1 means the intervention increased the risk of the outcome being studiedSince RR is 2.5, ticagrelor increases the risk of stroke.SUMMARYAbsolute risk reduction is -0.06Absolute risk in warfarin group = 0.04Relative risk = 2.5Ticagrelor has no effect on stroke is incorrect because RR is not =1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
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  • Question 30 - An analytical study is conducted to compare the risk of stroke between Ticagrelor...

    Incorrect

    • An analytical study is conducted to compare the risk of stroke between Ticagrelor therapy and Warfarin therapy among patients with atrial fibrillation. The following is obtained from the study:No. of patients who took Ticagrelor: 300No. of patients who took Ticagrelor and suffered a stroke: 30No. of patients who took Warfarin: 500No. of patients who took Warfarin and suffered a stroke: 20Compute for the risk ratio of a stroke.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      Relative risk (RR) is a ratio of the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group versus the probability of the event occurring in the non-exposed group.RR can be computed as the absolute risk of events in the treatment group (ART), divided by the absolute risk of events in the control group (ARC).RR = ART/ARCRR = (30/300) / (20/500)RR = 2.5Recall that:If RR < 1, then the intervention reduces the risk of the outcome.If RR = 1, then the treatment has no effect on the outcome.If RR > 1, then the intervention increases the risk of the outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (0/4) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/2) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Gastrointestinal (1/2) 50%
Immunological Products & Vaccines (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (2/7) 29%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Pathogens (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Anaesthesia (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Fluids And Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
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