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  • Question 1 - John, a 55-year-old man, arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain...

    Correct

    • John, a 55-year-old man, arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward. He also mentions that the pain spreads to his left shoulder. The diagnosis is pericarditis.

      Which nerve is accountable for the referred pain in this case?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensory innervation to the pleura and pericardium. Pericarditis can cause referred pain to the shoulder due to the supraclavicular nerves originating at C3-4. It is important to note that there are no pericardial nerves. The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, while the trochlear nerve supplies the superior oblique muscle. Although the vagus nerve has various functions, it does not supply the pericardium.

      The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies

      The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.

      The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.

      Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8.2
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  • Question 2 - In a patient with an ectopic kidney, where would you expect to find...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with an ectopic kidney, where would you expect to find the adrenal gland situated?

      Your Answer: On the contralateral side

      Correct Answer: In its usual position

      Explanation:

      If the kidney is present, the adrenal gland will typically develop in its normal location instead of being absent.

      The adrenal cortex, which secretes steroids, is derived from the mesoderm of the posterior abdominal wall and is first detected at 6 weeks’ gestation. The fetal cortex predominates throughout fetal life, with adult-type zona glomerulosa and fasciculata detected but making up only a small proportion of the gland. The adrenal medulla, which is responsible for producing adrenaline, is of ectodermal origin and arises from neural crest cells that migrate to the medial aspect of the developing cortex. The fetal adrenal gland is relatively large, but it rapidly regresses at birth, disappearing almost completely by age 1 year. By age 4-5 years, the permanent adult-type adrenal cortex has fully developed.

      Anatomic anomalies of the adrenal gland may occur, such as agenesis of an adrenal gland being usually associated with ipsilateral agenesis of the kidney. Fused adrenal glands, whereby the two glands join across the midline posterior to the aorta, are also associated with a fused kidney. Adrenal hypoplasia can occur in two forms: hypoplasia or absence of the fetal cortex with a poorly formed medulla, or disorganized fetal cortex and medulla with no permanent cortex present. Adrenal heterotopia describes a normal adrenal gland in an abnormal location, such as within the renal or hepatic capsules. Accessory adrenal tissue, also known as adrenal rests, is most commonly located in the broad ligament or spermatic cord but can be found anywhere within the abdomen, and even intracranial adrenal rests have been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a 3-minute tonic-clonic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a 3-minute tonic-clonic seizure observed by his friend. He has had 2 similar episodes before. The neurology team evaluates him and starts him on carbamazepine.

      What is the mechanism of action of carbamazepine in suppressing seizure activity?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of voltage-gated potassium channels

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of voltage-gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of Na channels and suppression of excitation are caused by sodium valproate and carbamazepine.

      Treatment Options for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.

      It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after having a seizure. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after having a seizure. He recently immigrated from Latin America and has been generally healthy. He reports experiencing diarrhea for the past three days but has not had any other health concerns.

      Upon examination, multiple cystic lesions are found on a head CT.

      What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taenia solium

      Explanation:

      Upon arrival at the Emergency Department, a new immigrant from Latin America experienced a seizure. A CT scan of the head revealed the presence of numerous cystic lesions.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old female presents to the emergency department after a mixed overdose. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female presents to the emergency department after a mixed overdose. According to her parents, she had locked herself in her room after an argument and they found her drowsy on the floor after forcing open the door. The patient has a history of depression and previous suicide attempts. Her grandmother's medical box, containing paracetamol, gliclazide, bisoprolol, and atorvastatin, was found empty, but the amount ingested is unknown. On examination, the patient is sweaty with a global tremor and is confused. She is tachycardic and appears generally weak.

      Which molecule is likely to be the first produced by the patient in response to the overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      The initial hormone response to hypoglycaemia is the secretion of glucagon. In the case of a suspected gliclazide overdose, the most likely presentation would be hypoglycaemia, as evidenced by the patient’s sudden onset of sweating, weakness, and confusion. Other medications ingested are unlikely to produce these symptoms. When the body experiences hypoglycaemia, it first reduces insulin production and then increases glucagon secretion, which promotes gluconeogenesis to raise blood glucose levels.

      Glycogen synthase is an enzyme involved in glycogenesis, the process of converting glucose into glycogen for storage in the body. However, in the case of hypoglycaemia caused by gliclazide ingestion, the body would carry out gluconeogenesis to release glucose, rather than glycogenesis.

      While cortisol is released in response to hypoglycaemia, it is a later response and is secreted after glucagon. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone that also promotes gluconeogenesis and glucose production.

