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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born via normal vaginal delivery and weighs 3.8 kg. The baby has a normal Newborn and Infant Physical Examination (NIPE) after birth and the mother recovers well following the delivery. The mother wishes to breastfeed her baby and is supported to do so by the midwives on the ward.

      They are visited at home by the health visitor two weeks later. The health visitor asks how they have been getting on and the mother explains that she has been experiencing problems with breastfeeding and that her baby often struggles to latch on to her breast. She explains that this has made her very anxious that she is doing something wrong and has made her feel like she is failing as a mother. When her baby does manage to latch on to feed he occasionally gets reflux and vomits afterward. The health visitor weighs the baby who is now 3.4kg.

      What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Refer her to a midwife-led breastfeeding clinic

      Explanation:

      If a baby loses more than 10% of its birth weight, it is necessary to refer the mother and baby to a midwife for assistance in increasing the baby’s weight.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      28.8
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  • Question 3 - You are seeing a G3P1 14-weeks pregnant woman in the GP surgery. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a G3P1 14-weeks pregnant woman in the GP surgery. She is concerned about the possibility of developing postpartum psychosis again, as she had experienced it in her previous pregnancy and was hospitalized. What is the likelihood of her developing this condition once more?

      Your Answer: 95-100 %

      Correct Answer: 25-50 %

      Explanation:

      To monitor her throughout her pregnancy and postnatal period, this woman requires a referral to a perinatal mental health team due to her increased risk of postpartum psychosis. It would have been preferable for her to receive preconception advice before becoming pregnant. The recurrence rate is not influenced by the baby’s gender.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the Acute Gynaecology Ward with per vaginum...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the Acute Gynaecology Ward with per vaginum bleeding. She is 14 weeks pregnant and has had a scan confirming an intrauterine pregnancy. She reports lower abdominal cramping and bleeding for the last two days, which prompted admission to await an ultrasound scan. You are an FY1 doctor and are called to see her as she has increasing pain and is crying in distress. On examination, she is sweaty and uncomfortable. Abdomen is soft in the upper region, but firm and very tender suprapubically. Observations show temperature 38.7 °C, heart rate 130 bpm, blood pressure 95/65, respiratory rate 22 and oxygen saturations 97% on air. Checking her pad shows fresh bleeding and speculum examination is difficult due to pain, but there is a smelly discharge and you think you see tissue sitting in the os. You manage to get IV access and starts fluid resuscitation.
      What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer: Call your registrar

      Explanation:

      Immediate Management of Septic Miscarriage: Steps to Take

      Septic miscarriage is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. If a patient presents with increasing pain, bleeding, and fever, along with clinical signs of sepsis, it is important to inform senior doctors immediately. Here are the steps to take:

      1. Call your registrar: Senior doctors need to know about the patient urgently, coming to review and liaising with coordinators to get the patient to theatre as soon as possible.

      2. Bloods and blood cultures: This is the most important thing to do after informing seniors. She is already shocked, so getting IV access now is essential. Bloods such as a group and crossmatch need to be sent, along with blood cultures.

      3. Transvaginal ultrasound scan: Transvaginal ultrasound scan has no place in the immediate management. The diagnosis is obvious from the history and examination.

      4. Ultrasound abdomen: Abdominal ultrasound can be performed after the patient is initially managed and is out of danger. For the current scenario, it is important to inform a senior registrar as the condition may deteriorate. After giving the call to registrar emergency management should be initiated according to A-E assessment.

      5. Give analgesia and try to repeat the speculum examination: She is already shocked, and to delay treatment to try and examine again would be dangerous.

      By following these steps, you can ensure that the patient receives the urgent care she needs to manage septic miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old woman presents with increasing bloating and mild lower abdominal pain that...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with increasing bloating and mild lower abdominal pain that started 3 hours ago. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness and ascites, but no guarding. She denies any vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs include a heart rate of 98/minute, a blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 22/minute. The patient is currently undergoing IVF treatment and had her final hCG injection 5 days ago. She has been having regular, unprotected sex during treatment. A pregnancy test confirms she is pregnant. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a gynecological issue, possibly ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, which can occur as a side-effect of ovulation induction. The presence of ascites, low blood pressure, and tachycardia indicate fluid loss into the abdomen, but the absence of peritonitis suggests it is not a catastrophic hemorrhage. The recent hCG injection increases the likelihood of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, which is more common with IVF and injectable treatments than with oral fertility agents like clomiphene. Ovarian cyst rupture, ovarian torsion, red degeneration, and ruptured ectopic pregnancy are unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - As the obstetrics FY2 doctor, you are reviewing the labour ward patient list....

    Correct

    • As the obstetrics FY2 doctor, you are reviewing the labour ward patient list. What discovery in one of the patients, who is slightly older, would prompt you to initiate continuous CTG monitoring during labour?

      Your Answer: New onset vaginal bleed while in labour

      Explanation:

      Continuous CTG monitoring is recommended during labour if any of the following conditions are present or develop: suspected chorioamnionitis or sepsis, a temperature of 38°C or higher, severe hypertension with a reading of 160/110 mmHg or above, use of oxytocin, or significant meconium. In addition, the 2014 update to the guidelines added fresh vaginal bleeding as a new point of concern, as it may indicate placental rupture or placenta previa, both of which require monitoring of the baby.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old, G2P1, presents to the obstetrics assessment unit with vaginal bleeding and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old, G2P1, presents to the obstetrics assessment unit with vaginal bleeding and mild abdominal pain at 15 weeks gestation. What aspect of her medical history would raise concern for a possible miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Sexual intercourse

      Correct Answer: Large cervical cone biopsy

      Explanation:

      There are several factors that can increase the risk of miscarriage, including age, previous miscarriages, chronic conditions, uterine or cervical problems (such as large cervical cone biopsies or Mullerian duct anomalies), smoking, alcohol and illicit drug use, and weight. Invasive prenatal tests like chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis also carry a slight risk of miscarriage. It’s important to note that other options are not considered risk factors for 2nd-trimester miscarriage.

      Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology

      Miscarriage, also known as abortion, refers to the expulsion of the products of conception before 24 weeks. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used. According to epidemiological studies, approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies will end in miscarriage during early pregnancy. In fact, up to 50% of conceptions may not develop into a blastocyst within 14 days.

      Recurrent spontaneous miscarriage, which is defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects approximately 1% of women. Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is important for healthcare providers and patients alike. It can help to identify risk factors and provide appropriate counseling and support for those who have experienced a miscarriage. By raising awareness and promoting education, we can work towards reducing the incidence of miscarriage and improving the overall health and well-being of women and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 33-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation presents to out-of-hours care with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation presents to out-of-hours care with a 4-week history of nausea and vomiting. She has vomited 5 times in the past 24 hours but can still drink water. She denies any abdominal pain, bowel habit changes, dizziness, dysuria, or vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are stable with a temperature of 37.2ºC, heart rate of 80 bpm, and blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. Her abdomen is non-tender. She has lost 5 kg since her pre-pregnancy weight of 70 kg. Urine b-hCG is positive and a dipstick shows no blood, nitrates, or ketones. Despite trying oral cyclizine, she has not found any relief. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Arrange routine referral to obstetrics

      Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Admission or urgent assessment is needed for a pregnant patient experiencing severe nausea and vomiting with weight loss. Routine referral to obstetrics, prescribing oral domperidone, or prescribing oral prochlorperazine are all incorrect options. An obstetric assessment may consider the use of IV anti-emetics. Delaying assessment increases the risk of complications.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department with premature rupture of membranes. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy and is in good health. What is the optimal approach to managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Admit her for at least 48 hours and prescribe antibiotics and steroids

      Explanation:

      At 32 weeks gestation, this woman may be experiencing labor with ruptured membranes. It is important to admit her and administer steroids to promote the baby’s lung development. Antibiotics, such as erythromycin, should also be given to prevent sepsis and post-natal infection. Hospital guidelines should always be consulted, especially if Group B streptococcus is present, in which case penicillin and clindamycin may be used. If labor does not progress, the woman may be able to manage at home with temperature checks every 4-8 hours and returning to the hospital if a fever occurs. Delivery at 34 weeks may be considered if the risk of infection outweighs the risk of prematurity now that the baby’s lungs have matured.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman, a smoker, was referred to the Antenatal Unit with a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman, a smoker, was referred to the Antenatal Unit with a small amount of dark brown vaginal bleeding at 39+2 weeks’ gestation. On admission, a speculum examination showed some old blood in the vagina, but no evidence of active bleeding. The cervix was long, and the os closed. Patient observations were stable, and an ultrasound scan was unremarkable. Two hours later, the emergency alarm is heard. The patient is in distress with extreme abdominal pain and fresh vaginal bleeding. The CTG records a prolonged deceleration of four minutes.
      What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Emergency Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Emergency Caesarean Section for Placental Abruption: Management and Considerations

      Placental abruption is a serious obstetric emergency that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. In cases where the abruption is severe and associated with fetal distress, an emergency Caesarean section is often the only option for immediate delivery of the fetus and management of the abruption.

      In this scenario, the patient presents with placental abruption and has suddenly deteriorated with severe pain and fresh red bleeding, indicating a further significant abruption of the placenta associated with bleeding. This has caused an abrupt cessation or disruption in the blood flow to the fetus, leading to a prolonged deceleration. A prolonged deceleration of > 3 minutes or acute bradycardia are indications for immediate delivery of the baby.

      As the scenario does not tell us whether the patient is in labor and fully dilated, an instrumental delivery cannot be performed. Additionally, there is no time to assess bleeding by vaginal delivery; the patient should be immediately transferred to theatre where an examination can be performed before proceeding with a Caesarean section.

      Before going to theatre for an emergency Caesarean section, it is necessary to offer appropriate resuscitation to the mother. Intravenous fluids, a full blood count, oxygen as required, and crossmatch of two units of blood to be used if required is necessary. Intravenous fluid resuscitation can also take place in theatre, managed accordingly by the anaesthetist.

      In conclusion, an emergency Caesarean section is the preferred option for immediate delivery of the fetus and management of the abruption in cases of severe placental abruption associated with fetal distress. Prompt management and appropriate resuscitation are crucial to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - You are a Foundation Year 2 in general practice and a 32-year-old lady...

    Incorrect

    • You are a Foundation Year 2 in general practice and a 32-year-old lady comes in who is pregnant with her first child. She feels unwell, has upper abdominal pain near her epigastrium, and thinks that her ankle swelling has been much worse over the last few days. You assess her and your findings are as follows:
      Symphysis–fundal height (SFH): 39 cm
      Presentation: breech
      Lie: longitudinal
      Blood pressure (BP): 152/93
      Fetal movements: not palpable
      Which of these investigations is most likely to lead you to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood tests for liver function

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to various complications and is a leading cause of maternal death. Risk factors include nulliparity, previous history of pre-eclampsia, family history, and certain medical conditions. Diagnosis is made by testing for proteinuria and monitoring blood pressure. Treatment involves close monitoring, medication, and delivery of the baby. Complications can include HELLP syndrome and eclampsia. Testing for liver function and performing a CTG can aid in management, but will not lead to the diagnosis. Early identification and management are crucial in preventing adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old primip is being evaluated on day six postpartum for unilateral breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primip is being evaluated on day six postpartum for unilateral breast discomfort. The discomfort began two days ago, and despite continuing to breastfeed, it has not improved. She feels generally fatigued, but she is currently eating and drinking well.
      During the examination, you observe an erythematosus, firm, and swollen area in a wedge-shaped distribution on the right breast. There is a small crack in the nipple. The examination is painful.
      Her vital signs are stable, and her temperature is 37.5 °C.
      What is the most appropriate initial management, given the above information?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to hospital for intravenous antibiotics and drainage

      Correct Answer: Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management of Lactational Mastitis: Advice for Patients

      Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. It is important to manage this condition promptly to prevent complications such as breast abscesses. Here are some management options for lactational mastitis:

      1. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics: If the patient presents with lactational mastitis and has a nipple fissure, it is suggestive of an infective cause. In this case, the patient should be reassured, asked to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics.

