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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication. You want to choose a drug that is least likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms. Your clinic has recently implemented an electronic clinical decision support tool, so you decide to utilize it to determine the best medication option. You enter the query Antipsychotic/least extrapyramidal side effects into the tool, and it recommends either olanzapine or risperidone. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Get more clinical information and check if there is a guideline in place about whether antipsychotics should be first prescribed in primary or secondary care

      Correct Answer: Ask another Registrar what they think

      Explanation:

      Cautionary Note on Clinical Decision Support Tools

      When it comes to clinical decision making, it’s important to exercise caution and not rely solely on clinical decision support tools. While tools like NIHR can be helpful, they should not be followed blindly. It’s always best to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

      For instance, while olanzapine or risperidone may be the best options for treating schizophrenia, there may be guidelines in place that recommend prescribing antipsychotics in secondary care. Therefore, it’s important to consider all relevant factors before making a decision.

      In summary, clinical decision support tools can be useful, but they should not be the sole basis for decision making. It’s important to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise and jaundice. Liver function tests reveal a hepatocellular pattern of liver damage, leading to suspicion of viral hepatitis.
      Which of the following choices would NOT aid in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis Tests

      Hepatitis is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different types of hepatitis, including A, B, and C. To diagnose hepatitis, doctors use various tests. One of these tests is the Anti-HBs test, which indicates immunity to hepatitis B.

      Another test is the Hepatitis B surface antigen test, which can indicate an acute infection or a chronic carrier state. If a patient has acute hepatitis B virus infection, the presence of this antigen strongly suggests it. However, it doesn’t rule out chronic HBV with acute superinfection by another hepatitis virus.

      The most specific test for diagnosing acute HCV infection before antibodies have developed is the qualitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for viral particles. If all these tests are negative, doctors should consider other causes of hepatitis, such as another virus or alcohol.

      In conclusion, understanding hepatitis tests is crucial for diagnosing and treating this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old boy is accompanied by his father who is concerned that his...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is accompanied by his father who is concerned that his son may have anorexia nervosa.
      Select from the list below the single option that is a feature of this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by a fear of weight gain, relentless dietary habits, and a distorted perception of body weight and shape. To diagnose anorexia nervosa, doctors rely on a patient’s medical history and physical symptoms, such as fatigue, loss of muscle mass, and growth impairment. While secondary amenorrhea (cessation of menstruation) was once considered essential for diagnosis, it is no longer required under the DSM-5 criteria. Instead, a patient’s weight must be below 85% of predicted, or a body mass index below 17.5 kg/m2. Binge eating may also be present, leading to purging behaviors and a cycle of guilt and binging. It is important to recognize the signs of anorexia nervosa and seek professional help for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 4 - You see a 30-year-old man who reports an acute onset of reduced hearing...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old man who reports an acute onset of reduced hearing in his left ear. This started suddenly yesterday. He is otherwise well with no ear pain, fevers or systemic upset. Examination of ears and cranial nerves were unremarkable.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call ENT team

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Sudden Hearing Loss in Adults

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in June 2018 to provide recommendations on managing sudden or rapid onset hearing loss in adults. This type of hearing loss is not explained by external or middle ear causes.

      According to the guidelines, an immediate referral is recommended if the hearing loss developed suddenly within the past 30 days. If the hearing loss developed suddenly but it has been over 30 days or if it worsened rapidly, a two-week wait referral is advised. The guidelines also provide further recommendations if there are additional symptoms or signs such as facial droop.

      It is important to note that NICE defines sudden hearing loss as within 3 days and rapid worsening as 4-90 days. These guidelines aim to improve the management and treatment of sudden hearing loss in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 5 - In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting...

    Incorrect

    • In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting with residents and quickly spreading to staff. Which organism is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Norovirus Gastroenteritis: Symptoms, Incubation Period, and Prevention

