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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin. Since admission, she has had several episodes of copious haematemesis. Her blood pressure is 80/54 mmHg, and her heart rate is 136 beats/min. You have started resuscitation with normal saline and have ordered a group and save and a crossmatch. Her INR is currently 8.4. What is the most appropriate way to manage her INR?

      Your Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and fresh-frozen plasma

      Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Haemorrhage in Patients on Warfarin: Guidelines from the BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) provides clear guidance on the appropriate treatment for haemorrhage in patients on warfarin. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous phytomenadione (vitamin K1) and dried prothrombin complex concentrate should be administered. Recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal. For INR levels above 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. Fresh-frozen plasma can be used if prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and oral vitamin K given. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. If prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable, fresh-frozen plasma can be used. In cases where INR is between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld and subsequent maintenance doses reduced. This guidance can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients on warfarin experiencing haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      34.6
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath. He has been battling with an indolent colon carcinoma for the past 5 years. He also suffers from insulin-dependent diabetes, hypertension, coronary artery disease and rheumatoid arthritis. He has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks. He denies any history of melaena or haematochezia and has been amenorrhoeic for decades. A bedside stool guaiac test is negative for any blood in the stool. He is well nourished, reports taking daily supplements and is not a vegetarian. He reports that his haematocrit is 0.28 (0.35–0.55) and haemoglobin level 100 g/l (115–155 g/l).
      What additional findings would you expect to observe in his full blood count?

      Your Answer: Reticulocytosis

      Correct Answer: Increased ferritin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaemia of Chronic Disease: Increased Ferritin and Decreased TIBC

      Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that is commonly seen in patients with chronic inflammatory conditions. It is characterised by a low haemoglobin level and low haematocrit, but unlike iron deficiency anaemia, it is associated with increased ferritin levels and decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). This is because ferritin is a serum reactive protein that is elevated in response to the underlying inflammatory process.

      Diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease requires the presence of a chronic inflammatory condition and anaemia, which can be either normocytic or microcytic. It is important to note that a haemoglobin level of <80 g/l is very rarely associated with this type of anaemia. Treatment involves addressing the underlying disorder causing the anaemia and monitoring the haemoglobin level. Blood transfusion is only used in severe cases. It is important to differentiate anaemia of chronic disease from other types of anaemia. For example, it is characterised by a low reticulocyte count, and not reticulocytosis. Serum transferrin receptor is not affected in anaemia of chronic disease and would therefore be normal. Additionally, TIBC is reduced in anaemia of chronic disease, whereas it is increased in iron deficiency anaemia. Finally, anaemia of chronic disease is associated with either microcytosis or normocytosis, whereas macrocytosis is associated with other types of anaemia such as folate deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency, alcohol excess, and myelodysplastic disease. In summary, understanding the unique features of anaemia of chronic disease, such as increased ferritin and decreased TIBC, can aid in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      117.3
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  • Question 3 - What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating,...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating, bluish discoloration of toes and fingertips, and a petechial rash on the left side of her anterior abdominal wall, who has a history of dysuria and was prescribed antibiotics by her GP three days ago, and is now found to have disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) based on her blood results?

      Your Answer: Recombinant human activated protein C and a blood cross-match

      Correct Answer: Blood cross-match, urine output monitoring, 500 ml 0.9% saline stat, serum lactate measurement, blood and urine cultures, empirical IV antibiotics and titration of oxygen to ≥94%

      Explanation:

      Managing DIC in a Patient with Septic Shock: Evaluating Treatment Options

      When managing a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), it is important to consider the underlying condition causing the DIC. In the case of a patient with septic shock secondary to a urinary tract infection, the sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated alongside pre-emptive management for potential blood loss.

      While a blood cross-match is sensible, emergency blood products such as platelets are unwarranted in the absence of acute bleeding. Activated protein C, previously recommended for DIC management, has been removed from guidelines due to increased bleeding risk without overall mortality benefit.

      Anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin is unnecessary at this time, especially when given with blood products, which are pro-coagulant. Tranexamic acid and platelet transfusions are only warranted in the presence of severe active bleeding.

      Prophylactic dose unfractionated heparin may be a good management strategy in the presence of both thrombotic complications and increased bleeding risk, but should be given at a treatment dose if deemed necessary. Ultimately, managing the underlying septic shock is the best way to manage DIC in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of...

    Incorrect

    • The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of transfusion) analysis?

      Your Answer: Cross match error in the blood bank laboratory

      Correct Answer: Wrong identification or mislabelling of patient or sample

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Transfusion Errors

      Mislabelling of samples, requests, or misidentifying recipients are the most frequent causes of transfusion errors. This was confirmed by the SHOT study, which examined transfusion errors and near-misses in a nationwide audit in the United Kingdom. Although other errors, such as cross-match errors, incorrect storage, and transfusion reactions due to undetected antibodies, do occur, they are infrequent.

      In summary, the SHOT study found that the most common causes of transfusion errors are related to labelling and identification. Therefore, it is crucial to implement strict protocols and procedures to ensure that samples and requests are correctly labelled and recipients are accurately identified to prevent these errors from occurring. While other errors may occur, they are rare and can be mitigated through proper training and adherence to established guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      19.2
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort and bloating that have been progressively worsening over the past few months. Upon examination, her GP discovered a complex left ovarian cyst. Which blood test would be the most useful in determining if the cyst is cancerous?

      Your Answer: Beta-HCG

      Correct Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Association with Different Cancers

      Tumor markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be used to detect the presence of cancer, monitor the progress of treatment, and detect the recurrence of cancer. One such tumor marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian carcinoma. However, elevations in CA125 can also be seen in uterine cancer, pancreas, stomach, and colonic tumors. In some cases, benign ovarian tumors can also cause a rise in CA125 levels. If a patient has a CA125 level of over 200U/ml and an abnormal ultrasound scan, it is highly likely that they have ovarian carcinoma.

