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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute abdominal pain and diarrhoea that started 3 hours ago. Upon examination, his pulse is 105 bpm, blood pressure is 98/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.5 ºC. The abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness with rebound and guarding. The X-ray shows thumbprinting, leading you to suspect that he may have ischaemic colitis. Which specific area is the most probable site of involvement?
Your Answer: Ileocecal junction
Correct Answer: Splenic flexure
Explanation:Ischemic colitis is a condition where blood flow to a part of the large intestine is temporarily reduced, often due to a blockage or hypo-perfusion. While any part of the colon can be affected, it most commonly affects the left side. The hepatic flexure, located on the right side of the colon, is less likely to be involved as it has a good blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery (SMA). The ileocecal junction is also less likely to be affected as it has a good blood supply from the ileocolic artery, a branch of the SMA. The splenic flexure, located between the left colon and the transverse colon, is the most likely area to be affected by ischaemic colitis as it is a watershed area supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The sigmoid colon, supplied by the sigmoidal branches of the inferior mesenteric artery, is less likely to be affected. The recto-sigmoid junction is also a watershed area and vulnerable to ischaemic colitis, but it is less common than ischaemia at the splenic flexure.
Ischaemia to the lower gastrointestinal tract can result in acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, and ischaemic colitis. Common predisposing factors include increasing age, atrial fibrillation, other causes of emboli, cardiovascular disease risk factors, and cocaine use. Common features include abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhea, fever, and elevated white blood cell count with lactic acidosis. CT is the investigation of choice. Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism and requires urgent surgery. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia presents with intermittent abdominal pain. Ischaemic colitis is an acute but transient compromise in blood flow to the large bowel and may require surgery in a minority of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank pain that comes and goes. The doctor suspects a kidney stone and refers him for a CT scan. However, before the scan, the stone ruptures through the organ wall and urine starts to leak. Which of the following organs is most likely to come into contact with the leaked urine?
Your Answer: Tail of the pancreas
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The ureters are situated behind the peritoneum and any damage to them can result in the accumulation of fluid in the retroperitoneal space.
Kidney stones are most likely to get stuck in the ureter, specifically at the uretopelvic junction, pelvic brim, or vesicoureteric junction. Since the entire ureter is located behind the peritoneum, any rupture could cause urine to leak into the retroperitoneal space. This space is connected to other organs behind the peritoneum, such as the inferior vena cava.
All the other organs mentioned are located within the peritoneum.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with long standing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the emergency department (ED) with shortness of breath over the last 2 hours and wheezing. On examination, he is cyanosed, has a third heart sound present and has widespread wheeze on auscultation. The emergency doctor also notices hepatomegaly which was not present 10 days ago when he was in the ED for a moderative exacerbation of COPD.
What is the likely cause of the newly developed hepatomegaly in this 67-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?Your Answer: Ascites
Correct Answer: Cor pulmonale
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s hepatomegaly is likely subacute onset cor pulmonale, which is right sided heart failure secondary to COPD. This is supported by the presence of shortness of breath, cyanosis, and a third heart sound. Left sided heart failure is unlikely to be the cause of his symptoms and hepatomegaly. While ascites can be a complication of right sided heart failure and portal hypertension, it does not cause hepatomegaly. Cirrhosis and liver cancer are also unlikely causes given the patient’s presentation, which is more consistent with a cardiorespiratory issue.
Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes
Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.
Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.
Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of persistent fatigue over the past few months. He mentions experiencing confusion and difficulty focusing on tasks that were once effortless. Additionally, he has noticed a tingling sensation in the toes of both feet.
After conducting blood tests, the doctor discovers that the patient has macrocytic anemia. The doctor suspects that the patient may be suffering from pernicious anemia.
What is the pathophysiology of this condition?Your Answer: Decreased dietary intake of vitamin B12 or folate
Correct Answer: Autoimmune destruction of parietal cells in the stomach
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a result of autoimmune destruction of parietal cells, which leads to the formation of autoantibodies against intrinsic factor. This results in decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and subsequently causes macrocytic anaemia. Coeliac disease, on the other hand, is caused by autoimmune destruction of the intestinal epithelium following gluten ingestion, leading to severe malabsorption and changes in bowel habits. Crohn’s disease involves autoimmune granulomatous inflammation of the intestinal epithelium, causing ulcer formation and malabsorption, but it does not cause pernicious anaemia. While GI blood loss may cause anaemia, it is more likely to result in normocytic or microcytic anaemia, such as iron deficient anaemia, and not pernicious anaemia.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 5
Correct
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What is not considered a risk factor for the development of oesophageal cancer?
Your Answer: Blood group O
Explanation:Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.
To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old female presents to her local physician complaining of general fatigue and tiredness. She reports no fever, night sweats, or weight loss. She maintains an active lifestyle and attends fitness classes weekly. Her medical history includes hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, constipation, and depression.