      Norovirus gastroenteritis, commonly known as winter vomiting disease, is a highly contagious illness that often occurs during the winter season. However, outbreaks can happen anytime and in various settings, including hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. The incubation period ranges from 12 to 48 hours, with symptoms such as fever, nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The disease is self-limiting and usually lasts between 12 and 60 hours. While it poses a risk to frail or immunocompromised individuals, strict hygiene measures can prevent the spread of the virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease stage 3 due to type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease stage 3 due to type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of pain and swelling in his right first metatarsophalangeal joint. During examination, the joint is tender to touch, hot, and erythematous, but he can still flex his big toe. What is the best initial approach to managing this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      If the creatinine clearance is below 50 ml/min, co-codamol 30/500 can be used in combination with other medications for pain relief. However, it should be avoided if the creatinine clearance is less than 10 ml/min. Using prednisolone as a standalone treatment may not provide sufficient pain relief, and it may also have a negative impact on the patient’s diabetic management.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South America. He complains of a lesion on his lower lip that has been ulcerating for the past 2 months. Upon examination, it is found that his nasal and oral mucosae are also affected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      Leishmaniasis is the probable diagnosis for this patient, as the presence of a primary skin lesion accompanied by mucosal involvement is a typical indication of infection with Leishmania brasiliensis.

      Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites

      Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 61-year-old lifelong smoker presents to her GP with complaints of worsening shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old lifelong smoker presents to her GP with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and ptosis and constriction of her pupil. She is referred for a chest x-ray which reveals an apical mass. What is the term used to describe the cause of this woman's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Their Symptoms

      This passage discusses various medical conditions and their corresponding symptoms. One of the conditions mentioned is Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung. This type of tumour typically invades the chest wall and brachial plexus, resulting in a Horner’s syndrome. The symptoms of Horner’s syndrome include ptosis and constriction of the pupil. However, in most cases of Holmes-Adie syndrome, the pupil is dilated and slow to react to direct light. Peyronie’s disease, on the other hand, is characterized by the hardening of the corpora cavernosa of the penis due to scar tissue. Pott’s cancer is a type of scrotal cancer caused by exposure to coal tar. Lastly, Wilms’ tumour is a malignant tumour that usually affects children and is located in the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you notice numerous umbilicated papules all over his face, neck, trunk, and genitals. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy substance. Your diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What is the most crucial aspect of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid application

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Symptoms, Treatment, and Underlying Causes

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a DNA pox virus. It is characterized by small, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum that may appear umbilicated. Squeezing the lesions can release a cheesy material. While the infection usually resolves on its own within 12-18 months, patients may opt for treatment if they find the rash unsightly. Squeezing the lesions can speed up resolution.

      However, if a patient presents with hundreds of widespread lesions, it is important to investigate any underlying immunodeficiency problems. This may include conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the extensive rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is...

    Incorrect

    • Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is essential.
      Select from the list the single elderly patient who satisfies the criteria for urgent referral (2-week rule).

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man who has had loose stools for 6 weeks but no rectal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients over 50 years old with unexplained rectal bleeding or over 60 years old with a change in bowel habit should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks for suspected colorectal cancer. However, other conditions can also cause similar symptoms, and differential diagnosis is important to ensure appropriate management.

      Rectal Bleeding in a Multiparous Woman

      Rectal bleeding is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions, including haemorrhoids. In a 40-year-old multiparous woman, routine referral would be appropriate if piles could not be identified.

      Change in Bowel Habit in a 60-Year-Old Man

      A change in bowel habit in a 60-year-old man is more likely to be caused by an acute infection, such as enterohaemorrhagic E. coli or Shigella. Investigations should be directed to finding the cause.

      Constipation in an 80-Year-Old Woman

      Constipation is a common symptom in the elderly, and dietary factors may play a role. In an 80-year-old woman with intermittent constipation and no teeth, the symptom is likely to be longstanding and not indicative of colorectal cancer.

      Anal Fissure in a 70-Year-Old Man

      Anal fissure is a possible cause of rectal bleeding in a 70-year-old man. Further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.

      Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under the Mental Health Act due to a decline in his mental health. During his inpatient stay, it was decided that Clozapine would be the most appropriate Antipsychotic for him and he was started on this medication. After his mental state stabilized, he was transferred to a rehabilitation unit. However, it was discovered that he had missed his Clozapine doses for two consecutive days. What is the recommended course of action to address these missed doses of Clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Re-titrate the Clozapine doses again slowly

      Explanation:

      If a patient misses their clozapine doses for more than 48 hours, they will need to slowly restart their dose as if they were starting the medication for the first time. This process should be supervised by a Psychiatrist. Restarting clozapine after a break of more than 48 hours can exacerbate side effects such as changes in blood pressure, drowsiness, and dizziness. If the treatment gap exceeds 72 hours, the patient may require more frequent blood tests for a brief period.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis and Other Joint Pathologies

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. It is often accompanied by psoriasis around the adjacent nail, and other joint involvement is typically more asymmetric than in rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, reactive arthritis presents with uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis that doesn’t involve the DIP. Gout, another joint pathology, doesn’t typically affect the DIP either. While rheumatoid arthritis can occasionally affect the DIP, it is classically a metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) arthritis. Lastly, it is important to note that bursitis is a pathology of the bursa, not the joint itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins. These have been present for a few years and do not cause any discomfort, but she is unhappy with their appearance.