      2. Reassure the patient, ask her to continue expressing milk and review if there is no improvement in two days: If there is no evidence of infection, reassurance and advice to continue breastfeeding, as well as simple analgesia, are a good first management option. However, if symptoms do not improve in 24 hours, then there is an indication for starting empirical antibiotics.

      3. Admit the patient to hospital for intravenous antibiotics and drainage: Admission is advisable for intravenous antibiotics and drainage if oral antibiotics fail to improve symptoms, the patient develops sepsis, or there is evidence of the development of a breast abscess.

      4. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and send a breast milk culture and treat if positive: A breast milk culture should be sent before starting antibiotics, but in this case, given the patient fulfils the criteria for starting empirical treatment, you should not delay antibiotic therapy until the breast milk culture is back.

      5. Reassure the patient, advise her to continue breastfeeding and offer simple analgesia: Reassurance, advice to continue breastfeeding, and simple analgesia are offered to women who first present with lactational mastitis. If symptoms do not improve after three days, there is an indication to offer empirical antibiotics.

      In conclusion, lactational mastitis should be managed promptly to prevent complications. Patients should be advised to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics if necessary. If symptoms do not improve, further management options should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old primigravida presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent vomiting....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old primigravida presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent vomiting. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing this symptom for the past four days. Upon examination, you note that she has a fast heart rate, low blood pressure upon standing, and her urine test shows the presence of ketones. What is the most significant risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, is associated with multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, young maternal age, first pregnancy, and obesity. The condition may be caused by high beta hCG and oestrogen levels, nutritional deficiencies, and gastric dysfunction due to high progesterone levels. Prolonged and frequent vomiting can be problematic.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - A 32 weeks pregnant woman, who is G2 P0, presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 32 weeks pregnant woman, who is G2 P0, presents to the emergency department with vaginal bleeding. She had suffered from severe nausea and vomiting earlier in the pregnancy which has now resolved. She has no abdominal pain, no vaginal discharge, no headache, and no pruritus. On abdominal examination, purple striae were noted on the abdomen as well as a dark line running vertically down the middle of the abdomen. A transverse lie is noticed and there is no fetal engagement. The symphyseal-fundal height is 33cm.
      What is the best gold standard investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      It is not advisable to conduct a digital vaginal examination in cases of suspected placenta praevia without first performing an ultrasound, as this could potentially trigger a dangerous hemorrhage.

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - You are on your general practice placement, and a pregnant woman attends for...

    Correct

    • You are on your general practice placement, and a pregnant woman attends for a routine antenatal check-up. You examine her abdomen and find that her abdomen is distended up to her umbilicus. Your general practitioner asks you how many weeks you think she is, but you do not have a measuring tape.
      How many weeks would you estimate her gestation to be if she was in her mid-30s?

      Your Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      Measuring Uterine Growth During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, the size of the uterus can be used to estimate the gestational age of the fetus. At around 20 weeks, the uterus reaches the level of the umbilicus. This can be measured using the symphysio-fundal height (SFH), which is usually equal to the number of weeks of gestation (± 2 cm). To measure the SFH, the fundus of the uterus is first palpated and the tape measure is placed at this point. The tape measure is then rolled over the longitudinal axis of the uterus until it reaches the pubic symphysis, and the length in centimeters is recorded.

      At 16 weeks, the uterus would not be palpable at the level of the umbilicus. The fundus of the uterus can be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis. Similarly, at 18 weeks, the uterus would not be palpable at the level of the umbilicus.

      By 22 weeks, the uterus would be past the level of the umbilicus. And by 24 weeks, the uterus would be higher in the abdomen than the umbilicus. Regular measurement of the SFH can help monitor fetal growth and ensure that the pregnancy is progressing normally.

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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman presents at 35 weeks’ gestation in clinic. She had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents at 35 weeks’ gestation in clinic. She had a primary infection with genital herpes at 24 weeks’ gestation, which was treated with acyclovir. She has attended clinic to discuss birth and management options.
      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: acyclovir daily from today and elective Caesarean section

      Correct Answer: acyclovir daily from 36 weeks and expectant delivery

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex type 1 or 2 and can harm newborns, leading to neonatal herpes. Pregnant women who contract herpes and remain untreated have a higher risk of premature delivery and membrane rupture. Therefore, it is crucial to promptly treat women with herpes simplex infection. acyclovir is a safe treatment option, which speeds up the healing process and suppresses viral shedding. Women with primary herpes infection in the first and second trimesters should be treated with oral acyclovir and offered treatment-dose acyclovir from the 36th week of gestation until delivery to prevent recurrence and reduce the risk of neonatal herpes. Expectant delivery is acceptable in these cases. Women who acquire herpes in the third trimester should be treated with acyclovir until delivery and offered an elective Caesarean section to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission. Women who have acquired a primary genital herpes infection in the first and second trimesters that was treated should be offered acyclovir from 36 weeks onwards to reduce the risk of recurrence, lesion eruption, and viral shedding. Women with primary herpes simplex virus infection in labor who opt for vaginal delivery should receive intravenous acyclovir infusion to reduce the risk of neonatal herpes infection. Invasive procedures should be avoided in these cases.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman from Chad complains of continuous dribbling incontinence following the birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman from Chad complains of continuous dribbling incontinence following the birth of her second child. She reports no other issues related to her pregnancies and is generally healthy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Overactive bladder syndrome

      Correct Answer: Vesicovaginal fistula

      Explanation:

      If a patient has continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labor and comes from an area with limited obstetric services, it is important to consider the possibility of vesicovaginal fistulae.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

