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  • Question 1 - A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at...

    Incorrect

    • A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulsus parodoxus

      Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse

      Explanation:

      DIAGNOSIS:
      A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
      A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
      A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
      Bounding pulses
      Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
      Hepatomegaly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she collapsed whilst shopping. She has a tachycardia of 150 bpm and her BP is 100/60 mmHg. Her ECG showed a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following is more suggestive of a ventricular tachycardia (VT) over a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction?

      Your Answer: A corrected QT interval of 420ms

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular dissociation

      Explanation:

      To differentiate VT from SVT with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

      Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
      QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
      QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
      AV dissociation for VT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on...

    Correct

    • A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on exertion. On examination his lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. There was a left sided parasternal heave. His electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed atrial fibrillation with right axis deviation. Echocardiography showed dilated right heart chambers. Left and right heart catheterisation study revealed the following: Inferior vena cava Oxygen saturations 63 %, Superior vena cava Oxygen saturations 59 %, Right atrium Oxygen saturations 77 %, Right ventricle Oxygen saturations 78 %, Pulmonary artery Oxygen saturations 82 %, Arterial saturation Oxygen saturations 98 %. What is the most likely diagnosis from the following answers?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Right ventricular volume overload is indicated by a parasternal heave and right axis deviation. Oxygen saturation in right atrium is higher than oxygen saturation of the inferior and superior vena cavae. So the most probable diagnosis is atrial septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68 year old man is admitted with an infective exacerbation of chronic...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old man is admitted with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Investigations: blood gas taken whilst breathing 28% oxygen on admission: pH 7.30 p(O2) 7.8 kPa p(CO2) 7.4 kPa Which condition best describes the blood gas picture?

      Your Answer: Decompensated type-2 respiratory failure

      Explanation:

      The normal partial pressure reference values are:
      – PaO2 more than 80 mmHg (11 kPa)
      – PaCO2 less than 45 mmHg (6.0 kPa).
      This patient has an elevated PaCO2 (7.4kPa)
      Hypoxemia (PaO2 <8kPa) with hypercapnia (PaCO2 >6.0kPa).
      The pH is also lower than 7.35 at 7.3

      Type 2 respiratory failure is caused by inadequate alveolar ventilation; both oxygen and carbon dioxide are affected. Defined as the build-up of carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2) that has been generated by the body but cannot be eliminated. The underlying causes include:
      – Increased airways resistance (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, suffocation)
      – Reduced breathing effort (drug effects, brain stem lesion, extreme obesity)
      – A decrease in the area of the lung available for gas exchange (such as in chronic bronchitis)
      – Neuromuscular problems (Guillain–Barré syndrome, motor neuron disease)
      – Deformed (kyphoscoliosis), rigid (ankylosing spondylitis), or flail chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old male who is a known case of sickle cell disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male who is a known case of sickle cell disease presents to the Accident and Emergency (A&E) department with fever, tachypnoea, and rib pain. On examination, he has a low-grade fever of 37.9°C, oxygen saturation of 95% on air, and bilateral vesicular breath sounds on chest auscultation. CXR shows opacification in the right middle zone. Which of these statements most accurately describes the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: The patient should undergo an exchange transfusion to a target Hb > 8g/dL

      Correct Answer: Incentive spirometry is indicated

      Explanation:

      This is a typical picture of acute chest syndrome (ACS). According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH), ACS is defined as ‘an acute illness characterised by fever and/or respiratory symptoms, accompanied by a new pulmonary infiltrate on chest X-ray’. ACS occurs in sequestration crisis, which is one of the four main types of crises occurring in sickle cell disease.

      The fundamentals of initial management are as follows:
      1. Oxygen therapy to maintain saturation >95%
      2. Intravenous fluids to ensure euvolemia
      3. Adequate pain relief
      4. Incentive spirometry in all patients presenting with rib or chest pain
      5. Antibiotics with cover for atypical organisms
      6. Bronchodilators if asthma co-exists with acute chest syndrome, or if there is an evidence of acute bronchospasm on auscultation
      7. Early consultation with the critical care team and haematology department

      A senior haematologist then makes a decision as to whether a simple or exchange transfusion is necessary in order to achieve a target Hb of 10.0–11.0g/dL in either instance.

      Sickle Cell Crises:
      Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises:
      1. Sequestration crisis: acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates)

      2. Thrombotic (painful or vaso-occlusive) crisis: precipitated by infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation

      3. Aplastic crisis: sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis, usually occurring secondary to parvovirus infection

      4. Haemolytic crisis: fall in haemoglobin secondary to haemolysis, rare type of sickle cell crises

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An iv-drug abuser sustains an open head injury and is admitted overnight for...