The physician orders blood tests, and the results are as follows:
- Hb: 113 g/l
- Platelets: 239 * 109/l
- WBC: 6 * 109/l
- Neuts: 2 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 2 * 109/l
- Eosin: 0.3 * 109/l
- Na+: 142 mmol/l
- K+: 3.2 mmol/l
- Bilirubin: 12 µmol/l
- ALP: 23 u/l
- ALT: 10 u/l
- γGT: 23 u/l
- Urea: 4 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 50 µmol/l
- Albumin: 30 g/l
Which medication is most likely causing her symptoms?Your Answer: Losartan
Correct Answer: Senna
Explanation:Prolonged use of senna increases the risk of hypokalemia, which is evident in the patient’s blood results. The symptoms of mild hypokalemia are non-specific and include fatigue, muscle weakness, constipation, and rhabdomyolysis. Given the patient’s medical history of constipation, it is likely that she has been taking a laxative, which could be either osmotic or a stimulant. Both types of laxatives are known to cause hypokalemia, and in this case, senna is the likely culprit.
Heparin can cause hyperkalemia, especially when used in conjunction with spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and trimethoprim. Heparin inhibits aldosterone synthesis, leading to increased potassium retention and sodium excretion. This effect is more pronounced in elderly individuals, diabetics, and those with renal failure. The risk of hyperkalemia increases with higher doses, prolonged use, and unfractionated heparin therapy.
Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. It promotes the loss of sodium and water from the body without depleting potassium. Amiloride causes hyperkalemia by inhibiting sodium reabsorption at various points in the kidneys, which reduces potassium and hydrogen secretion and subsequent excretion.
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that is known to cause hyperkalemia and is therefore not the cause of the patient’s hypokalemia.
Understanding Laxatives
Laxatives are frequently prescribed medications in clinical practice, with constipation being a common issue among patients. While constipation may be a symptom of underlying pathology, many patients experience simple idiopathic constipation. The British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes laxatives into four groups: osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, and faecal softeners.
Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose, macrogols, and rectal phosphates, work by drawing water into the bowel to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Stimulant laxatives, including senna, docusate, bisacodyl, and glycerol, stimulate the muscles in the bowel to contract and move stool along. Co-danthramer, a combination of a stimulant and a bulk-forming laxative, should only be prescribed to palliative patients due to its potential carcinogenic effects.
Bulk-forming laxatives, such as ispaghula husk and methylcellulose, work by increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. Faecal softeners, such as arachis oil enemas, are not commonly prescribed but can be used to soften stool and ease bowel movements.
In summary, understanding the different types of laxatives and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals prescribe the most appropriate treatment for patients experiencing constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 7
Correct
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A patient with gastric ulcers has been diagnosed with significantly low levels of somatostatin. The medical consultant suspects that a particular type of cell found in both the pancreas and stomach is affected, leading to the disruption of somatostatin release.
Which type of cell is impacted in this case?Your Answer: D cells
Explanation:Somatostatin is released by D cells found in both the pancreas and stomach. These cells release somatostatin to inhibit the hormone gastrin and reduce gastric secretions. The patient’s low levels of somatostatin may have led to an increase in gastrin secretion and stomach acid, potentially causing gastric ulcers. G cells secrete gastrin, while parietal cells secrete gastric acid. Pancreatic cells is too general of a term and does not specify the specific type of cell responsible for somatostatin production.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male has been diagnosed with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. He has reported that his stool is sticking to the toilet bowl and not flushing away. Which enzyme deficiency is most likely causing this issue?
Your Answer: Amylase
Correct Answer: Lipase
Explanation:Steatorrhoea, characterized by pale and malodorous stools that are hard to flush, is primarily caused by a deficiency in lipase.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the paediatric emergency department with fever, vomiting, and abdominal pain. During the abdominal examination, the right lower quadrant is tender upon palpation of the left lower quadrant. What is the term for this sign?
Your Answer: Rovsing's sign
Explanation:Rovsing’s sign is a sign that may indicate the presence of appendicitis. It is considered positive when pressure applied to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.
Murphy’s sign is a sign that may indicate inflammation of the gallbladder. It is considered positive when pressure applied to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, just below the rib cage, causes pain when the patient inhales.
Cullen’s sign is a sign that may indicate ectopic pregnancy or acute pancreatitis. It is characterized by bruising around the belly button.
Tinel’s sign is a sign that may indicate carpal tunnel syndrome. It is considered positive when tapping the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum causes tingling or numbness in the distribution of the median nerve.
Battles sign is a sign that may indicate a basal skull fracture of the posterior cranial fossa. It is characterized by bruising behind the ear.
Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.
The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.
Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife due to concerns of his 'skin and eyes looking yellow' and has worsened since it started 3 months ago. On systematic examination, you noticed jaundice and cachexia but it is otherwise unremarkable. On further questioning the man himself reports that his urine has been getting darker as well as stools becoming paler. You order an urgent CT scan which showed a mass lesion at the head of the pancreas. What is the direct explanation for the change in color of his stools?
Your Answer: Increase in unconjugated bilirubin in the systemic circulation
Correct Answer: Decrease in stercobilin
Explanation:The presentation of symptoms related to the conjugation of bilirubin varies depending on where the process is disrupted, such as pre-hepatic, hepatic, or post-hepatic. In this case, a mass in the pancreatic head has caused an obstruction of the common bile duct, which is post-hepatic. This obstruction results in less conjugated bilirubin reaching the intestinal tract and more being absorbed into the systemic circulation. As a result, there is a decrease in stercobilin production, leading to paler stools.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of fever and complains of a painful mouth. The patient has a history of inflammatory bowel disease and has recently started taking sulphasalazine. There is no history of recent travel or any other relevant medical history.
