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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is referred to the medical team on call. He has been feeling fatigued for two months and is now experiencing shortness of breath with minimal exertion. He has also had several episodes of syncope with postural hypotension. The GP conducted a blood count and the results showed:
- Haemoglobin 64 g/L (120-160)
- MCV 62 fL (80-96)
- WCC 11.6 ×109L (4-11)
- Platelets 170 ×109L (150-400)
- MCH 22 pg (28-32)
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Check serum ferritin, vitamin B12 and folate
Correct Answer: Transfuse packed red cells
Explanation:Microcytic Hypochromic Anaemia and the Importance of Blood Transfusion
This patient is presenting with a microcytic hypochromic anaemia, which is commonly caused by iron deficiency due to occult gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss in a Caucasian population. To determine the cause of the anaemia, a full history and examination should be conducted to look for clues of GI blood loss. Given the microcytic hypochromic picture, it is likely that blood loss has been ongoing for some time.
Although there is no evidence of haemodynamic compromise or congestive cardiac failure (CCF), the patient is experiencing breathlessness on minimal exertion. This justifies an upfront transfusion to prevent the patient from going into obvious cardiorespiratory failure. At a Hb of 64 g/L in a 72-year-old, the benefits of transfusion outweigh the risks.
While haematinics such as ferritin, vitamin B12, and folate are important investigations, the most crucial management step is organising a blood transfusion. This will help to address the immediate issue of anaemia and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What is the most probable cause of his macrocytosis?
Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:Megaloblastic Bone Marrow and Its Causes
A megaloblastic bone marrow is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, as well as some cytotoxic drugs. This condition is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells in the bone marrow. However, other causes of macrocytosis, which is the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream, do not result in a megaloblastic bone marrow appearance. It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytosis to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain.
On examination, she is found to have a tachycardia of 130 bpm, with generalised abdominal tenderness and 3 cm splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal marked anaemia, and a diagnosis of splenic sequestration crisis is considered.
Which blood vessel in the spleen is most responsible for monitoring the quality of red blood cells and removing aged ones from circulation?Your Answer: Splenic sinusoid
Explanation:The Anatomy of the Spleen: Splenic Sinusoids, Trabecular Veins, Arteries, and Sheathed Capillaries
The spleen is an important organ in the immune system, responsible for filtering blood and removing old or damaged red blood cells. Its unique anatomy allows it to perform this function effectively.
One key component of the spleen is the splenic sinusoid. These sinusoids are lined with elongated, cuboidal endothelial cells that are closely associated with macrophages. The gaps between the endothelial cells and incomplete basement membrane allow for the passage of red blood cells, with younger and more deformable cells passing through easily while older or abnormal cells are more readily destroyed by the macrophages.
The trabecular veins receive blood from the splenic sinusoids, while the trabecular arteries are branches of the afferent splenic artery. These arteries pass deep into the spleen along connective tissue trabeculae and branch into central arteries that pass through the white pulp of the spleen.
The central arteries then lead to sheathed capillaries, which are branches of the central arteries. These capillaries open directly into the red pulp of the spleen, allowing for further filtration and removal of old or damaged red blood cells.
Overall, the anatomy of the spleen is complex and specialized, allowing it to perform its important functions in the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Correct
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What is true regarding the production of pooled plasma derivatives?
Your Answer: The end product is a freeze dried product
Explanation:Preparation of Plasma Derivatives
The preparation of plasma derivatives, such as factor VIII, involves pooling several thousand plasma donations, typically 20,000 or 5,000 kg of plasma at a time. To avoid the risk of vCJD, pooled plasma has been sourced from outside the UK since 1999. The process includes several chemical steps, including ethanol extraction, chromatography, and viral inactivation, resulting in a freeze-dried product. These products have a long shelf life of several months to years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His blood tests revealed a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 121 mm in the first hour. Serum protein electrophoresis revealed an M band in the gamma globulin region with a total IgG level of 70 g/l. Bone marrow biopsy shows plasma cells in the marrow of 11%. A skeletal survey reveals no abnormalities. Other blood tests revealed:
Test Parameter Normal range
Calcium 2.60 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Creatinine 119 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Phosphate 1.30 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Lactate dehydrogenase 399 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
His body weight was 80 kg.