    Incorrect

    • An iv-drug abuser sustains an open head injury and is admitted overnight for observation. The next morning she is ok and is discharged. A week later she is re-admitted with fluctuating hard neurological signs. Blood results show neutrophilia and raised C-reactive protein (CRP). Which of the following is the best initial treatment step?

      Your Answer: Antibiotic therapy iv

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast

      Explanation:

      Increased WBC count and CRP suggest infection. But with the fluctuating hard neurological signs, there is suspicion of the presence of a cerebral mass, which is an indication for requesting for a CT scan with contrast, to rule out an abscess or haematoma. The lumbar puncture can be considered after the CT scan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome. The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?

      Your Answer: Actin

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of the following features is most suggestive of Lewy body dementia?

      Your Answer: Symptoms worsen with neuroleptics

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is an increasingly recognised cause of dementia, accounting for up to 20% of cases. The characteristic pathological feature is alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia as patients are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. Questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried out. Which one of the following is mostly associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Translocation between chromosome 15 and 17

      Correct Answer: Deletions of chromosome 5

      Explanation:

      Deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7 is a poor prognostic feature for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following features is most helpful in distinguishing beta thalassaemia...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is most helpful in distinguishing beta thalassaemia trait from iron deficiency anaemia?

      Your Answer: Target cells on peripheral blood film examination

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin A2 levels

      Explanation:

      Elevated haemoglobin A2 level is seen in beta thalassaemia trait, whereas, it is typically low in iron deficiency anaemia unless the patient has received a recent blood transfusion.

      Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and reduced haematocrit (Ht) are encountered in both conditions. Peripheral blood smear is grossly abnormal in both beta thalassaemia and severe iron deficiency anaemia, showing bizarre morphology, target cells, and a small number of nucleated red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Which one of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Mediastinal involvement

      Correct Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      Night sweats are a B symptom in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and imply a poor prognosis.

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:

      Stage
      I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)

      II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)

      III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)

      IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites

      Suffix
      A: No B symptoms

      B: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats—poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      169.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50 yr. old male patient was started on amiodarone. Prior to commencement,...

    Correct

    • A 50 yr. old male patient was started on amiodarone. Prior to commencement, his blood urea and electrolytes were checked. What is the reason for doing this investigation before starting amiodarone?

      Your Answer: To detect hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Any antiarrhythmic drugs can potentially cause arrhythmias. Before starting amiodarone, any electrolyte imbalance including hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, or hypocalcaemia should be corrected to prevent any arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old lady, known with rheumatoid arthritis, complains of increasing numbness and tingling...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old lady, known with rheumatoid arthritis, complains of increasing numbness and tingling in her feet and hands. She has recently developed an ulcer on her left heel, after having burnt her foot in a hot bath. A number of depigmented areas are readily seen over her upper limbs. She is currently taking low-dose prednisolone (7.5 mg daily), alendronic acid, lansoprazole, paracetamol, indomethacin, methotrexate and rituximab. Her blood tests demonstrate: Haemoglobin 9.9 g/l, MCV 102 fl, Platelets 410 x 109/L, White blood cells 12.3 x 109/L, Vitamin B12 97 pg/ml, Folate 12.3ng/ml, Random blood glucose 9.9 mmol/L, Thyroid-stimulating hormone 4.7 mU/ml, Thyroxine 12.8 pmol/L. Which autoantibody would be most diagnostic for the underlying disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor (IF)

      Explanation:

      This clinical scenario describes pernicious anaemia. Anti-intrinsic factor (IF) antibodies are most specific for pernicious anaemia. Antigastric parietal cell antibodies have a higher sensitivity but are less specific for pernicious anaemia. The other antibodies listed are not related to pernicious anaemia. Anti-TTG is seen with Celiac’s disease, anti-TPO is seen with thyroid disease, GAD is seen with type I diabetes, but this does not explain her anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      78.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 54 year old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years presents with worsening dyspnoea, fever and cough. He works at a foundry. Vitals are as follows: Respiratory rate: 28/min Heart rate: 80 bpm Temp: 37.6C Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crepitations throughout the lung fields. Calcified hilar nodules are visible on the chest X-ray. Further evaluation shows an eggshell calcification on HRCT. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Silicosis

      Explanation:

      Silicosis is a common occupational lung disease that is caused by the inhalation of crystalline silica dust. Silica is the most abundant mineral on earth. Workers that are involved for example in construction, mining, or glass production are among the individuals with the highest risk of developing the condition. Acute silicosis causes severe symptoms (e.g., exertional dyspnoea, cough with sputum) and has a very poor prognosis.
      Chronic silicosis has a very variable prognosis and affected individuals may remain asymptomatic for several decades. However, radiographic signs are usually seen early on. Typical radiographic findings are calcifications of perihilar lymph nodes, diffuse ground glass opacities, large numbers of rounded, solitary nodules or bigger, confluent opacities. Avoiding further exposure to silica is crucial, especially since the only treatment available is symptomatic (e.g., bronchodilators). Silicosis is associated with an increased risk of tuberculosis and lung cancer. Berylliosis typically affects individuals who are exposed to aerospace industry. Histoplasmosis and tuberculosis do not form eggshell calcifications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Modafinil

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin. Other members residing with her at the retirement home also have similar complaints. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies is due to an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei and most commonly presents with these symptoms. The organism resides in burrows in a pattern specifically affecting the interdigital spaces and the skin folds of the arms and legs. The infection spreads from one person to another, especially in populated communities, through close contact.
      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vascular inflammation.
      Psoriasis rash is characterised by scaly plaques affecting the extensor surfaces of the body. Pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid both are bullous disorders of the skin. They may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions and there may be involvement in other sites; erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 36 year old female who has been suffering from depression for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old female who has been suffering from depression for the past 5 years was recently admitted to the psychiatric intensive care unit. She is currently being managed on Sertraline. In clinic she was observed to be sitting in a fixed position for several hours, awake but unable to move. What would be an appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: ECT

      Explanation:

      Catatonia is a state of apparent unresponsiveness to external stimuli and apparent inability to move normally in a person who is apparently awake. Catatonia can be acute and occur in severely ill patients with underlying psychiatric or other medical disorders.

      A history of behavioural responses to others usually includes the presence of the following:
      – Mutism (absence of speech)
      – Negativism (performing actions contrary to the commands of the examiner)
      – Echopraxia (repeating the movements of others)
      – Echolalia (repeating the words of others)
      – Waxy flexibility (slight, even resistance to positioning by examiner)
      – Withdrawal (absence of responses to the environment).

      In the presence of a catatonic state, both first and second generation antipsychotics (SGA) may contribute to maintaining or worsening the catatonic state and increase the risk of developing NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome).

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is effective in all forms of catatonia, even after pharmacotherapy with benzodiazepines has failed. Response rate ranges from 80% to 100% and results superior to those of any other therapy in psychiatry. ECT should be considered first-line treatment in patients with malignant catatonia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, delirious mania or severe catatonic excitement, and in general in all catatonic patients that are refractory or partially responsive to benzodiazepines. Early intervention with ECT is encouraged to avoid undue deterioration of the patient’s medical condition.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a procedure, done under general anaesthesia, in which small electric currents are passed through the brain, intentionally triggering a brief seizure. ECT seems to cause changes in brain chemistry that can quickly reverse symptoms of certain mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old woman is being reviewed in the oncology clinic following debulking surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is being reviewed in the oncology clinic following debulking surgery one month ago. She is a known case of primary peritoneal cancer with two liver metastases and has now come in for review prior to adjuvant chemotherapy. During her chemotherapy, which of the following tumour markers would be the most appropriate to monitor her disease progression?

      Your Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

      Correct Answer: CA 125

      Explanation:

      Tumour marker CA 125 is mostly associated with primary peritoneal cancer and ovarian cancer. It can be used to monitor response to chemotherapy, alongside regular CT scans.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic complaining of passing faeces per urethra. Cystoscopy confirms a fistula between his bladder and bowel. Which treatment is most likely to be effective?

      Your Answer: antibiotics

      Correct Answer: surgery

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for a colovesicular fistula is surgery. This is the only definitive treatment. If the patient is a poor surgical candidate, there can be an attempt to manage them non-operatively, but this is absolutely NOT the MOST EFFECTIVE therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.

      Your Answer: Infection

      Correct Answer: Lymphedema

      Explanation:

      Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled. Sputum cultures reveal pneumonia and he receives treatment with erythromycin. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. This means it stops the further growth of bacteria rather than directly destroying it. This is achieved by inhibiting protein synthesis. Erythromycin binds to the 23S ribosomal RNA molecule in the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This causes a blockage in the exiting of the peptide chain that is growing. Given that humans have 40S and 60S subunits, and do not have 50S subunits, erythromycin does not affect protein synthesis in human tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following is not associated with non-alcoholic steatohepatitis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not associated with non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?