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  • Question 18 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy after ruling out an intrauterine pregnancy. She is asymptomatic and her serum beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (B-hCG) level is 877 IU/L. A transvaginal ultrasound shows a 24mm adnexal mass without a heartbeat and no free fluid in the abdomen. Although expectant management is an option, she declines. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), if a woman has an unruptured ectopic pregnancy measuring less than 35mm without visible heartbeat, a serum B-hCG level of less than 1500 IU/L, no intrauterine pregnancy, and no pain, the recommended first-line treatment is methotrexate, provided the patient is willing to attend follow-up appointments. However, if the woman declines expectant management, which is an option for a small number of women with low B-hCG, no symptoms, and a tubal ectopic pregnancy measuring less than 35mm without heartbeat, methotrexate is the preferred treatment option. Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic drug that interferes with DNA synthesis and disrupts cell multiplication, preventing the pregnancy from developing. Laparoscopic salpingectomy (or salpingostomy if there is a risk of infertility) is the other treatment option, which should be offered if the ectopic pregnancy is larger than 35mm, causing severe pain, or if the B-hCG level is greater than 1500. However, there is a risk of infertility if a problem arises with the remaining Fallopian tube in the future. Misoprostol and mifepristone are not recommended for the management of ectopic pregnancy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant visits you for her booking...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant visits you for her booking appointment. She has a brother with Down syndrome and wants to know more about the screening program. You provide information about the combined test. What other blood markers, in addition to nuchal translucency, are measured?

      Your Answer: Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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  • Question 20 - A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular Epilepsy Clinic appointment with her partner. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but she wants to start trying for a baby. She is currently on sodium valproate and has been seizure-free for one year.
      What is the most suitable antiepileptic medication for this patient to take during the preconception period and pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Continue sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Introduction:
      Women of childbearing age with epilepsy require careful consideration of their antiepileptic medication options due to the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. This article will discuss the appropriate medication options for women with epilepsy who are planning to conceive or are already pregnant.

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Lamotrigine:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Lamotrigine and carbamazepine are recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) as safer alternatives. Lamotrigine is a sodium channel blocker and has fewer side effects than carbamazepine. It is present in breast milk but has not been associated with harmful effects on the infant.

      Continue Sodium Valproate:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Women taking sodium valproate should be reviewed preconception to change their medication to a safer alternative. Untreated epilepsy can be a major risk factor in pregnancy, increasing maternal and fetal mortality.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Ethosuximide:
      Ethosuximide is not appropriate for this patient’s management as it is recommended for absence seizures or myoclonic seizures. Use during breastfeeding has been associated with infant hyperexcitability and sedation.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Levetiracetam:
      Levetiracetam is recommended as an adjunct medication for generalised tonic-clonic seizures that have failed to respond to first-line treatment. This patient has well-controlled seizures on first-line treatment and does not require adjunct medication. Other second-line medications include clobazam, lamotrigine, sodium valproate and topiramate.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Phenytoin:
      Phenytoin is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. It can lead to fetal hydantoin syndrome, which includes a combination of developmental abnormalities.

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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes for a check-up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes for a check-up. She had contact with a child who has chickenpox earlier in the day, but she is uncertain if she had the illness as a child. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Give varicella immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: Check varicella antibodies

      Explanation:

      To ensure that a pregnant woman has not been exposed to chickenpox before, the initial step is to test her blood for varicella antibodies.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old G1P0 woman is brought to the hospital at 39 weeks of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old G1P0 woman is brought to the hospital at 39 weeks of gestation by her husband because she is experiencing strong uterine contractions. She delivers a healthy baby with an Apgar score of 8, 5 min after birth. However, she experiences significant bleeding with an estimated blood loss of six litres and is hypotensive with a BP of 60/24 mmHg despite aggressive resuscitation. The placenta appears to be adherent to the uterine wall and the surgeons are unable to separate it. It is noted that she was treated with ceftriaxone for a gonococcal infection 5 years ago, although she had lower abdominal pain for some time after.
      What is the definitive treatment for this patient’s present condition?

      Your Answer: Hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from placenta accreta, a pregnancy complication where the placenta attaches to the myometrium wall. This condition is often caused by past Caesarean sections, Asherman syndrome, or pelvic inflammatory disease, which the patient had due to a previous infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae. To prevent co-transmission with Chlamydia trachomatis, doxycycline is given with a third-generation cephalosporin. The patient’s placenta accreta is likely due to scarring from pelvic inflammatory disease, and a total hysterectomy may be necessary if the patient’s condition worsens. While the patient may require a large blood transfusion, immediate transfusion is not the definitive treatment. Oxytocin may be used as a first-line treatment, but a hysterectomy is the definitive treatment if bleeding persists. Phenylephrine, a vasoconstrictor, may decrease bleeding but is not a definitive treatment for placenta accreta. Dinoprostone, a prostaglandin E2 analogue, is not indicated for placenta accreta.

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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and this is her first pregnancy. She has a medical history of SLE and asthma. After discussing vitamin D and folic acid supplements, you advise her to schedule a booking appointment with the midwife. What other advice would be appropriate to provide?

      Your Answer: No further actions required

      Correct Answer: To take low-dose aspirin from 12 weeks to term of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking guidance on conceiving. She has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking guidance on conceiving. She has a medical history of epilepsy and is currently taking lamotrigine. Her last seizure occurred 1 year ago. She is worried about the safety of epilepsy medications during pregnancy and wonders if there are any supplements she should take. What are the key counseling points to address her concerns?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 5mg, continue lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      When women who are taking antiepileptic medication plan to conceive, they should be given a higher dose of folic acid (5mg) instead of the usual 400 mcg once daily. Folic acid is recommended during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, and a higher dose is necessary for women with epilepsy due to their increased risk of low serum folate levels. It is important to note that certain antiepileptic medications can interfere with folate metabolism, and switching to sodium valproate is not recommended as it is a known teratogen. It is also important for women to continue taking their medication during pregnancy to avoid an increased risk of seizures.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

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  • Question 25 - During her prenatal appointment, a mother informs her obstetrician that she was previously...

