00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old mechanic visits his GP complaining of intermittent jaundice that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old mechanic visits his GP complaining of intermittent jaundice that has been occurring for the past 5 months. He has been feeling fatigued lately and occasionally experiences mild itching on his arms. He denies any pain or weight loss. The patient has a history of ulcerative colitis, which was diagnosed 13 years ago and has been managed with mesalazine, anti-diarrhoeals, and steroids. The GP orders liver function tests, which reveal the following results:
      total bilirubin 38 mmol/l
      aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 32 iu/l
      alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 34 iu/l
      alkaline phosphatase 310 u/l.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Cholestatic Jaundice in a Patient with UC

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that should be considered in a patient with UC who presents with a raised alkaline phosphatase level. This is because approximately two-thirds of patients with PSC also have coexisting UC, and between 3% and 8% of UC sufferers will develop PSC. Chronic cholecystitis would present with pain, which is not present in this patient, making PSC the more likely diagnosis. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain and obstructive liver function tests, which are not present in this case. Primary biliary cholangitis is more likely to affect women aged 30-60, and given the patient’s history of UC, PSC is more likely. Pancreatic carcinoma would be associated with weight loss and obstructive liver function tests. Therefore, in a patient with UC presenting with cholestatic jaundice, PSC should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      81.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old Caucasian woman complains of weight loss, steatorrhoea and diarrhoea. Anaemia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old Caucasian woman complains of weight loss, steatorrhoea and diarrhoea. Anaemia and metabolic bone disease are detected during investigations. A small intestine biopsy reveals severe villous atrophy, particularly in the proximal segments. The patient responds well to a gluten-free diet for one year, but her symptoms return despite maintaining the diet. A repeat biopsy shows changes similar to the previous one. What condition should be suspected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Correct Answer: T-cell intestinal lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Non-Responsive Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease, also known as gluten-sensitive enteropathy, is associated with specific human leukocyte antigen subtypes. The hallmark of this disease is the disappearance of clinical features and intestinal histologic findings upon discontinuing gluten in the diet. However, in cases where patients who were previously responding well to a gluten-free diet stop responding, the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma, a complication of coeliac disease, should be strongly considered.

      Other conditions, such as tropical sprue, dermatitis herpetiformis, collagenous sprue, and refractory sprue, may also present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction. Tropical sprue does not respond to gluten restriction, while dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disease associated with coeliac disease and does not cause failure of response to a gluten-free diet. Collagenous sprue is characterized by the presence of a collagen layer beneath the basement membrane and does not respond to a gluten-free diet. Refractory sprue, on the other hand, is a subset of coeliac disease where patients do not respond to gluten restriction and may require glucocorticoids or restriction of soy products.

      In conclusion, when a patient with coeliac disease stops responding to a gluten-free diet, it is important to consider the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma and differentiate it from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food getting stuck and needing to be washed down with a large drink. Achalasia of the oesophagus is suspected. Which nerve supplies the muscularis externa of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer: Intercostal nerves

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerves

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerves are part of the tenth pair of cranial nerves and work with sympathetic nerves to form the oesophageal plexus. They have a parasympathetic function, stimulating peristalsis and supplying smooth muscle. The lower oesophageal sphincter, which relaxes to allow food into the stomach, is influenced by the vagus nerve. Oesophageal achalasia can occur when there is increased tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter, incomplete relaxation, and lack of peristalsis, leading to dysphagia and regurgitation.

      The glossopharyngeal nerves are mixed cranial nerves that supply motor fibres to the stylopharyngeus muscle and parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland. They also form the pharyngeal plexus with the vagus nerve, supplying the palate, larynx, and pharynx.

      The greater splanchnic nerves contribute to the coeliac plexus, which supplies the enteric nervous system and the adrenals. The intercostal nerves arise from the anterior rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves and supply various structures in their intercostal space. The phrenic nerves supply the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      102.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He has a medical history of a heart attack and three transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). The doctor diagnoses him with chronic mesenteric ischaemia. What section of the intestine is typically affected?