      Other tumor markers include CA19-9, which is primarily associated with pancreatic tumors, beta-HCG, which is associated with germ cell tumors, alpha-fetoprotein, which is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen, which is associated with colonic carcinoma. While AFP and beta-HCG can rarely be secreted by ovarian tumors, it is important to check CA125 levels first, as they are much more frequently elevated. By monitoring tumor markers, doctors can detect cancer early and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      23.7
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  • Question 6 - A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
    On examination, his left plantar response was...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
      On examination, his left plantar response was extensor, and deep tendon jerks were increased on the left side. A computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain revealed a right-middle cerebral artery territory infarct. He was not known to have diabetes or hypertension. He was not receiving any drugs, either.
      His blood count revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 331 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophil count 145 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Metamyelocyte 3000/mm3
      Platelet 490 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Peripheral smear Many band forms, myelocytes, basophils
      What is the next appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer: Leukapheresis

      Explanation:

      Leukapheresis and Other Treatment Options for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia with High White Blood Cell Count and Ischaemic Stroke

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia can cause an extremely high white blood cell count, leading to hyperviscosity of the blood and an increased risk of ischaemic events such as stroke. While anticoagulation medications are important, they do not address the underlying issue of the high cell count. Leukapheresis is a procedure that can reduce the white cell volume by 30-60%, making it a crucial emergency treatment option. Other treatments, such as hydroxyurea and imatinib, can also be used to control disease burden. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is effective in treating chronic myeloid leukaemia with the Philadelphia chromosome translocation. Aspirin and heparin have limited roles in this scenario. While aspirin is recommended for long-term therapy after an ischaemic stroke, it does not address the hypercoagulable state caused by the high white blood cell count. Heparin is not used in the treatment of ischaemic strokes. Overall, leukapheresis should be the first step in emergency management for chronic myeloid leukaemia with a high white blood cell count and ischaemic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      2.7
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  • Question 7 - By how much does the haemoglobin concentration increase with the infusion of one...

    Incorrect

    • By how much does the haemoglobin concentration increase with the infusion of one unit of fresh blood?

      Your Answer: 1 g/L

      Correct Answer: 10 g/L

      Explanation:

      The Effect of Fresh Blood on Haemoglobin Levels

      When one unit of fresh blood is transfused, it increases the haemoglobin levels in the body by approximately 10 g/L. This is equivalent to the effect of one unit of red cell concentrate. Both fresh blood and red cell concentrate contain red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. Therefore, the increase in haemoglobin levels is due to the additional red blood cells that are introduced into the bloodstream. This information is important for medical professionals who need to monitor and manage the haemoglobin levels of their patients, particularly those who have undergone significant blood loss or have conditions that affect their red blood cell count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      18.6
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  • Question 8 - In a 71-year-old man who is asymptomatic and attending clinic for an annual...

    Correct

    • In a 71-year-old man who is asymptomatic and attending clinic for an annual review, a full blood count result shows a mild lymphocytosis of 15 × 109/l with a few smear cells. What is the most crucial investigation to determine a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)?

      Your Answer: Peripheral blood flow cytometry

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Staging of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

      Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) can be diagnosed through flow cytometry, which shows a specific pattern of monoclonal B cell proliferation. This pattern includes CD19/5 coexpressing, CD23 positive, and light chain restricted B cell population. However, smear cells, which are fragile lymphocytes that are smeared on the glass slide, can also be present in other lymphoproliferative disorders and benign lymphocytosis. Therefore, they do not necessarily indicate CLL.

      While CT scan and LDH are not essential for diagnosis, they are necessary for staging CLL. These investigations help determine the extent of the disease and the organs affected. Additionally, cervical lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes in the neck, may be present in CLL. However, it can also be seen in other causes of lymphadenopathy, such as viral infections or adenopathy secondary to local dental infection.

      In summary, flow cytometry is a crucial tool in diagnosing CLL, while CT scan and LDH are necessary for staging. Smear cells may be present but do not necessarily indicate CLL, and cervical lymphadenopathy can be seen in various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      302.4
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has a history of chronic atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His blood tests reveal a Hb level of 112g/L and an INR of 9, but he is stable hemodynamically. The consulting physician recommends reversing the effects of warfarin. What blood product/s would be the most appropriate choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cryoprecipitate

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin concentrate ('Octaplex')

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Warfarin Reversal

      Prothrombin concentrates are the preferred treatment for reversing the effects of warfarin in cases of active bleeding and a significantly elevated INR. While packed cells are important for managing severe bleeding, they are not the recommended treatment for warfarin reversal. Cryoprecipitate, recombinant factor VII, and platelets are also not indicated for reversing the effects of warfarin. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. Proper management of warfarin reversal can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      33.9
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  • Question 10 - A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which...

    Incorrect

    • A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which needs debridement. His platelet counts are 15 ×109/l. His blood sugars are poorly controlled and he has been started on a sliding scale insulin. He has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions.

      What is the recommended product to increase platelet counts to a safe level for debridement surgery in a diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura who has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions and has poorly controlled blood sugars, and is slightly older?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for ITP patients

      Intravenous immunoglobulin is the preferred treatment for patients with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) who also have diabetes. Steroids may be used as a trial treatment if the patient does not have any contraindications for steroid-related complications. Platelets are not typically effective in raising platelet counts in ITP patients because they are destroyed by the antibodies. However, they may be used in emergency situations to treat major bleeding. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the individual patient’s medical history and current condition when selecting a treatment plan for ITP. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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