    Incorrect

    • During her prenatal appointment, a mother informs her obstetrician that she was previously diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). What is the procedure that poses the highest risk of bleeding in the newborn?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Prolonged ventouse delivery

      Explanation:

      During pregnancies, immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) can become a complication if maternal antiplatelet antibodies pass through the placenta. In such cases, ventouse delivery can cause bleeding in the neonate due to the high vacuum pressure. This can worsen conditions like cephalohaematoma or subgaleal haemorrhage, especially if the neonate has thrombocytopenia. While forceps and fetal blood sampling can be used with caution, they are not as risky.

      Understanding the Difference between Gestational Thrombocytopenia and Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)

      Gestational thrombocytopenia and immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) are two conditions that affect platelet count during pregnancy. Gestational thrombocytopenia is a common condition that results from a combination of factors such as dilution, decreased production, and increased destruction of platelets. On the other hand, ITP is an autoimmune condition that is usually associated with acute purpuric episodes in children, but a chronic relapsing course may be seen more frequently in women.

      Differentiating between the two conditions can be challenging and often relies on a careful history. Gestational thrombocytopenia may be considered more likely if the platelet count continues to fall as pregnancy progresses, but this is not a reliable sign. If the patient becomes dangerously thrombocytopenic, she will usually be treated with steroids, and a diagnosis of ITP assumed. Pregnant women found to have low platelets during a booking visit or those with a previous diagnosis of ITP may need to be tested for serum antiplatelet antibodies for confirmation.

      It is important to note that gestational thrombocytopenia does not affect the neonate, but ITP can do if maternal antibodies cross the placenta. Depending on the degree of thrombocytopenia in the newborn, platelet transfusions may be indicated. Serial platelet counts can also be performed to see whether there is an inherited thrombocytopenia. Understanding the difference between these two conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and management during pregnancy.

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  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus visits her General Practitioner (GP)...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus visits her General Practitioner (GP) with her partner to seek advice on nutritional supplementation as they plan to start trying for a baby. She is not using any contraception and her diabetes is well managed, with her latest HbA1c level at 32 mmol/mol (recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists < 48 mmol/mol). What is the most suitable recommendation for folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: Commence folic acid 5 mg daily now and continue throughout pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Commence folic acid 5 mg daily now and continue until week 12 of gestation

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Supplementation in Pregnancy

      Explanation: Folic acid supplementation is recommended for all women who are trying to conceive and during pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects and other congenital abnormalities. The recommended dose is 400 micrograms daily from the preconception period until the 12th week of gestation. However, women with certain high-risk factors, such as diabetes, a family history of neural tube defects, or obesity, are advised to take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from the preconception period until the 12th week of gestation. It is important to continue folic acid supplementation until the end of the first trimester to ensure proper formation of the brain and other major organs in the body. Side-effects of folic acid treatment may include abdominal distension, reduced appetite, nausea, and exacerbation of pernicious anaemia.

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman, who is exclusively breastfeeding, presents six months postpartum with burning...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman, who is exclusively breastfeeding, presents six months postpartum with burning pains and itching of the nipples. She has occasional sharp pains behind the areolae and reports that symptoms are worse after feeding.
      On examination, both nipples appear erythematosus and inflamed, with small fissures. On further questioning, she reports no history of atopy. She also tells you that last night, she noticed some white patches in her infant’s mouth that she tried to wipe off but were stuck on the mucosa.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nipple thrush

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding-Related Nipple Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments

      Breastfeeding can lead to various nipple conditions that can cause discomfort and pain for both the mother and the infant. Here are some common nipple conditions and their symptoms:

      1. Nipple Thrush: This fungal infection is transmitted from the mother to the infant through breastfeeding. Symptoms include bilateral sharp burning pains in the nipple and retroareolar tissue, red and swollen areas, severe itching, nipple inflammation, and fissuring. Both the mother and the baby should be treated with topical miconazole and oral miconazole gel, respectively.

      2. Psoriasis: Psoriasis of the nipple and breast presents with raised red plaques that are well demarcated and easily separated from adjacent skin, with an overlying lacy scale.

      3. Blocked Duct: This common problem presents with unilateral nipple pain and a small, round white area at the end of the nipple.

      4. Nipple Eczema: Eczema of the nipple can cause a red, scaly rash with thickened lichenoid areas, usually sparing the base of the nipple. It is less likely in this scenario, given the white patches found in the infant’s mouth, suggesting transmission of infection from the mother.

      5. Paget’s Disease of the Nipple: Symptoms include erythema, inflammation, burning pain, ulceration, erosions of the skin, and bleeding, usually affecting one side only.

      It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms persist or worsen.

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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Advise to take time off work

      Correct Answer: Prescribe promethazine

      Explanation:

      Promethazine is the appropriate medication to prescribe for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as it is a first-line antiemetic. Metoclopramide should be avoided due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects if used for more than 5 days. While alternative methods such as ginger and acupressure bands may be discussed, as the patient has requested medication, it is appropriate to prescribe promethazine. It is also important to support the patient’s decision to continue working if that is her preference.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old first-time mother gave birth to a healthy baby girl with an...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old first-time mother gave birth to a healthy baby girl with an APGAR score of 10 at 1, 5, and 10 minutes. However, during delivery, the mother experienced a perineal tear, and the midwife has called the doctor to suture it. Upon examination, it was found that the injury affected the superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles, but the anal sphincter remained intact. What is the degree of injury?