      Upon examination, there are no skin changes, leg ulcers, or signs of thrombophlebitis.

      What is the MOST SUITABLE NEXT step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg OD

      Explanation:

      Conservative Management of Varicose Veins

      Conservative management is recommended for patients with asymptomatic varicose veins, meaning those that are not causing pain, skin changes, or ulcers. This approach includes lifestyle changes such as weight loss, light/moderate physical activity, leg elevation, and avoiding prolonged standing. Compression stockings are also recommended to alleviate symptoms.

      There is no medication available for varicose veins, and ultrasound is not necessary in the absence of thrombosis. Referral to secondary care may be necessary based on local guidelines, particularly if the patient is experiencing discomfort, swelling, heaviness, or itching, or if skin changes such as eczema are present due to chronic venous insufficiency. Urgent referral is required for venous leg ulcers and superficial vein thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old man presents with anxiety, dilated pupils and sweating. You suspect an...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with anxiety, dilated pupils and sweating. You suspect an overdose.

      Which one of the following is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Cocaine Overdose Symptoms and Management

      Cocaine overdose can lead to a range of symptoms, including anxiety, dilated pupils, and sweating. Other common features of cocaine overdose include persecutory delusions, hypertension, tachycardia, piloerection, and seizures.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these symptoms and to have a plan in place for managing cocaine and crack users in primary care. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has provided guidance for working with these individuals, which can be helpful for those looking to revise their knowledge on this topic. By understanding the symptoms and having a plan in place, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support for those experiencing cocaine overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 15 - Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sudden onset of visual loss

      Explanation:

      It is rare for optic neuritis to cause sudden visual loss, as the typical progression of visual loss occurs over a period of days rather than hours.

      Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.

      To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.

      The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old boy is seen with his father. The father reports that for...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is seen with his father. The father reports that for the last few weeks, the child has been persistently scratching his bottom, particularly at night. The father has noticed some scratch marks around his anus, but nothing else. He is otherwise well and takes no regular medications.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threadworm infestation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Threadworm Infestation: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Threadworm infestation is a common parasitic infection in the United Kingdom, particularly among children. The threadworm, a small white worm that tapers at both ends, can cause itching around the anus and vulva due to the mucous accompanying the eggs it lays at night. Scratching can lead to skin infection and re-infection with the worms. While pre-pubertal girls with certain symptoms should also be investigated for threadworm, other conditions such as hookworm infestation, eczema, psychological pruritus, and tapeworm infestation should be ruled out through differential diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of threadworm infestation can help healthcare providers provide appropriate treatment and care for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 17 - What is the primary purpose of checking the urea and electrolytes before initiating...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary purpose of checking the urea and electrolytes before initiating amiodarone therapy in a patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To detect hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The risk of arrhythmias can be increased by all antiarrhythmic drugs, especially when hypokalaemia is present.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering left eye after mowing the lawn. His daughter can see a grass seed visibly stuck near his cornea.

      What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to ophthalmology immediately for assessment that day

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an organic foreign body in their eye, such as a grass seed, it is crucial to refer them immediately to ophthalmology for assessment due to the risk of infection. The removal of the foreign body should also be done on the same day as the assessment, as this type of injury is often caused by high-velocity incidents during activities like grass cutting. Attempting to remove the foreign body in primary care or delaying the removal until the following day is not acceptable and may increase the risk of infection. Irrigation and antibiotics should not be used without proper assessment, as this may cause the foreign body to remain in the eye for a longer period of time and increase the risk of infection. It is important to note that, since the foreign body is organic material, it is necessary for the patient to be seen by the ophthalmology department on the same day rather than attempting to remove it at the practice.