What is his condition better known as?Your Answer: Smouldering myeloma
Explanation:Smouldering myeloma is a stage between monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) and myeloma. To diagnose this condition, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of at least 30 g/l and monoclonal plasma cells of at least 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, but no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients with smouldering myeloma should be closely monitored as they are at high risk of developing symptomatic myeloma.
Multiple myeloma is a malignant neoplasm where there is clonal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the secretion of a monoclonal antibody and light immunoglobulin chains that cause organ damage. Patients with multiple myeloma present with various symptoms, including lethargy, bone pain, pathological fractures, renal impairment, amyloidosis, and pancytopenia due to marrow infiltration. To diagnose multiple myeloma, the patient must have a monoclonal antibody in serum and/or urine, clonal plasma cells of at least 10% on bone marrow biopsy, and evidence of end-organ damage.
MGUS is a condition where low levels of paraprotein are detected in the blood, but they are not causing clinically significant symptoms or end-organ damage. To diagnose MGUS, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of less than or equal to 30 g/l, monoclonal plasma cells of less than or equal to 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, and no evidence of end-organ damage.
Non-secretory myeloma is a rare variant of multiple myeloma where the bone marrow findings and end-organ damage are similar to myeloma, but there is no detectable monoclonal protein in the serum or urine. This makes it difficult to diagnose.
Plasma cell leukemia is a rare and aggressive form of multiple myeloma characterized by high levels of plasma cells circulating in the peripheral blood. It can occur as a primary condition or a secondary leukaemic transformation of multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) with 71% of bone marrow blasts. She declined bone marrow transplant and was started on appropriate chemotherapy. After 2 months, a repeat bone marrow revealed 8% of blasts. Peripheral blood was blast-free and blood tests revealed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 106 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 5.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.8 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
Platelets 131 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
What is her clinical status?Your Answer: Partial remission
Explanation:Partial remission occurs when a patient meets all the criteria for complete remission except for having more than 5% bone marrow blasts. To be diagnosed with partial remission, the blast cells can be between 5% and 25% and must have decreased by at least 50% from their levels before treatment.
Complete remission is achieved when a patient meets specific criteria, including having a neutrophil count of over 1.0 × 109/l and a platelet count of over 100 × 109/l, not requiring red cell transfusions, having normal cellular components on bone marrow biopsy, having less than 5% blasts in the bone marrow without Auer rods present, and having no signs of leukemia anywhere else in the body.
Complete remission with incomplete recovery is when a patient meets all the criteria for complete remission except for continuing to have neutropenia or thrombocytopenia.
Resistant disease occurs when a patient fails to achieve complete or partial remission and still has leukemia cells in their peripheral blood or bone marrow seven days after completing initial therapy.
A morphologic leukemia-free state is when a patient has less than 5% bone marrow blasts without blasts with Auer rods present and no extramedullary disease, but they do not meet the criteria for neutrophils, platelets, and blood transfusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance. He has planned a long-distance trip to Australia and is worried about the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has no significant medical history and is in good health.
What is the best advice to offer him?Your Answer: No aspirin, flight stockings, ankle exercises, aisle seat
Correct Answer: No aspirin, ankle exercises, aisle seat and no alcohol
Explanation:Venous Thromboembolism Prophylaxis for Long-Haul Flights
When it comes to preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) during long-haul flights, the approach varies depending on the patient’s risk level. For low-risk patients without history of VTE, cardiac disease, major illness, or recent surgery, NICE recommends avoiding long periods of immobility by taking an aisle seat, performing ankle exercises, and wearing loose-fitting clothing. It’s also important to stay hydrated and avoid alcohol.