What urgent investigation should be performed in this case?Your Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Aminosalicylates can cause various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis, which can be detected through FBC testing. In this case, the patient’s recent exposure to sulphasalazine and symptoms of fever and mouth ulcers suggest bone marrow suppression with an infection. While an acute flare of IBD is a possible differential diagnosis, it is not strongly supported by the clinical signs. Amylase testing is not likely to be helpful in this case, as the presentation points more towards agranulocytosis than pancreatitis. CRP testing may be performed to monitor inflammation, but it is not likely to provide a specific diagnosis. Total bilirubin testing is included as a reminder of the potential haematological side-effects of aminosalicylates, such as haemolytic anaemia, but it is not a key investigation in this case. FBC testing is the most clinically urgent investigation to support the diagnosis of agranulocytosis.
Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.
Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female has received a pan proctocolectomy and ileoanal pouch due to familial adenomatous polyposis coli. What is the most frequent non-colonic manifestation of this condition?
Your Answer: Fibrocystic disease of the breast
Correct Answer: Duodenal polyps
Explanation:Polyposis syndromes are a group of genetic disorders that cause the development of multiple polyps in the colon and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract. These polyps can increase the risk of developing cancer, and therefore, early detection and management are crucial. There are several types of polyposis syndromes, each with its own genetic defect, features, and associated disorders.
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by the development of over 100 colonic adenomas, with a 100% risk of cancer. Screening and management involve regular colonoscopies and resectional surgery if polyps are found. FAP is also associated with gastric and duodenal polyps and abdominal desmoid tumors.
MYH-associated polyposis is caused by a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of right-sided cancers. Attenuated phenotype can be managed with regular colonoscopies, while resection and ileoanal pouch reconstruction are recommended for those with multiple polyps.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas, episodic obstruction, and an increased risk of GI cancers. Screening involves annual examinations and pan-intestinal endoscopy every 2-3 years.
Cowden disease is caused by a mutation in the PTEN gene and is characterized by macrocephaly, multiple intestinal hamartomas, and an increased risk of cancer at any site. Targeted individualized screening is recommended, with extra surveillance for breast, thyroid, and uterine cancers.
HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is caused by germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with an increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, and gastric cancers. Colonoscopies every 1-2 years from age 25 and consideration of prophylactic surgery are recommended, along with extra colonic surveillance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with dyspepsia is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and a positive CLO test. Which statement about the probable causative organism is incorrect?
Your Answer: It produces a powerful urease that forms the basis of the Clo test
Correct Answer: In patients who are colonised there is commonly evidence of fundal gastritis on endoscopy
Explanation:Duodenal ulceration cases can be caused by Helicobacter pylori infection, which can be diagnosed through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing. Detecting the infection through endoscopy may not show any typical features, so the recommended approach is to take an antral biopsy for CLO testing during the endoscopy procedure.
Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman visits her GP after discovering a lump in her groin that has been present for the past 2 weeks. The patient reports that she can push the lump back in, but it returns when she coughs. During the examination, the GP identifies the lump located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. The GP successfully reduces the lump by applying pressure 2 cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament and asking the patient to cough. Based on the findings, the GP suspects an indirect inguinal hernia. What structures will the hernia pass through anatomically?
Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring and aponeurosis of internal oblique
Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring and superficial inguinal ring
Explanation:The correct answer is that an indirect inguinal hernia enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring and exits at the superficial inguinal ring. This type of hernia is diagnosed by preventing re-herniation through pressure on the deep ring.
In contrast, a direct inguinal hernia enters the inguinal canal by passing through the posterior wall of the canal. This type of hernia would reappear upon increased intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing.
The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.
The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about experiencing dark, tarry stools for the past 4 days. She has a medical history of hypertension, which is well controlled with ramipril. Apart from ibuprofen, which she is taking for a recent skiing injury, she is not on any other regular medication. She casually mentions that she has lost some weight but denies having any abdominal pain. She is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 17 units of alcohol per week. On examination, there are no signs of chronic liver disease, but her conjunctiva appears pale. The doctor is concerned and decides to conduct several blood tests.
Hb 10.1 g/l
Platelets 202 * 109/l
WBC 9.2 * 109/l
Na+ 137 mmol/l
K+ 4.1 mmol/l
Urea 34 mmol/l
Creatinine 105 µmol/l
What is the most probable reason for the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Peptic ulcer
Explanation:An upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed can lead to the formation of melaena, which is characterized by the passage of dark and tarry stool through the digestive tract. Peptic ulcer is a frequent cause of upper GI bleed, particularly in patients who have identifiable risk factors such as the use of NSAIDs, as seen in this patient.
The blood tests reveal an elevated urea level without an increase in creatinine, which is a typical presentation in an upper GI bleed. Additionally, the presence of anemia is also suggestive of a bleed.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.
The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.