      Corneal foreign body is a condition characterized by eye pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, watering eye, and red eye. It is important to refer patients to ophthalmology if there is a suspected penetrating eye injury due to high-velocity injuries or sharp objects, significant orbital or peri-ocular trauma, or a chemical injury has occurred. Foreign bodies composed of organic material should also be referred to ophthalmology as they are associated with a higher risk of infection and complications. Additionally, foreign bodies in or near the centre of the cornea and any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or significant reduction in visual acuity should be referred to ophthalmology. For further information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of right hip pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of right hip pain that has been bothering him for a few months. He reports that the pain usually sets in towards the end of the day after he has been working on his feet for long hours. He also experiences significant discomfort while climbing up and down stairs. He denies any history of joint stiffness or any recent injury. The patient has a medical history of peripheral vascular disease, for which he takes aspirin, and hypertension, for which he takes ramipril. On examination, there is no tenderness along the joint line, but the patient's gait is slightly antalgic. He experiences pain while moving his hip joint, and there is no redness or heat. The patient has already tried paracetamol without any relief and is now seeking stronger medication. You have discussed his lifestyle and current medication regimen with him. What medication would you prescribe for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Codeine tablets

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hip Osteoarthritis

      There are a few important points to consider when treating a patient with hip osteoarthritis. In this case, the patient is already taking aspirin but is interested in stronger tablets rather than a topical preparation. However, it is important to note that co-prescribing with an NSAID can lead to renal failure, so ibuprofen and naproxen are not ideal options. Additionally, colchicine would not be indicated as this scenario doesn’t sound like gout. The use of ibuprofen gel is also not recommended for hip osteoarthritis. Therefore, the best option for this patient is codeine. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s medical history and current medications when selecting a treatment option for hip osteoarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment. She has recently become sexually active...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment. She has recently become sexually active and wants to start using long term contraception as she and her partner do not plan on having children anytime soon. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer a decade ago, and the patient, along with her family, underwent testing at that time, revealing that she has a BRCA1 mutation.

      As per the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH), what is the safest contraception method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Copper coil

      Explanation:

      If a woman has a suspected or personal history of breast cancer or a confirmed BRCA mutation, the safest form of contraception for her is the copper coil. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) provides guidelines for the choice of contraception, grading non-barrier contraceptives on a scale of 1-4 based on a woman’s personal circumstances. Contraceptive methods that fall under category 1 or 2 are generally considered safe for use in primary care. In this case, all forms of contraception except the combined pill (category 3) can be offered, with the copper coil being the safest option as it falls under category 1.

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, act as a physical barrier and can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people. Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation but increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and certain types of cancer. The progesterone-only pill thickens cervical mucous, but irregular bleeding is a common side effect.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives, injectable contraceptives, and intrauterine devices (IUDs). The implantable contraceptive and injectable contraceptive both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous, with the implant lasting up to three years and the injection lasting 12 weeks. The IUD decreases sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system (IUS) prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous, with irregular bleeding being a common side effect.

      In summary, understanding the different types of contraception available and their methods of action can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided frontotemporal headache over the past few days. The headache seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day, and lasts between 15 minutes to 2 hours. He feels sick at the time and is unable to lie still. He had a similar episode last year.

      During a headache-free period, a complete neurological examination is entirely normal.

      What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s demographics, description of pain, and duration of symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing a cluster headache. These headaches typically last between 15 minutes to 2 hours and occur in clusters over a period of time. The fact that the patient had a similar headache a year ago also supports this diagnosis.

      A carotid artery dissection would cause persistent symptoms, including neck pain and neurological symptoms, and would not explain the same symptoms occurring a year ago.

      Migraines usually present with unilateral, episodic headaches, but patients tend to want to lie still during an attack, which is the opposite of what is seen in cluster headaches. Additionally, migraines typically last longer than 15 minutes to 2 hours and do not occur in clusters over a period of time.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is more common in women over the age of 50 and tends to have a specific trigger, such as brushing teeth. The pain is typically more facial in distribution rather than frontotemporal.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 73-year-old male with metastatic lung cancer requires end of life care and...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old male with metastatic lung cancer requires end of life care and has been referred to the palliative care team. He is currently taking 10 mg of oral morphine daily, which is effectively managing his pain. The team has prescribed anticipatory medications to be administered via a syringe driver.