      Your Answer: Second degree

      Explanation:

      The patient in this case had a second degree perineal tear, which is a tear in the skin and soft tissue structures between the vagina and anus that occurs during childbirth due to excessive strain. This type of tear involves the perineal muscle but does not include the anal sphincter. Fifth degree tears do not exist, and first degree tears only involve superficial damage without muscle involvement. Fourth degree tears are severe and involve injury to the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa, but in this case, the anal sphincter was spared.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 30 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman from Sudan visits her GP with concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman from Sudan visits her GP with concerns about her upcoming vaginal delivery. She is currently 30 weeks pregnant and has undergone type 3 female genital mutilation. She expresses her preference to have her vagina reinfibulated after delivery, as this is what she is accustomed to. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise her that reinfibulation is illegal and cannot be done under any circumstances

      Explanation:

      Performing any form of female genital cutting/modification for non-medical reasons, including reinfibulation of a woman with type 3 FGM after vaginal delivery, is illegal according to the Female Genital Mutilation Act 2003. It is strictly prohibited to carry out such procedures under any circumstances. However, discussing the topic is not illegal.

      Understanding Female Genital Mutilation

      Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.

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  • Question 31 - A 30-year-old asymptomatic woman comes to the hospital for an oral glucose tolerance...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old asymptomatic woman comes to the hospital for an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). She is currently 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes and foetal macrosomia. Despite having a body mass index of 34 kg/m2, she is in good health.

      Her test results are as follows:
      - Fasting glucose: 8.5 mmol/L (<5.6 mmol/L)
      - 2 hour glucose: 12.8 mmol/L (<7.8 mmol/L)

      What is the recommended course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Insulin plus or minus metformin

      Explanation:

      If a woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and her fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l, immediate treatment with insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated. For women with a fasting glucose level below 7 mmol/l at diagnosis, lifestyle modifications such as diet and exercise should be recommended. If blood glucose targets are not achieved within 1-2 weeks using lifestyle modifications, metformin may be prescribed. Glibenclamide can be considered for women who do not reach their blood glucose targets with metformin or who refuse insulin therapy. Pioglitazone should be avoided during pregnancy as animal studies have shown it to be harmful.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman of South Asian descent is in her second pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman of South Asian descent is in her second pregnancy and is currently 10+0 weeks along. She has previously given birth naturally to a healthy child at 39 weeks and has no other prior pregnancies. Due to her family's history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, she undergoes a fasting glucose test during her booking visit, which reveals a level of 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best initial course of action for managing her fasting glucose level?

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated if the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis. This is the appropriate course of action, as relying solely on diet and exercise advice would not be sufficient given the patient’s high fasting glucose level. It is important to monitor glucose levels regularly while managing gestational diabetes, but when the fasting glucose level is >7 mmol/L at diagnosis, insulin therapy should be started. Sulfonylureas like gliclazide are not recommended during pregnancy due to the increased risk of fetal macrosomia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 33 - A woman gives birth via normal vaginal delivery. The midwife notices the baby...

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth via normal vaginal delivery. The midwife notices the baby has an umbilical hernia, a large, protruding tongue, flattened face, and low muscle tone. What is the most probable outcome of this woman's combined screening test at 13-weeks-pregnant with this child?

      Your Answer: ↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency

      Explanation:

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe itching, nausea, and lethargy. She is currently 38 weeks pregnant and this is her second pregnancy. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced, but her vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory tests reveal the following results: Hb 121 g/l, Platelets 189 * 109/l, WBC 8.7 * 109/l, Bilirubin 90 µmol/l, ALP 540 u/l, ALT 120 u/l, γGT 130 u/l, Albumin 35 g/l, and INR 1.0. The acute viral hepatitis screen is negative. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The most probable condition is cholestasis of pregnancy, which is indicated by intense itching, jaundice, obstructive liver function tests, normal white blood cell count, and absence of coagulopathy. Severe itching is a typical symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, while acute fatty liver of pregnancy presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea. Given the normal results of the full blood count and viral screening, it is unlikely that the patient has HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis. Lastly, pre-eclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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  • Question 35 - A 33-year-old woman who is at 36 weeks gestation comes to the maternity...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman who is at 36 weeks gestation comes to the maternity unit for a routine check-up. Her pregnancy has been without any complications so far, and her blood pressure, urine dipstick, and fundal height are all normal. During a previous examination, a vertical scar from her previous pregnancy is visible on her abdomen, as the child was delivered via a caesarean section. She wants to discuss her delivery options and is interested in having a home birth. What is the most suitable delivery method for this patient?

      Your Answer: Planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      A planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation is the appropriate course of action for a patient who has a classical caesarean scar. This type of scar, which is characterized by a vertical incision on the abdomen, is a contraindication for vaginal birth after caesarean due to the increased risk of uterine rupture. A vaginal delivery should not be considered in this scenario as it could be potentially fatal for both the mother and the baby. It is important to ensure that the caesarean section is performed in a hospital setting. A caesarean section at 36 weeks is not recommended, and guidelines suggest that the procedure should be performed at 37 weeks or later.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 36 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test, despite having an intrauterine system. She is urgently referred to the emergency department where an ultrasound scan confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a visible heartbeat. The patient has never been pregnant before but desires to have a family in the future. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      For women without other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the preferred first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingostomy. This is the case for a patient with visible foetal heartbeat and pain, as expectant management would be inappropriate and methotrexate is not suitable. Misoprostol is also not appropriate as it is used for incomplete miscarriages, which is not the case for this patient.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 37 - As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the...

    Correct

    • As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the delivery of a patient when suddenly, shoulder dystocia occurs. You quickly call for senior assistance and decide to perform McRobert's manoeuvre by hyper flexing and abducting the mother's hips, moving her onto her back and bringing her thighs towards her abdomen.

      What other action can be taken to enhance the effectiveness of the manoeuvre?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic pressure

      Explanation:

      According to the shoulder dystocia guidelines of the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, utilizing suprapubic pressure can enhance the efficacy of the McRoberts manoeuvre.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

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  • Question 38 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture of the membranes. Following the procedure, a vaginal examination reveals a palpable umbilical cord. What position should she be advised to assume?