      Your Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      There are two types of Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD); simple fatty liver and non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH). Simple fatty liver and NASH are two separate conditions.
      Simple fatty liver, also called non-alcoholic fatty liver (NAFL), is a form of NAFLD in which you have fat in your liver but little or no inflammation or liver cell damage. Simple fatty liver typically does not progress to cause liver damage or complications.
      Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
      NASH is a form of NAFLD in which you have hepatitis and liver cell damage, in addition to fat in your liver. Inflammation and liver cell damage can cause fibrosis, or scarring, of the liver. NASH may lead to cirrhosis or liver cancer. Type I diabetes is not associated with NASH (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis), but type II diabetes is. Hyperlipidaemia, obesity, sudden weight loss/starvation and jejunoileal bypass are all associated with NASH. This is the most common cause of liver disease in the developed world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma?

      Your Answer: Calcium level

      Correct Answer: B2-microglobulin

      Explanation:

      B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma (MM). Raised levels imply a poorer prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He also has a history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His main complaint is a blue tinge to his vision. Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Pioglitazone

      Correct Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Blue tinge of vision/cyanopsia is caused due to the intake of sildenafil citrate.

      Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction.
      It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.

      Uses:
      It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.

      Adverse effects:
      Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.
      It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.

      Note: Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision) may occur secondary to treatment with digoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy and easy bruising. Which of the following is a marker of a bad prognosis in this disease?

      Your Answer: Philadelphia chromosome positive

      Explanation:

      Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22), is a marker of poor prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      ALL is the malignancy of lymphoid progenitor cells affecting B or T cell lineage. This results in the arrest of lymphoid cell maturation and proliferation of immature blast cells (lymphoblasts), leading to bone marrow and tissue infiltration.

      ALL is the most common type of childhood cancers. Its peak incidence is between two to three years of age.

      Acute B lymphoblastic leukaemia (B-ALL) is the most common type of ALL, involving overproduction of B-cell lymphoblasts. It is manifested by low initial WCC and is associated with a good prognosis.

      Poor prognostic factors for ALL include:
      1. Pre-B cell or T-cell ALL (T-ALL)
      2. Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22)
      3. Age <2 years or >10 years
      4. Male sex
      5. CNS involvement
      6. High initial WBC (e.g. >100 x 10^9/L)
      7. non-Caucasian

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      14.1
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  • Question 27 - Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?

      Your Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.

      Common lithium side effects may include:
      – dizziness, drowsiness;
      – tremors in your hands;
      – trouble walking;
      – dry mouth, increased thirst or urination;
      – nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, stomach pain;
      – cold feeling or discoloration in your fingers or toes;
      – rash; or.
      – blurred vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a nodular growth over the dorsum of the his nose, about 0.6 cm in size. The base of nodule is slightly ulcerated and its margins are raised. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Basal cell carcinoma is usually located on sun exposed sites. It has got many variants and clinically it presents as a slow growing mass/nodule with rolled margins and an ulcerated base.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that his partner is being unfaithful. When asked if he has any evidence to prove that this is true, he says no. However, he appears to be distressed and believes that he is right. Which condition could this be a symptom of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Othello syndrome (OS) is a type of paranoid delusional jealousy, characterized by the false absolute certainty of the infidelity of a partner, leading to preoccupation with a partner’s sexual unfaithfulness based on unfounded evidence. OS has been associated with psychiatric and neurological disorders including stroke, brain trauma, brain tumours, neurodegenerative disorders, encephalitis, multiple sclerosis, normal pressure hydrocephalus, endocrine disorders, and drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever, haemoptysis, green sputum and an effusion clinically. There is concern that it may be an empyema.   Which test would be most useful to resolve the suspicion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleural fluid pH

      Explanation:

      If a pleural effusion is present, a diagnostic thoracentesis may be performed and analysed for pH, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose levels, specific gravity, and cell count with differential. Pleural fluid may also be sent for Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity. Acid-fast bacillus testing may also be considered and the fluid may be sent for cytology if cancer is suspected.

      The following findings are suggestive of an empyema or parapneumonic effusion that will likely need a chest tube or pigtail catheter for complete resolution:
      -Grossly purulent pleural fluid
      -pH level less than 7.2
      -WBC count greater than 50,000 cells/µL (or polymorphonuclear leukocyte count of 1,000 IU/dL)
      -Glucose level less than 60 mg/dL
      -Lactate dehydrogenase level greater than 1,000 IU/mL
      -Positive pleural fluid culture

      The most often used golden criteria for empyema are pleural effusion with macroscopic presence of pus, a positive Gram stain or culture of pleural fluid, or a pleural fluid pH under 7.2 with normal peripheral blood ph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (0/2) 0%
Cardiology (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Haematology & Oncology (4/7) 57%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/3) 33%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
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