      What is the required daily dosage of subcutaneous morphine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5mg

      Explanation:

      When converting from oral to subcutaneous morphine, the dose should be divided by two. This is because oral morphine is only half as potent as subcutaneous or intravenous morphine, primarily due to first-pass metabolism. It’s important to note that other opioids, such as fentanyl and buprenorphine, have different conversion ratios for different routes.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old mother contacts the on-call doctor, concerned about her two daughters (aged...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old mother contacts the on-call doctor, concerned about her two daughters (aged 4 and 6) who attend the same school. She reports that both girls have been complaining of an itchy scalp for the past week, but she has not noticed any visible signs of rash or irritation. After conducting a dry combing of their hair, she has found live lice on her younger daughter.

      What advice would you give as the on-call doctor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat only the twin with live lice on dry combing with either malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate or cyclomethicone

      Explanation:

      According to the updated 2016 NICE CKS guidance, household contacts of patients with head lice do not require treatment unless they are also infested. Treatment should only be given if live head lice are detected, and it may be possible to manage this over the phone without a physical examination. It is crucial to have a discussion with the patient or caregiver about the various treatment options available, weighing the pros and cons, and involving them in the decision-making process.

      Understanding Head Lice: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs, which are grey or brown and about the size of a pinhead, are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits, on the other hand, are the empty egg shells and are white and shiny. They are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.

      Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. It is important to note that head lice cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.

      To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. It is important to note that school exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of head lice is crucial in preventing its spread. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, we can effectively manage this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum. She is using the lactational amenorrheoic method (LAM) for contraception.
      Which of the following should she be advised may increase her risk of pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menstruation returning

      Explanation:

      Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) as a Contraceptive

      Breastfeeding can be used as a form of contraception through the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM). This method works by suppressing ovarian activity, which prevents the return of menstrual periods after childbirth. For LAM to be effective, a woman must engage in full breastfeeding, which includes exclusive or almost exclusive breastfeeding with no other liquids or solids given.

      If the frequency or duration of breastfeeding decreases, the risk of menstrual periods and fertility increases. Women who experience bleeding within the first six months after childbirth have a higher risk of pregnancy than those who remain amenorrhoeic. To use LAM as a contraceptive, a woman must meet all three criteria: fully or nearly fully breastfeeding day and night, no long intervals between feeds, and amenorrhoeic and less than six months postpartum.

      When the rules of LAM are strictly followed, failure rates are less than 2%. Therefore, LAM can be an effective and natural form of contraception for women who choose to breastfeed their infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 25 - A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. Can you prescribe something to help her sleep?

      Is this response appropriate for a patient who has experienced a traumatic event?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after four weeks have passed.

      Although this scenario has the potential to develop into post-traumatic stress disorder, it is currently classified as acute stress disorder as it has only been two weeks since the event. It is important to monitor the patient’s progress and reassess in two weeks.

      Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month.

      Depression is characterized by persistent low mood and/or loss of pleasure in most activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive, pervasive, and uncontrollable worry, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms that occur on a continuum of severity. To be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the symptoms must be pervasive and persistent for longer than two weeks.

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.

      The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine blood testing and her results show a total...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine blood testing and her results show a total cholesterol level of 6.3 mmol/l (desirable < 5.2 mmol/l), a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 6.8 μU/l (normal range 0.17–3.2 μU/l), a thyroxine (T4) level of 13 pmol/l (normal range 11–22 pmol/l). Further testing reveals a triiodothyronine (T3) level of 4.5 pmol/l (normal range 3.5–5.0 pmol/l) and negative thyroid peroxidase antibodies. The patient doesn't report any symptoms. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat thyroid function tests in three to six months

      Explanation:

      Management of Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a common condition in middle-aged and older women, characterized by normal serum T4 and T3 levels but raised TSH concentration without specific symptoms or signs of thyroid dysfunction. The condition may result from previous hyperthyroidism or nonspecific symptoms such as tiredness or weight gain. In cases where patients have detectable levels of microsomal thyroid peroxidase antibodies, they are more likely to develop overt hypothyroidism.

      Treatment with thyroxine is recommended for patients with a TSH > 10 μU/l and those with clinical features. The aim of therapy is to restore TSH concentration to within the reference range. However, a serum TSH concentration of less than 10 μU/l in patients who are antibody negative warrants observation rather than immediate treatment, as it may be a transient phenomenon.

