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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) asks how likely it is that any future children will have the disease. What is the most accurate answer?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Because Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) is an autosomal dominant condition; therefore, there is a 50% chance that the children of this patient will be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 63-year-old man, known to have small cell lung cancer and ischaemic heart disease (IHD), presents with increasing shortness of breath for the past 7 days. It becomes worse at night and is associated with an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. His cancer was diagnosed five months ago and he has recently completed a course of chemotherapy. From a cardiac point of view, he had a myocardial infarction (MI) two years ago following which he had primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has had no episode of angina since then. Clinical examination of his chest is unremarkable. He does, however, have distended neck veins and periorbital oedema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction is an oncological emergency caused by compression of the SVC and is most commonly associated with lung cancer.
Some causes of the condition include:
1. Common malignancies: non small cell lung cancer, lymphoma
2. Other malignancies: metastatic seminoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma, breast cancer
3. Aortic aneurysm
4. Mediastinal fibrosisClinical features of SVC obstruction include:
1. Dyspnoea: most common
2. Swelling of the face, neck, and arms: conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen
3. Headache: often worse in the morning
4. Visual disturbances
5. Pulseless jugular venous distensionManagement options are:
1. General: dexamethasone, balloon venoplasty, stenting
2. Small cell lung cancer: chemotherapy and radiotherapy
3. Non small cell lung cancer: radiotherapy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 22 year-old university graduate presented with progressive unsteadiness during walking over the last year. She had been otherwise healthy apart from recent difficulty hearing her lecturer in classes. She took no prescription medication but had occasionally taken cocaine during her first year of college. She also admits to drinking up to 30 units of alcohol per week and smoked 10 cigarettes per day. Her parents were both well, but her father's sister had problems with walking before she died. Examination reveals normal tone and power throughout all four limbs. Reflexes were normal in the upper limbs but decreased at the knees and absent at the ankles. Coordination was normal in all four limbs but her gait was ataxic. Sensation in the upper limbs was normal but decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception was noted to the ankles bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ataxia telangiectasia
Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia
Explanation:Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal recessive disorder that usually begins before the end of the teens. It has an estimated prevalence in Europe of 1 in 50,000 and life expectancy is around 40–50 years. Neurological features include a progressive ataxia, cerebellar dysarthria, lower limb areflexia, decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception, and pyramidal weakness. Pes cavus and scoliosis are also both seen. Cardiomyopathy occurs in over 70% of cases. Less common features include optic atrophic, diabetes mellitus, and deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed. When assessing his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which one of the following variables is not required by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation?
Your Answer: Gender
Correct Answer: Serum urea
Explanation:A formula for estimating glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is the Modification Diet of Renal Disease (MDRD) equation which takes into account the following variables: serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. Thus, serum urea is not required in this formula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What does Caplan's syndrome refer to?
Your Answer: Coal miners pneumoconiosis
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis
Explanation:Caplan’s syndrome is defined as the association between silicosis and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is rare and usually diagnosed in an advanced stage of RA. It generally affects patients with a prolonged exposure to silica.
Caplan’s syndrome presents with rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis. Originally described in coal miners with progressive massive fibrosis, it may also occur in asbestosis, silicosis and other pneumoconiosis. Chest radiology shows multiple, round, well defined nodules, usually 0.5 – 2.0 cm in diameter, which may cavitate and resemble tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female has been admitted with an acute infection. She gives a history suggestive of hypersensitivity to amoxicillin. After consultation with the allergy specialist, she has now been diagnosed with an IgE mediated penicillin allergy. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:Cefalexin should be avoided in this patient.
This patient is known to have a severe penicillin allergy. None of the above antibiotics are penicillin based. However, 0.5 – 6.5% of patients who are proven to have an IgE mediated penicillin allergy will also be allergic to cephalosporins, including cefalexin.Penicillin, cephalosporins, and carbapenems are all members of the beta-lactam group of antibiotics and share a common beta-lactam ring. There is, therefore, a small risk of allergy cross-over between all these antibiotics. The rates of allergy cross-over are lower with second and third-generation cephalosporins than first-generation cephalosporins such as cefalexin.
It is important to question the patient carefully to ascertain what symptoms they had on exposure to penicillin. Symptoms such as an urticarial rash or itching make it more likely that they have an IgE mediated allergy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?
Your Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the following features would suggest a diagnosis of essential tremor rather than Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Unilateral symptoms
Correct Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched
Explanation:Difficulty in initiating movement (bradykinesia), postural instability and unilateral symptoms (initially) are typical of Parkinson’s. Essential tremor symptoms are usually worse if arms are outstretched and eased by rest and alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70 year old male presents with an ulcer between his toes - it has a punched-out appearance. He is known to both smoke and drinks heavily. Upon examination, the ulcer is yellow in colour. His foot also turns red when it hangs from the bed. From the list given, choose the single most likely diagnosis for this patient.
Your Answer: Venous stasis ulcer
Correct Answer: Arterial ischemia ulcer
Explanation:Arterial ischemia ulcers present with many of the symptoms observed in this patient: ulcer on the lower extremities, pain, swelling, yellow sores, a punched-out appearance, the foot turning red when dangling from a bed. Smoking a lot is also known to be a causative factor here. This type of ulcer develops due to damage to the arteries caused by a lack of blood flow to the tissue – they are also deep wounds. Venous ischemic ulcers usually form in the knee or inner ankle area as opposed to the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of the following tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANCA
Explanation:Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) is one of three important fibrinoid, necrotizing, inflammatory leukocytoclastic systemic small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies (ANCAs).
The first (prodromal) phase of Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) consists of asthma usually in association with other typical allergic features, which may include eosinophilia. During the second phase, the eosinophilia is characteristic (see below) and ANCAs with perinuclear staining pattern (pANCAs) are detected. The treatment would therefore be different from asthma. For most patients, especially those patients with evidence of active vasculitis, treatment with corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents (cyclophosphamide) is considered first-line therapy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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