The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of distension and pain on the right side of her abdomen. She has a BMI of 30 kg/m² and has been diagnosed with type-2 diabetes mellitus. Upon conducting liver function tests, it was found that her Alanine Transaminase (ALT) levels were elevated. To investigate further, a liver ultrasound was ordered to examine the blood flow in and out of the liver. Which of the following blood vessels provides approximately one-third of the liver's blood supply?
Your Answer: Hepatic portal vein
Correct Answer: Hepatic artery proper
Explanation:Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Correct
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A 27-year-old man is stabbed in the groin and the area within the femoral triangle needs to be examined. What forms the lateral wall of the femoral triangle?
Your Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle
The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.
The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male presents with sudden and severe abdominal pain. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and takes nitrates, atenolol and amlodipine for it. Upon examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 115 bpm, his blood pressure is 104/72 mmHg, and his temperature is 37.4°C. The abdomen is diffusely tender and bowel sounds are absent. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ruptured aortic aneurysm
Correct Answer: Mesenteric ischaemia
Explanation:Narrowing Down the Differential Diagnosis for Acute Abdomen
When presented with a patient experiencing an acute abdomen, the differential diagnosis can be extensive. However, by taking note of the key points in the patient’s history and conducting a thorough examination, one can narrow down the potential causes. In the case of a man with absent bowel sounds, atrial fibrillation, and a history of ischemic heart disease, the most likely cause of his presentation is mesenteric ischemia. This is due to the fact that he is not obstructed and has vascular disease. For further information on acute mesenteric ischemia, Medscape provides a helpful resource. By utilizing these tools and resources, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with acute abdominal symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Correct
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A pharmaceutical company is striving to develop a novel weight-loss drug that imitates the satiety-inducing effects of the endogenous peptide hormone cholecystokinin (CCK).
What are the cells that naturally synthesize and secrete this hormone?Your Answer: I cells in the upper small intestine
Explanation:CCK is a hormone produced by I cells in the upper small intestine that enhances the digestion of fats and proteins. When partially digested proteins and fats are detected, CCK is synthesized and released, resulting in various processes such as the secretion of digestive enzymes from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi, decreased gastric emptying, and a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. These processes lead to the breakdown of fats and proteins and suppression of hunger.
B cells, on the other hand, are part of the immune system and produce antibodies as part of the B cell receptors. They are produced in the bone marrow and migrate to the spleen and lymphatic system, but they do not play a role in satiety.
Somatostatin is a hormone released from D cells in the pancreas and stomach that regulates peptide hormone release and gastric emptying. It is stimulated by the presence of fat, bile salt, and glucose in the intestines.
Gastrin is a hormone that increases acid release from parietal cells in the stomach and aids in gastric motility. It is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach in response to distension of the stomach, stimulation of the vagus nerves, and the presence of peptides/amino acids in the lumen.
Secretin is a hormone that regulates enzyme secretion from the stomach, pancreas, and liver. It is released from the S cells in the duodenum in response to the presence of acid in the lumen.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following forms the medial wall of the femoral canal?
Your Answer: Inguinal ligament
Correct Answer: Lacunar ligament
Explanation:It is important to differentiate between the femoral canal and the femoral triangle, particularly during exams when time is limited.
Understanding the Femoral Canal
The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.
The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 21
Correct
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During an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, a 78-year-old man has two clamps placed on his aorta, with the inferior clamp positioned at the point of aortic bifurcation. Which vertebral body will be located posterior to the clamp at this level?
Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The point at which the aorta divides into two branches is known as the bifurcation, which is a crucial anatomical landmark that is frequently assessed. This bifurcation typically occurs at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebrae (L4).
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated for an abdominal mass. She delivered her first child vaginally and without any issues. Biopsy results indicate the presence of differentiated fibroblasts in sheets, which is indicative of a desmoid tumor. What is a potential risk factor for this type of tumor?
Your Answer: RET oncogene
Correct Answer: APC mutations
Explanation:Desmoid tumours are more likely to occur in individuals with APC mutations.
Pancreatic and hepatic cancer have been linked to CA-199.
Breast cancer is strongly linked to BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.
Burkitt’s lymphoma, a high-grade B-cell neoplasm, is associated with translocation of the C-myc gene.
Desmoid tumours are growths that arise from musculoaponeurotic structures and are made up of clonal proliferations of myofibroblasts. They are typically firm and have a tendency to infiltrate surrounding tissue. These tumours are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli, and are most commonly found in women after childbirth in the rectus abdominis muscle. Bi allelic APC mutations are usually present in desmoid tumours.
The preferred treatment for desmoid tumours is radical surgical resection, although radiotherapy and chemotherapy may be considered in some cases. Non-surgical therapy is generally less effective than surgical resection. In certain cases of abdominal desmoids, observation may be preferred as some tumours may spontaneously regress. However, desmoids have a high likelihood of local recurrence. These tumours consist of sheets of differentiated fibroblasts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 23
Correct
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Throughout the process of embryonic development, what is the accurate source of the pancreas?
Your Answer: Ventral and dorsal endodermal outgrowths of the duodenum
Explanation:The pancreas originates from two outgrowths of the duodenum – one from the ventral side and the other from the dorsal side. The ventral outgrowth is located near or together with the hepatic diverticulum, while the larger dorsal outgrowth emerges slightly above the ventral one and extends into the mesoduodenum and mesogastrium. After the two buds merge, the duct of the ventral outgrowth becomes the primary pancreatic duct.