      It is not clear whether subclinical hypothyroidism contributes to the development of ischaemic heart disease. Therefore, prescribing simvastatin is not recommended without further information on the patient’s QRISK. Similarly, referring for a thyroid ultrasound scan and fine needle biopsy is not necessary unless there is an unexplained thyroid lump.

      The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence lists the indications for referral in people with subclinical hypothyroidism, including cases of suspected subacute thyroiditis, people planning a pregnancy, those with cardiac disease, and amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism. Therefore, referring to an endocrinologist is not necessary in most cases of subclinical hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A father thinks his 4-year-old daughter may have a peanut allergy. Twice, recently,...

    Incorrect

    • A father thinks his 4-year-old daughter may have a peanut allergy. Twice, recently, she has complained of an itchy mouth after eating a peanut butter sandwich. On the second occasion, her mouth became swollen and her father stopped her eating the sandwich and the symptoms gradually resolved. He wonders what he should do and has come to ask your advice.

      What is the most appropriate advice you can give him regarding peanut allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The only treatment is to avoid peanuts

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peanut Allergy: Myths and Facts

      Peanut allergy is a serious condition that affects a significant number of people, especially children. However, there are many misconceptions about this allergy that can lead to dangerous situations. Here are some myths and facts about peanut allergy:

      Myth: Most children with peanut allergy will outgrow the condition by school age.
      Fact: While some children may outgrow their peanut allergy, only about 20% do so by the time they reach school age. Even if they seem to have outgrown it, the allergy may still recur.

      Myth: Only peanuts should be implicated.
      Fact: About half of patients with peanut allergy are also allergic to other nuts, with almond being the most frequently cross-reacting nut.

      Myth: Skin-prick tests will confirm the diagnosis.
      Fact: While skin-prick testing can be done, it is positive in only 50-70% of those with confirmed nut allergy. It is useful in excluding allergy but less so in confirming it. The RAST test is less sensitive and may not confirm clinical allergy. Oral food challenge is potentially risky.

      Myth: They need only be concerned about visible pieces of nut.
      Fact: For some people with peanut allergy, even small amounts of peanuts can cause a serious reaction. Food that is exposed to peanuts during processing or handling can also be problematic. Aerosols or dust containing peanuts may give symptoms, as can direct skin contact.

      The only treatment for peanut allergy is to avoid peanuts. It is important to take this allergy seriously and to educate oneself and others about the risks and precautions necessary to prevent a potentially life-threatening reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 28 - This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents...

    Incorrect

    • This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue and weakness:
      Hb 110 g/L (130-180)
      RBC 3.8 ×1012/L (4.5-5.5)
      Haematocrit 0.35 (0.40-0.52)
      MCV 92 fL (80-100)
      MCH 30 pg (27-32)
      Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-450)
      WBC 4.5 ×109/L (4-11)
      Neutrophils 2.5 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
      Lymphocytes 1.5 ×109/L (1.0-4.0)
      Monocytes 0.3 ×109/L (0.2-1.0)
      Eosinophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.4)
      Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.1)

      He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband has been feeling very tired and weak lately. Examination reveals no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient

      This patient is exhibiting signs of a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture, except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. Macrocytosis caused by folate or B12 deficiency would typically result in anemia alongside the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss contradicts this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman comes in asking for a prescription for Microgynon 30. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in asking for a prescription for Microgynon 30. What is the most significant contraindication for using this medication if it is present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Previous deep vein thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential cautions and contraindications on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 represents a condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method, while UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, immobility, and a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension.

      In 2016, the UKMEC was updated to reflect that breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum is now classified as UKMEC 2 instead of UKMEC 3. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these contraindications when deciding whether to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 30 - When applied thinly, how much skin does one 'fingertip unit' of corticosteroid cream...

    Incorrect

    • When applied thinly, how much skin does one 'fingertip unit' of corticosteroid cream cover?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Four adult hand prints

      Explanation:

      Proper Application of Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are effective in treating skin conditions, but it is important to apply them correctly. To ensure proper coverage of affected areas, the cream or ointment should be spread thinly but in sufficient quantity. A useful measurement for this is the fingertip unit, which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease.

      To apply the correct amount, one fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg) should be used to cover an area twice the size of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together). This ensures that the medication is evenly distributed and absorbed by the skin. By following these guidelines, patients can maximize the effectiveness of their topical corticosteroid treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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