      Your Answer: On all fours, on the knees and elbows

      Explanation:

      When a woman experiences cord prolapse, the correct position for her is on all fours, with her knees and elbows on the ground. This condition can be caused by artificial rupture of the membranes, and it is important to keep the cord warm and moist while preparing for a caesarian section. The Trendelenburg position, which involves tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in abdominal surgery to shift abdominal contents upwards. The Lloyd Davis position, which involves separating the legs and tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in rectal and pelvic surgery. The McRoberts manoeuvre, which involves hyperflexing the legs tightly to the abdomen, is used in cases of shoulder dystocia during delivery, but not for cord prolapse. The lithotomy position, which involves raising the legs in stirrups and separating them, is used in obstetrics and gynaecology for various procedures, but not for cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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  • Question 39 - A 30-year-old primigravida gives birth to her male infant at 40+1 weeks via...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old primigravida gives birth to her male infant at 40+1 weeks via ventouse-assisted vaginal delivery. The estimated blood loss is 650ml and her uterus is well contracted. An episiotomy was performed during delivery, and a tear involving perineal skin and muscle with less than 50% damage to the external anal sphincter is found on postpartum vaginal examination. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Perineal tear repair in theatre

      Explanation:

      Repair of third degree perineal tears should be carried out in a theatre by a clinician who has received appropriate training. This is because category 3 and 4 tears pose a risk of infection and have a significant impact on the patient’s health. Poor healing of perineal wounds can lead to faecal incontinence, which is a potential complication of grade 3 and 4 tears. It is advisable to pack the perineal wound for haemostasis before repairing the tear, as this will help achieve better haemostasis with sutures. Healing of perineal tears by secondary intent is not recommended, as it can result in poor healing, infection, and faecal incontinence. Additionally, the vascular nature of the perineum and anus increases the likelihood of ongoing haemorrhage if the wound is not healed. In cases of category 1 and 2 tears (involving the skin only or skin and perineal muscle), perineal tear repair can be performed immediately on the maternity ward if the clinician feels comfortable and there is adequate lighting.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old para 1 woman has just given birth to a large baby...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old para 1 woman has just given birth to a large baby boy (4.2kg). The delivery was vaginal but complicated by shoulder dystocia, which was resolved with McRoberts' manoeuvre and suprapubic pressure. Although the baby is healthy, the mother is experiencing significant pain and bleeding due to a tear. Upon examination, the midwife discovers a midline tear that extends to a small portion of the external anal sphincter. However, the internal sphincter remains intact. The patient's vital signs are normal, and she is otherwise in good health. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Suture repair in theatre by clinicians under local or general anaesthetic

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for a third degree perineal tear is surgical repair in theatre by a trained clinician under local or general anaesthetic. This is necessary as the tear involves the external anal sphincter, which can lead to complications such as infection, prolapse, long-term pain, and faecal incontinence if left untreated. Analgesia should also be provided to manage the patient’s pain, with paracetamol being the first-line option. Emergency repair in theatre is not usually required unless the patient is unstable. Suture repair on the ward by a midwife or clinician is not appropriate for tears involving the anal complex, which require intervention in theatre. However, grade 2 tears can be repaired on the ward by senior midwives trained in perineal repair.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 41 - A 29-year-old primip is brought in by ambulance at 38+2 weeks’ gestation. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primip is brought in by ambulance at 38+2 weeks’ gestation. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far, and she is a smoker. This morning, she had sudden-onset abdominal pain, which has become very severe. The uterus is hard and contracted. There is no vaginal bleeding, and the os is closed, with a long cervix. She looks clammy and pale.
      Her observations are as follows: heart rate (HR) 130 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 98/56 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 20 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% on air, and temperature 37.1 °C. The cardiotocogram shows fetal distress, and fetal movements cannot be palpated.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Emergency Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Management of Placental Abruption: Emergency Caesarean Section and Other Options

      Placental abruption is a serious obstetric emergency that can lead to maternal and fetal mortality. Risk factors include smoking, pre-eclampsia, cocaine use, trauma, and maternal age >35. Symptoms may include sudden-onset, severe pain, a contracted uterus, and fetal distress. In severe cases, an emergency Caesarean section is necessary to reduce the risk of mortality.

      If a patient presents with a history suggestive of placental abruption but no maternal or fetal compromise, a transabdominal and/or transvaginal ultrasound scan can confirm the diagnosis and assess fetal wellbeing.

      Admission for monitoring and analgesia may be appropriate in cases where there is a concealed or resolved placental abruption and the patient is stable without fetal distress. However, in the presence of maternal and fetal compromise, induction of labor is not appropriate.

      In cases where there is no maternal or fetal distress, admitting for intravenous analgesia and fluids can be appropriate to assess the patient and make a timely decision for delivery as required.

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  • Question 42 - A 35-year-old woman is 39 weeks pregnant with twins (dichorionic diamniotic). During labor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is 39 weeks pregnant with twins (dichorionic diamniotic). During labor, the midwife observes the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. The emergency button is pressed, and the woman is rushed for an emergency C-section. What is the most probable cause of umbilical cord prolapse?

      Your Answer: Cephalic presentation

      Correct Answer: Artificial amniotomy

      Explanation:

      The most probable reason for umbilical cord prolapse is artificial rupture of membranes. Factors such as cephalic presentation, nulliparity, and prolonged pregnancy decrease the chances of cord prolapse. Prostaglandins do not significantly affect the risk of cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth to her daughter through normal vaginal delivery 12 hours ago. She asks about contraceptive options as she feels her family is complete. She has a clean medical history and had no complications during her pregnancy or labour. She has previously used the intrauterine system (IUS) and wishes to continue with it. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer: She may have the IUS inserted up to 48 hours after delivery if she wishes

      Explanation:

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after a minimum of 4 weeks. However, it is important to note that insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks after delivery should be avoided due to the increased risk of expulsion and lack of data on uterine perforation with newer models. In addition to general contraindications, contraindications to postpartum insertion within 48 hours include peripartum chorioamnionitis, endometritis, puerperal sepsis, or post-partum haemorrhage. Waiting a minimum of 6 weeks or 2 months after delivery is not necessary. If waiting the recommended minimum of 4 weeks, the progesterone-only pill may be used as an interim measure to reduce the risk of pregnancy.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 44 - A 28-year-old primigravida woman presents at 38+5 weeks’ gestation to the Labour Ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida woman presents at 38+5 weeks’ gestation to the Labour Ward with regular contractions that have started about three hours ago.
      On examination, she has a short, soft cervix which is 2 cm dilated. Contractions are roughly every 4–5 minutes and are palpable, demonstrated on cardiotocography, but are not very strong or painful at present.
      Which of the following statements applies to the first stage of labour?