      Your Answer: Ileocaecal segment

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesenteric Ischaemia: Common Sites of Affection

      Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that can be likened to angina of the intestine. It is typically seen in patients who have arteriopathy or atrial fibrillation, which predisposes them to arterial embolism. When these patients eat, the increased vascular demand of the bowel cannot be met, leading to ischaemia and abdominal pain. The most common site of mesenteric ischaemia is at the splenic flexure, which is the watershed between the superior and inferior mesenteric arterial supplies.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia occurs when a blood clot blocks the blood supply to a section of the bowel, causing acute ischaemia and severe abdominal pain. While the sigmoid colon may be affected in mesenteric ischaemia, it is not the most common site. It is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The hepatic flexure, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, and the ileocaecal segment, which is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, are not the most common sites of mesenteric ischaemia. The jejunum, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, may also be affected, but it is not the most common site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care doctor, complaining of difficulty swallowing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care doctor, complaining of difficulty swallowing solid foods and liquids for the last two months. He states that food often ‘gets stuck’ in his oesophagus and is associated with retrosternal chest pain. There is no pain on swallowing. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications. He denies recent weight loss or night sweats.
      Physical examination is normal. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes. His blood tests are also normal. A diagnosis of diffuse oesophageal spasm is being considered.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of intermittent dysphagia without odynophagia, abnormal blood tests, or constitutional symptoms suggest a diagnosis of diffuse esophageal spasm. This condition is characterized by increased simultaneous and intermittent contractions of the distal esophagus, often accompanied by retrosternal chest pain, heartburn, and globus sensation. Oesophageal manometry is the first-line investigation for diffuse esophageal spasm, revealing increased simultaneous contractions of the esophageal body with normal lower esophageal sphincter tone. Barium radiography may show a corkscrew esophagus, but it has low sensitivity for diagnosing this condition. Troponin levels would only be indicated if the patient had cardiac-related chest pain, which is unlikely given their age and normal ECG. A chest X-ray would be useful if a cardiac or respiratory condition were suspected, while a lateral cervical spine radiograph is only necessary if cervical osteophytes are thought to be the cause of difficult swallowing, which is unlikely in this young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old girl presents to Accident and Emergency with sudden onset abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to Accident and Emergency with sudden onset abdominal pain. The pain is severe, and has now localised to the right iliac fossa. She has a temperature of 37.6°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Other observations are normal. The surgical registrar comes to review this patient. During her examination she flexes and internally rotates her right hip, which causes her pain. She states that this girl’s appendix lies close to the obturator internus muscle.
      What is the name of the clinical sign the registrar elicited?

      Your Answer: Pemberton’s sign

      Correct Answer: Cope’s sign

      Explanation:

      Abdominal Signs and Their Meanings

      Abdominal signs are physical findings that can help diagnose certain conditions. Here are some common abdominal signs and their meanings:

      Cope’s Sign (Obturator Sign)
      This sign indicates appendicitis and is elicited by flexing and internally rotating the hip. It suggests that the inflamed appendix is close to the obturator internus muscle.

      Murphy’s Sign
      This sign is a test for gallbladder disease. It involves palpating the right upper quadrant of the abdomen while the patient takes a deep breath. If there is pain during inspiration, it suggests inflammation of the gallbladder.

      Pemberton’s Sign
      This sign is seen in patients with superior vena cava obstruction. When the patient raises their hands above their head, it increases pressure over the thoracic inlet and causes venous congestion in the face and neck.

      Psoas Sign
      This sign is a test for appendicitis. It involves extending the patient’s leg while they lie on their side. If this reproduces their pain, it suggests inflammation of the psoas muscle, which lies at the border of the peritoneal cavity.

      Rovsing’s Sign
      This sign is another test for appendicitis. It involves palpating the left iliac fossa, which can reproduce pain in the right iliac fossa. This occurs because the nerves in the intestine do not localize well to an exact spot on the abdominal wall.