Moderate to high-risk patients, on the other hand, may benefit from compression stockings, especially if they have a history of VTE, cardiac disease, varicose veins, or are pregnant or postpartum. High-risk patients with thrombophilia, cancer, or recent surgery requiring general anesthesia should also consider compression stockings.
While some sources recommend a single dose of aspirin for VTE prophylaxis during long-haul flights, current NICE guidelines do not recommend this approach. Instead, patients should focus on staying mobile, wearing compression stockings if necessary, and staying hydrated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated with a body weight of 40 kg. Blood tests revealed abnormalities including low haemoglobin, low MCV, low MCH, high platelet count, low albumin, and low calcium. His peripheral blood showed Howell-Jolly bodies. To which department should this patient be referred?
Your Answer: Gastroenterology Department
Explanation:Specialty Departments and Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease
The patient presents with microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, Howell-Jolly bodies, and splenic dysfunction, along with low albumin and calcium suggestive of malabsorption and emaciation. The most likely diagnosis is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by antibody tests and a duodenal biopsy in the Gastroenterology department. Haematology can investigate the abnormal blood count, but treatment is not within their scope. Chronic kidney or liver disease is less likely, and there are no neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents to his GP after discovering a low haemoglobin level during a routine blood donation. He has been experiencing fatigue and breathlessness during mild exertion for the past few weeks. He has donated blood twice before, with the most recent donation being a year ago. He has been taking 30 mg lansoprazole daily for several years to manage his acid reflux, which is well controlled. He also takes cetirizine for hay fever. He denies any nausea, vomiting, changes in bowel habits, or blood in his stools or urine. His diet is diverse, and he is not a vegetarian or vegan. Physical examinations of his chest and abdomen are normal, and urinalysis is unremarkable. The following are his blood test results:
- Haemoglobin: 100 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l)
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 72.0 fl (normal range: 82-100 fl)
- White cell count (WCC): 6.1 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l)
- Platelets: 355 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
- Ferritin: 6.0 µg/l (normal range: 20-250 µg/l)
- Immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTGA) is negative, and IgA level is normal.
What is the most appropriate initial management step?Your Answer: Trial of oral iron (eg ferrous sulphate), with repeat full blood count in 3 weeks
Correct Answer: Referral to gastroenterology
Explanation:Management of Unexplained Microcytic Anemia with Low Ferritin
Unexplained microcytic anemia with low ferritin levels requires prompt investigation to identify the underlying cause. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, men with unexplained iron deficiency anemia and a hemoglobin level below 110 g/l should be urgently referred for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations, regardless of age. A trial of oral iron may be appropriate in pregnant women or premenopausal women with a history of menorrhagia and without gastrointestinal symptoms or a family history of gastrointestinal cancer.
A faecal occult blood test is not recommended as it has poor sensitivity and specificity. Referral to haematology is not necessary as first-line investigations would be upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations, and thus a referral to gastroenterology would be warranted. It is important to rule out blood loss, in particular, through gastrointestinal investigations, before implicating poor dietary intake as the cause of the patient’s low iron stores and microcytic anemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right leg, five days after having a cholecystectomy. Upon examination, the right leg is swollen, tender, and warm, while the left leg appears normal. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Arterial Dopplers
Correct Answer: Venous Dopplers
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Deep Vein Thrombosis
This patient is showing typical symptoms of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). While you may not have access to the necessary investigations in your practice, it is important to have knowledge of secondary care investigations and their appropriate use, as highlighted in the latest MRCGP curriculum statement. Venous Dopplers are the most likely test to confirm the diagnosis, while a venogram is considered the gold standard.
DVTs should be treated with anticoagulation, typically with the use of DOACs due to the potential risk of embolisation. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat DVTs to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. As a healthcare professional, it is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines and recommendations for the diagnosis and treatment of DVTs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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