      Your Answer: It is described as the period from 4 cm of cervical dilation to full cervical dilation at a rate of about 0.5 cm per hour

      Correct Answer: It occurs at a rate of about 1 cm per hour in a nulliparous woman

      Explanation:

      Labour is the process of giving birth and is divided into three stages. The first stage begins with regular contractions and ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10 cm. This stage is further divided into a latent phase, where the cervix dilates to 4 cm, and an active phase, where the cervix dilates from 4 cm to 10 cm. The rate of cervical dilation in a nulliparous woman is approximately 1 cm per hour, while in a multiparous woman, it is approximately 2 cm per hour. The second stage of labour begins when the cervix is fully dilated and ends with the delivery of the baby. During this stage, fetal heart rate monitoring should occur at least every five minutes and after each contraction. Cervical incompetence, which involves cervical shortening and dilation in the absence of contractions, can result in premature delivery or second trimester loss and is more common in women with a multiple pregnancy, previous cervical incompetence, or a history of cervical surgery. These women can be managed with monitoring of cervical length, cervical cerclage, or progesterone cervical pessaries. The third stage of labour involves the delivery of the placenta and membranes.

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  • Question 45 - The technician performed an ultrasonographic examination on a pregnant woman and obtained a...

    Correct

    • The technician performed an ultrasonographic examination on a pregnant woman and obtained a median scan of the 7-week-old embryo. Using the ultrasound machine, the technician marked the most superior point of the embryo's head and the most inferior point of the embryo. The technician then measured the distance between the marks. What is the calculation that the technician made?

      Your Answer: Crown–rump length

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Appropriate Measurement for Estimating Embryonic Age

      When estimating the age of an embryo, it is important to choose the appropriate measurement based on the anatomy and timing of the scan. In the case of a scan taken at 7 weeks post-fertilisation, the crown-rump length is the most appropriate measurement to use. The greatest width is not used for estimating embryonic age, while the greatest length is only suitable for early embryos in the third and early fourth weeks. Crown-heel length may be used for 8-week-old embryos, but requires visibility of the lower limb. Crown-elbow length is not applicable in this case as the limbs cannot be visualised. It is important to consider the specific circumstances of the scan when choosing the appropriate measurement for estimating embryonic age.

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  • Question 46 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension during her first prenatal visit at...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension during her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mmHg. Her urine test reveals +++ protein. What is the best course of action to manage her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous labetalol with target blood pressure < 145/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 47 - Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?

    Rewritten: Which ONE of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?

      Rewritten: Which ONE of the following women, who are all 35 years old, has gestational hypertension?

      Your Answer: 24 weeks gestation and BP 150/100 and proteinuria +++

      Correct Answer: 22 weeks gestation and BP 150/100 and no proteinuria

      Explanation:

      If high blood pressure occurs after 20 weeks gestation and there is no proteinuria, it is considered gestational hypertension. However, if high blood pressure is present before 20 weeks, it is likely pre-existing hypertension.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 48 - A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of sporadic abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of sporadic abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She believes her last menstrual cycle was 8 weeks ago but is uncertain. She has no prior gynecological history and has never been pregnant before. Her vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg and a pulse rate of 79 bpm. A pregnancy test conducted in the department is positive, and a transvaginal ultrasound confirms a pregnancy in the adnexa with a fetal heartbeat present. What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Surgical management - salpingectomy or salpingostomy

      Explanation:

      The patient has a confirmed ectopic pregnancy, which requires definitive treatment even though there is no evidence of rupture. While expectant management may be an option for those without acute symptoms and decreasing beta-HCG levels, close monitoring is necessary and intervention is recommended if symptoms arise or beta-HCG levels increase. If a fetal heartbeat is present, conservative and medical management are unlikely to be successful and may increase the risk of rupture, which is a medical emergency. Therefore, surgical removal of the ectopic is the most appropriate option. If the opposite tube is healthy, salpingectomy may be the preferred choice. However, if the opposite tube is damaged, salpingostomy may be considered to preserve the functional tube and reduce the risk of future infertility.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 49 - A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to undergo an oral glucose tolerance test. She has had four previous pregnancies, and her babies' birth weights have ranged from 3.4-4.6kg. She has no history of diabetes, but both her parents have hypertension, and her grandfather has diabetes. She is of white British ethnicity and has a BMI of 29.6kg/m². What is the reason for recommending an oral glucose tolerance test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Previous macrosomia

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that pregnant women with a family history of diabetes undergo an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old woman had blood tests taken at her 12-week booking appointment with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman had blood tests taken at her 12-week booking appointment with the midwife. This is her first pregnancy and she has no significant medical history. The results of her full blood count (FBC) are as follows:
      - Hb: 110 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelets: 340 x 10^9/L (normal range: 150-400 x 10^9/L)
      - WBC: 7.2 x 10^9/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 x 10^9/L)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action based on these results?

      Your Answer: Recheck FBC in four weeks time

      Correct Answer: Start oral iron replacement therapy

      Explanation:

      To determine if iron supplementation is necessary, a cut-off of 110 g/L should be applied during the first trimester.

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.

      If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (31/50) 62%
Passmed