      In summary, abdominal signs can provide valuable information in the diagnosis of certain conditions. It is important to understand their meanings and how to elicit them properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 44-year-old man with diagnosed primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) had been taking cholestyramine...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man with diagnosed primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) had been taking cholestyramine and vitamin supplementation for the last 3 years. He had ulcerative colitis which was in remission, and colonoscopic surveillance had not shown any dysplastic changes. His only significant history was two episodes of cholangitis for which he had to be hospitalised in the past year. On examination, he was mildly icteric with a body weight of 52 kg. At present, he had no complaints, except fatigue.
      What is the next best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Continue current management

      Correct Answer: Liver transplantation

      Explanation:

      The only definitive treatment for advanced hepatic disease in primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is orthotopic liver transplantation (OLT). Patients with intractable pruritus and recurrent bacterial cholangitis are specifically indicated for transplant. Although there is a 25-30% recurrence rate in 5 years, outcomes following transplant are good, with an 80-90% 5-year survival rate. PSC has become the second most common reason for liver transplantation in the United Kingdom. Other treatments such as steroids, azathioprine, methotrexate, and pentoxifylline have not been found to be useful. Antibiotic prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin or co-trimoxazole can be used to treat bacterial ascending cholangitis, but it will not alter the natural course of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical deterioration. Diagnostic aspiration of the ascites fluid shows a raised neutrophil count in the ascites fluid.
      Which of the following statements best fits this scenario?

      Your Answer: Secondary prevention of this condition with oral quinolones does not prolong survival

      Correct Answer: There is a high mortality and high recurrence rate

      Explanation:

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis: Mortality, Prevention, and Treatment

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication of ascites, occurring in 8% of cirrhosis cases with ascites. This condition has a high mortality rate of 25% and recurs in 70% of patients within a year. While there is some evidence that secondary prevention with oral quinolones may decrease mortality in certain patient groups, it is not an indication for liver transplantation. The most common infecting organisms are enteric, such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus, and Enterococcus. While an ascitic tap can decrease discomfort, it cannot prevent recurrence. Understanding the mortality, prevention, and treatment options for SBP is crucial for managing this serious complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old male patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. The consultant contacts the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. The consultant contacts the house officer and requests a prescription for prophylactic antibiotics. What is the recommended prophylactic antibiotic for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Antibiotics for Gut Surgery

      Prophylactic antibiotics are commonly used in gut surgery to prevent wound infections, which can occur in up to 60% of cases. The use of prophylactic antibiotics has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of these infections. Co-amoxiclav is the preferred choice for non-penicillin allergic patients, as it is effective against the types of bacteria commonly found in the gut, including anaerobes, enterococci, and coliforms.

      While cefotaxime is often used to treat meningitis, it is not typically used as a prophylactic antibiotic in gut surgery. In patients with mild penicillin allergies, cefuroxime and metronidazole may be used instead. However, it is important to note that cephalosporins should be avoided in elderly patients whenever possible, as they are at a higher risk of developing C. difficile infections. Overall, the use of prophylactic antibiotics is an important measure in preventing wound infections in gut surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain and bright red blood in his vomit. He has a long history of heavy alcohol consumption. On examination, he has guarding over the epigastric region and cool extremities. He also has a distended abdomen with ascites and spider naevi on his neck and cheek. The patient is unstable hemodynamically, and fluid resuscitation is initiated. What is the most crucial medication to begin given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Oesophageal Variceal Bleeds

      Oesophageal variceal bleeds are a serious medical emergency that require prompt treatment. The most important medication to administer in this situation is terlipressin, which reduces bleeding by constricting the mesenteric arterial circulation and decreasing portal venous inflow. Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, should not be used as it may worsen bleeding. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can be used prophylactically to prevent variceal bleeding but is not the most important medication to start in an acute setting. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not recommended before endoscopy in the latest guidelines but is often used in hospital protocols. Tranexamic acid can aid in the treatment of acute bleeding but is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds. Following terlipressin administration, band ligation should be performed, and if bleeding persists, TIPS should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (8/8) 100%
Passmed