Anatomy of the Pancreas
The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.
The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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During a liver resection, what structure will be located posterior to the epiploic foramen at this level when a surgeon performs a pringles manoeuvre?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:To manage bleeding caused by liver injury or a challenging cholecystectomy, a vascular clamp can be utilized at the epiploic foramen. This opening is defined by the following borders: the bile duct on the right, the portal vein at the back, and the hepatic artery on the left, all of which are located in the free edge of the lesser omentum.
Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 25
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy presents to his GP with a 5-month history of passing frequent watery diarrhoea, up to 6 times a day. He reports occasional passage of mucus mixed with his stool and has experienced a weight loss of around 9kg. An endoscopy and biopsy are performed, revealing evidence of granuloma formation.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:The presence of granulomas in the gastrointestinal tract is a key feature of Crohn’s disease, which is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the digestive system. The combination of granulomas and clinical history is highly indicative of this condition.
Coeliac disease, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption that causes villous atrophy and malabsorption. However, it does not involve the formation of granulomas.
Colonic tuberculosis, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is another granulomatous condition that affects the ileocaecal valve. However, the granulomas in this case are caseating with necrosis, and colonic tuberculosis is much less common than Crohn’s disease.
Endoscopy and biopsy are not necessary for diagnosing irritable bowel syndrome, as they are primarily used to rule out other conditions. Biopsies in irritable bowel syndrome would not reveal granuloma formation.
Ulcerative colitis, another inflammatory bowel disease, is characterized by crypt abscesses, pseudopolyps, and mucosal ulceration that can cause rectal bleeding. However, granulomas are not present in this condition.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 26
Correct
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A 65-year-old male is undergoing a Whipples procedure for adenocarcinoma of the pancreas. During the mobilisation of the pancreatic head, the surgeons come across a large vessel passing over the anterior aspect of the uncinate process. What is the probable identity of this vessel?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The origin of the superior mesenteric artery is the aorta, and it travels in front of the lower section of the pancreas. If this area is invaded, it is not recommended to undergo resectional surgery.
Anatomy of the Pancreas
The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.
The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with fatigue, low energy, and lethargy. She has a medical history of migraine, ulcerative colitis, depression, and generalized anxiety disorder.
During the physical examination, slight pallor is noted in her eyes, but otherwise, everything appears normal.
The results of her blood test from this morning are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 98 g/l
- Platelets: 300 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 6 * 109/l
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 112
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 5 mg/L
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 5 mm/hr
- Thyroid function test (TFT): normal
Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms and abnormal blood results?Your Answer: Long-term use of sulfasalazine
Explanation:Sulphasalazine is the likely cause of megaloblastic anaemia in this patient, as her blood results indicate macrocytic anaemia and she has a history of ulcerative colitis for which she is taking the medication. Microcytic anaemia is commonly caused by poor iron intake, while sickle cell anaemia causes microcytic anaemia. Long-term use of sumatriptan is not associated with macrocytic anaemia. Although hypothyroidism can cause macrocytic anaemia, this option is incorrect as the patient’s thyroid function tests are normal.
Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.
Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 28
Correct
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A 65-year-old male with an indirect inguinal hernia is scheduled for laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. While performing the laparoscopy, the surgeon comes across various structures surrounding the inguinal canal. What is the structure that creates the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal?
Your Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique
Explanation:The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal. In males, the inguinal canal serves as the pathway for the testes to descend from the abdominal wall into the scrotum.
To remember the boundaries of the inguinal canal, the mnemonic MALT: 2Ms, 2As, 2Ls, 2Ts can be used. Starting from superior and moving around in order to posterior, the order can be remembered using the mnemonic SALT (superior, anterior, lower (floor), posterior).
The superior wall (roof) is formed by the internal oblique muscle and transverse abdominis muscle. The anterior wall is formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique and aponeurosis of the internal oblique. The lower wall (floor) is formed by the inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament. The posterior wall is formed by the transversalis fascia and conjoint tendon.
The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.
The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following is more frequently observed in individuals with Crohn's disease compared to those with ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer: Goblet cell depletion on biopsy
Correct Answer: Fat wrapping of the terminal ileum
Explanation:Smoking has been found to exacerbate Crohn’s disease, and it also increases the risk of disease recurrence after resection. Patients with ileal disease, which is the most common site of the disease, often exhibit fat wrapping of the terminal ileum. The mesenteric fat in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is typically dense, hard, and prone to significant bleeding during surgery. During endoscopy, the mucosa in Crohn’s disease patients is described as resembling cobblestones, while ulcerative colitis patients often exhibit mucosal islands (pseudopolyps).
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male with Parkinson's disease (PD) arrives at the emergency department with sudden chest pain, indicating a possible heart attack. What treatment should be avoided in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Metoclopramide should not be given to patients with Parkinsonism due to its dopamine antagonist properties which can worsen the symptoms of the disease. However, it can be prescribed as an antiemetic when administering morphine to ACS patients who are not contraindicated. Oxygen is safe for PD patients, while clopidogrel is used for its antiplatelet effects.
Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.
The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.
In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient with consistent PR bleeding is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What is the primary medication used to induce remission of this condition?
Your Answer: Mesalazine
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:To induce remission of Crohn’s disease, glucocorticoids (whether oral, topical or intravenous) are typically the first line of treatment. 5-ASA drugs are considered a second option for inducing remission of IBD. Azathioprine is more commonly used for maintaining remission. Steroids are specifically used to induce remission of Crohn’s disease. Infliximab is particularly effective for treating refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s.
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.
Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 32
Correct
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A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with colorectal cancer. He underwent an open right hemicolectomy to remove the tumor. The pathology report indicates that the cancer has invaded the muscularis propria of the bowel wall but has not reached the serosal layer. Out of the 20 lymph nodes removed, 3 were positive for metastatic disease. A PET scan revealed no distant metastases. What is the TNM clinical classification of this patient's colorectal cancer?
Your Answer: T2 N1 M0
Explanation:The TNM classification system for colon cancer includes assessment of the primary tumor (T), regional lymph nodes (N), and distant metastasis (M). The T category ranges from TX (primary tumor cannot be assessed) to T4b (tumor directly invades or adheres to other organs or structures). The N category ranges from NX (regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed) to N2b (metastasis in 7 or more regional lymph nodes). The M category ranges from M0 (no distant metastasis) to M1b (metastases in more than 1 organ/site or the peritoneum).
Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.
The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with an inguinal hernia. During the examination, a small direct hernia is observed along with pigmented spots on his palms, soles, and around his mouth. The patient had undergone a reduction of an intussusception when he was 10 years old. If a colonoscopy is performed, which of the following lesions is most likely to be detected?
Your Answer: Hyperplastic polyps
Correct Answer: Hamartomas
Explanation:It is probable that he has Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a condition that is linked to the presence of Hamartomas.
Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.
While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.
Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On the day before his expected discharge, he experiences severe diarrhea without blood and needs intravenous fluids. A request for stool culture is made.
What would the microbiology report likely indicate as the responsible microbe?Your Answer: Gram-negative bacillus
Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacillus
Explanation:Clostridium difficile is a type of gram-positive bacillus that can cause pseudomembranous colitis, particularly after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man is having surgery for a cancerous tumor in the splenic flexure of his colon. During the procedure, the surgeons cut the middle colic vein near its source. What is the primary drainage location for this vessel?
Your Answer: Ileocolic vein
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric vein
Explanation:If the middle colonic vein is torn during mobilization, it can lead to severe bleeding that may be challenging to manage as it drains into the SMV.
The Transverse Colon: Anatomy and Relations
The transverse colon is a part of the large intestine that begins at the hepatic flexure, where the right colon makes a sharp turn. At this point, it becomes intraperitoneal and is connected to the inferior border of the pancreas by the transverse mesocolon. The middle colic artery and vein are contained within the mesentery. The greater omentum is attached to the superior aspect of the transverse colon, which can be easily separated. The colon undergoes another sharp turn at the splenic flexure, where the greater omentum remains attached up to this point. The distal 1/3 of the transverse colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.
The transverse colon is related to various structures. Superiorly, it is in contact with the liver, gallbladder, the greater curvature of the stomach, and the lower end of the spleen. Inferiorly, it is related to the small intestine. Anteriorly, it is in contact with the greater omentum, while posteriorly, it is in contact with the descending portion of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, convolutions of the jejunum and ileum, and the spleen. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the transverse colon is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 36
Incorrect
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During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure is most vulnerable to damage?
Your Answer: External iliac vein
Correct Answer: Left ureter
Explanation:The left ureter is the structure that is most commonly encountered and at the highest risk of damage by a careless surgeon, although all of these structures are at risk.
The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.
The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.
The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 37
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding gastric acid secretions is false?
Your Answer: The intestinal phase accounts for 60% of gastric acid produced
Explanation:Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures
A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.
There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.
The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.
In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures is located most posteriorly at the porta hepatis?
Your Answer: Common bile duct
Correct Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:At the porta hepatis, the most posterior structure is the portal vein, while the common bile duct is created by the merging of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct. The common hepatic duct extends and becomes the common bile duct.
Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A gynaecologist is performing a laparoscopic hysterectomy on a 45-year-old patient. He is being careful to avoid damaging a structure that runs close to the vaginal fornices.
What is the structure that the gynaecologist is most likely being cautious of?Your Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Correct Answer: Ureter
Explanation:The correct statements are:
– The ureter enters the bladder trigone after passing only 1 cm away from the vaginal fornices, which is closer than other structures.
– The ilioinguinal nerve originates from the first lumbar nerve (L1).
– The femoral artery is a continuation of the external iliac artery.
– The descending colon starts at the splenic flexure and ends at the beginning of the sigmoid colon.
– The obturator nerve arises from the ventral divisions of the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves.Anatomy of the Ureter
The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.
In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with left-sided abdominal pain and rectal bleeding. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation and is on apixaban. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol.
His observations are heart rate 111 beats per minute, blood pressure 101/58 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/minute, oxygen saturation 96% on room air and temperature 37.8ºC.
Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are sluggish. Rectal examination demonstrates a small amount of fresh red blood but no mass lesions, haemorrhoids or fissures. His pulse is irregular. Chest auscultation is normal.
An ECG demonstrates atrial fibrillation.
Blood tests:
Hb 133 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 444 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 18.1 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 131 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 130 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 32 mg/L (< 5)
Lactate 2.6 mmol/L (0.0-2.0)
Based on the presumed diagnosis, what is the likely location of the pathology?Your Answer: Recto-sigmoid junction
Correct Answer: Splenic flexure
Explanation:Ischaemic colitis most frequently affects the splenic flexure.
Understanding Ischaemic Colitis
Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.
When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 41
Correct
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A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with carcinoid syndrome. What hormone is secreted by carcinoids?
Your Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:The rule of thirds for carcinoids is that one-third of cases involve multiple tumors, one-third affect the small bowel, and one-third result in metastasis or the development of a second tumor. It is important to note that carcinoids secrete serotonin, and carcinoid syndrome only occurs when there are liver metastases present, as the liver typically metabolizes the hormone released from primary lesions.
Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.
To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 42
Correct
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A 35-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department following a car crash. He is experiencing tachycardia and his blood pressure is rapidly decreasing from 90/60mmHg. He is feeling dizzy and disoriented, and is experiencing pain in his left upper quadrant and left shoulder. Which organ is most likely to have sustained damage?
Your Answer: Spleen
Explanation:The patient’s tachycardia and low blood pressure indicate internal bleeding due to trauma. Although he experiences pain in his upper left abdominal quadrant, it does not rule out the possibility of internal bleeding. However, it makes heart and lung injuries less likely as he would have also complained of chest pain. The pain in his left shoulder suggests that the left phrenic nerve has been affected, which indicates damage to the spleen rather than the liver, as it would have been on the right side. The spleen is commonly damaged in trauma and could explain the rapid drop in blood pressure.
Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen
The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.
The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.
In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 43
Correct
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A 25-year-old man was discovered collapsed outside a club on Saturday evening. According to his companion, he had consumed 10 pints of beer and began to retch. After an hour, he began to vomit blood. What is the medical diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear
Explanation:Mallory-Weiss tears can be caused by repeated vomiting and are diagnosed through endoscopy.
Acute pancreatitis presents with severe upper abdominal pain and elevated serum amylase levels.
Coeliac disease causes diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss and is diagnosed through various tests.
Gastric carcinoma can cause non-specific symptoms in early stages and more severe symptoms in later stages.
Ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhoea, weight loss, and rectal bleeding. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 44
Correct
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Which of the following hepatobiliary conditions is commonly linked with ulcerative colitis, typically seen in adult patients?
Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:The risk of developing liver cancer is higher in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and ulcerative colitis. However, the risk of malignant transformation is not increased in patients with Crohn’s disease. Impaired entero-hepatic circulation in Crohn’s disease is linked to the development of gallstones. Unlike PSC, ulcerative colitis does not elevate the risk of other liver lesions.
Understanding Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports that he bleeds excessively whenever he gets a cut on his limbs. He has a past medical history of familial hypercholesterolaemia. His body mass index is 31 kg/m2. He does not have a medical history of bleeding disorders and denies a family history of haemophilia.
During his last visit, his lipid profile showed elevated total cholesterol, elevated LDL and low HDL. He was prescribed a medication to help lower his LDL cholesterol.
What medication was he most likely prescribed?Your Answer: Psyllium Husk
Correct Answer: Cholestyramine
Explanation:Cholestyramine has the potential to decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin A, D, E, and K. Vitamin K is particularly important for the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, and a deficiency in this vitamin can result in clotting abnormalities.
Clomiphene is a medication used to stimulate ovulation in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), and it is not linked to an elevated risk of bleeding.
Psyllium husk is not known to cause any bleeding disorders.
Cholestyramine: A Medication for Managing High Cholesterol
Cholestyramine is a medication used to manage high levels of cholesterol in the body. It works by reducing the reabsorption of bile acid in the small intestine, which leads to an increase in the conversion of cholesterol to bile acid. This medication is particularly effective in reducing LDL cholesterol levels. In addition to its use in managing hyperlipidaemia, cholestyramine is also sometimes used to treat diarrhoea following bowel resection in patients with Crohn’s disease.
However, cholestyramine is not without its adverse effects. Some patients may experience abdominal cramps and constipation while taking this medication. It can also decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies if not properly managed. Additionally, cholestyramine may increase the risk of developing cholesterol gallstones and raise the level of triglycerides in the blood. Therefore, it is important for patients to discuss the potential benefits and risks of cholestyramine with their healthcare provider before starting this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 46
Correct
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A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe generalised abdominal pain and haematemesis. The patient reports ongoing epigastric pain over the past few months which was worse after eating meals. She had a similar but milder episode about 4 years ago, which was treated with omeprazole. Past medical history includes osteoarthritis for which she takes ibuprofen.
Clinical observations reveal a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/78 mmHg, respiratory rate of 25/min, oxygen saturations of 98% on air and a temperature of 37.5ºC. On examination, the patient has severe epigastric tenderness on palpation.