      Glutathione is an antioxidant found in the liver that helps neutralize and eliminate the toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI) produced by paracetamol. In cases of paracetamol overdose, glutathione levels are depleted, but this patient’s symptoms are too acute for a paracetamol overdose. Liver failure resulting from paracetamol overdose takes several hours to develop and even longer before physical symptoms appear. The antidote treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine, which replenishes glutathione levels.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 6 - Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the distal convoluted...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Its secretory function is most effective at low systolic blood pressures (typically less than 100 mmHg)

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome can lead to necrosis of the proximal convoluted tubule, which plays a crucial role in reabsorbing up to two thirds of filtered water. Acute tubular necrosis is more likely to occur when systolic blood pressure falls below the renal autoregulatory range, particularly if it is low. However, within this range, the absolute value of systolic BP has minimal impact.

      The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology

      The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 13-year-old boy with coeliac disease visits his GP with complaints of fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy with coeliac disease visits his GP with complaints of fatigue. The doctor suspects iron deficiency anaemia and requests some blood tests. The pathologist's report indicates the presence of microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells along with another unusual cell type. Which of the following abnormal red cell types is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pencil cells

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is characterized by microcytic and hypochromic cells, as well as pencil and target cells on a peripheral blood film. Schistocytes may be present due to mechanical heart valves, while rouleaux may be observed in cases of chronic liver disease and malignant lymphoma. Tear drop poikilocytes may be seen in myelofibrosis.

      Pathological Red Cell Forms in Blood Films

      Blood films are used to examine the morphology of red blood cells and identify any abnormalities. Pathological red cell forms are associated with various conditions and can provide important diagnostic information. Some of the common pathological red cell forms include target cells, tear-drop poikilocytes, spherocytes, basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly bodies, Heinz bodies, schistocytes, pencil poikilocytes, burr cells (echinocytes), and acanthocytes.

      Target cells are seen in conditions such as sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease. Tear-drop poikilocytes are associated with myelofibrosis, while spherocytes are seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. Basophilic stippling is a characteristic feature of lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia. Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in hyposplenism, while Heinz bodies are associated with G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia. Schistocytes or ‘helmet cells’ are seen in conditions such as intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Pencil poikilocytes are seen in iron deficiency anaemia, while burr cells (echinocytes) are associated with uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency. Acanthocytes are seen in abetalipoproteinemia.

      In addition to these red cell forms, hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in megaloblastic anaemia. Identifying these pathological red cell forms in blood films can aid in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old patient presents for a routine checkup. During a neurological assessment, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents for a routine checkup. During a neurological assessment, it is discovered that the patient has sensory loss in their middle finger. Which specific dermatome is responsible for this sensory loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The middle finger is where the C7 dermatome is located.

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.

      Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 7-year-old male patient is exhibiting severe fasting hypoglycemia symptoms and has an...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old male patient is exhibiting severe fasting hypoglycemia symptoms and has an enlarged liver upon examination. Elevated levels of blood lactate, uric acid, and triglycerides are also present. Following thorough testing, the patient is diagnosed with Von Gierke disease (glycogen storage disease I). What specific enzyme is deficient in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphatase

      Explanation:

      Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is the underlying cause of Von Gierke’s disease, also known as glycogen storage disease type I. This condition results in severe fasting hypoglycemia, elevated levels of lactate, triglycerides, and uric acid, and impaired gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis. Hepatomegaly is often observed during examination. Treatment involves frequent oral glucose intake and avoidance of fructose and galactose.

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old male is referred to a paediatrician for recurrent seizures. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old male is referred to a paediatrician for recurrent seizures. He is observed to have poor cognitive performance and is significantly lagging behind his peers in school. During chest examination, a pansystolic murmur is detected on the left sternal edge, and he displays an unusual facial appearance. Blood tests reveal hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and low parathyroid hormone levels. The paediatrician suspects Di George syndrome and orders a test to determine the total number of T cells. Which cell surface marker is used to quantify the total T cell count?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD3

      Explanation:

      The presence of CD3 on the surface of all T cells makes it a useful marker for determining the total number of T cells. Individuals with Di George syndrome, which is characterized by underdevelopment of the thymus, typically have low CD3 counts. CD4 is a cell surface marker specific to T helper cells, while CD5 is commonly found in mantle cell lymphomas. CD8, on the other hand, is a cell surface marker present on cytotoxic T cells.

      Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions

      Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.

      Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (1/1) 100%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Neurological System (0/1) 0%
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