What is the first-line treatment for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Endoscopic intervention
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient is a perforated peptic ulcer, which may have been caused by their use of ibuprofen. The recommended first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines is endoscopic intervention, which can confirm the diagnosis and stop the bleeding. This involves injecting adrenaline into the bleeding site and using cautery and/or clip application. Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s symptoms suggest a perforated peptic ulcer rather than peptic ulcer disease caused by H. pylori. IV proton-pump inhibitor infusion may be considered later, but the patient requires immediate management with endoscopic intervention.
Managing Acute Bleeding in Peptic Ulcer Disease
Peptic ulcer disease is a condition that can lead to acute bleeding, which is the most common complication of the disease. In fact, bleeding accounts for about three-quarters of all problems associated with peptic ulcer disease. The gastroduodenal artery is often the source of significant gastrointestinal bleeding in patients with this condition. The most common symptom of acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease is haematemesis, but patients may also experience melaena, hypotension, and tachycardia.
When managing acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease, an ABC approach should be taken, as with any upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. Intravenous proton pump inhibitors are the first-line treatment, and endoscopic intervention is typically the preferred approach. However, if endoscopic intervention fails (which occurs in approximately 10% of patients), urgent interventional angiography with transarterial embolization or surgery may be necessary. By following these management strategies, healthcare providers can effectively address acute bleeding in patients with peptic ulcer disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman is currently under investigation by her GP for chronic diarrhoea due to repeated occurrences of loose, bloody stools. As per the WHO guidelines, what is the definition of chronic diarrhoea?
Your Answer: Diarrhoea for >6 months
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea for >14 days
Explanation:Chronic diarrhoea is defined by the WHO as lasting for more than 14 days. The leading causes of this condition are irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease, hyperthyroidism, and infection. The remaining options provided are incorrect and do not align with the WHO’s definition.
Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics
Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.
Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridium difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.
Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic complaining of recurrent epigastric pain and acid reflux that has not responded to antacids or proton-pump inhibitors. Upon gastroscopy, an ulcer is discovered in the descending duodenum and a tumor is found in the antrum of the stomach. What type of cell is the origin of this tumor?
Your Answer: S cells
Correct Answer: G cells
Explanation:Gastrin is synthesized by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.
Based on the symptoms presented, it is probable that the patient has a gastrinoma. This type of tumor produces an excess of gastrin, which stimulates the production of hydrochloric acid, leading to the development of peptic ulcers. Normally, gastrin is secreted by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.
Other cells found in the stomach include S cells, which produce secretin, I cells, which produce CCK, and D cells, which produce somatostatin. However, there is no such cell as an H cell in the stomach.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with a sudden exacerbation of arthralgia affecting his hands and wrists. He also complains of feeling excessively fatigued lately. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination, his BMI is found to be 35 kg/m2. Laboratory tests reveal:
- Na+ 140 mmol/l
- K+ 4.2 mmol/l
- Urea 3.8 mmol/l
- Creatinine 100 µmol/l
- Plasma glucose 11.8 mmol/l
- ALT 150 u/l
- Serum ferritin 2000 ng/ml
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral arthritis
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Hereditary haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects how the body processes iron. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. The symptoms in the early stages can be vague and non-specific, such as feeling tired and experiencing joint pain. As the condition progresses, it can lead to chronic liver disease and a condition known as bronze diabetes, which is characterized by iron buildup in the pancreas causing diabetes, and a bronze or grey pigmentation of the skin. Based on the patient’s symptoms of joint pain, elevated ALT levels, and significantly high ferritin levels, it is highly likely that they have haemochromatosis.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often non-specific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.
Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Sarah presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting following a holiday in Greece in which she consumed large amounts of alcohol. On investigation, she has a raised amylase of 500 IU/L and is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. She is treated and makes a full recovery.
Eight weeks later she presents again, complaining of persisting moderately severe abdominal pain and early satiety. An ultrasound of her abdomen shows a fluid filled cavity in the pancreas lined with granulation tissue.
What complication of acute pancreatitis has Sarah developed?Your Answer: Pancreatic abscess
Correct Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst
Explanation:Alcohol intoxication is a common cause of acute pancreatitis, which can present with persistent abdominal pain and a fluid-filled cavity on ultrasound.
While a pancreatic tumor may also cause acute pancreatitis symptoms and obstructive jaundice, it would not typically show a fluid-filled cavity on ultrasound.
A pancreatic abscess, on the other hand, may present with signs of infection such as fever, rigors, and a tender mass.
Although diabetes can be a late complication of pancreatitis, it does not account for the ongoing abdominal pain or the presence of a fluid-filled cavity.
Complications of Acute Pancreatitis
Local complications of acute pancreatitis include peripancreatic fluid collections, pseudocysts, pancreatic necrosis, pancreatic abscess, and hemorrhage. Peripancreatic fluid collections occur in about 25% of cases and may resolve or develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis may involve both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, and complications are directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses typically occur as a result of an infected pseudocyst. Hemorrhage may occur de novo or as a result of surgical necrosectomy and may be identified by Grey Turner’s sign when retroperitoneal hemorrhage occurs.
Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which is associated with a high mortality rate of around 20%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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