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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old patient presented with red rashes on their feet. Upon examination, they...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient presented with red rashes on their feet. Upon examination, they were found to be pale with purpuric spots on their lower legs. Their temperature was 38.3 °C and they also complained of nausea. On the second day of admission, their fever increased and they became disoriented. New bleeding spots started appearing on their face. Blood reports revealed low hemoglobin, high white cell count, low platelets, and high creatinine levels. A peripheral blood smear showed helmet cells and anisocytosis. The CSF study was normal. What test should be done next for this patient?

      Your Answer: Antiplatelet antibody

      Correct Answer: Urinary β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is characterized by low platelet count due to clotting and platelet sequestration in small vessels. TTP is associated with haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenic purpura, fever, and neurological and renal abnormalities. The patient’s risk factors for TTP include being female, obese, pregnant, and of Afro-Caribbean origin. To determine the appropriate management, a urinary β-hCG test should be performed to establish pregnancy status. The first-line treatment for TTP is plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma. Blood cultures should also be performed to check for underlying septicaemia. Antiplatelet antibody titres can be raised in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), but ITP does not cause renal failure. A bone marrow study is appropriate to rule out leukaemia. Illicit drug use should also be considered as a cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      21.2
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old patient presents to the general practitioner with a complaint of darkening...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents to the general practitioner with a complaint of darkening of urine, particularly noticeable in the morning. The patient has no family history of bleeding disorders and was recently hospitalized for deep venous thrombosis in the right leg. Upon examination, the patient's heart and lungs appear normal. Blood tests reveal anemia, elevated levels of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), high bilirubin levels, and a high reticulocyte count. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane

      Correct Answer: Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect in red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Causes of Haemolytic Anaemia

      Haemolytic anaemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced, leading to a shortage of oxygen-carrying cells in the body. There are various causes of haemolytic anaemia, including phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, vitamin B12 deficiency, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody against red blood cells.

      Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, also known as nocturnal haemoglobinuria, is an acquired condition caused by a mutation in the gene encoding for phosphatidylinositol glycan A. This leads to an increased susceptibility of red blood cells to complement proteins in an acidotic environment, resulting in haemolysis. Patients typically present with haematuria in the morning, and treatment involves managing symptoms and using medication such as eculizumab.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia and is not related to haemolysis. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited X-linked recessive condition that results in red blood cell breakdown. Loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane is seen in hereditary spherocytosis, where red blood cells become spherical and are trapped in the spleen, leading to haemolysis. IgM antibody against red blood cells causes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where the antibody binds to the I antigen on the membrane of red blood cells, leading to haemolysis at low temperatures.

      Understanding the different causes of haemolytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      12.5
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  • Question 3 - A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
      eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
      Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 78 g/l
      Males: 135–175 g/l
      Females: 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Warfarin and low molecular weight heparin

      Correct Answer: Apixaban

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      10.4
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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old man comes to his doctor with complaints of night sweats and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to his doctor with complaints of night sweats and unintended weight loss. He has a medical history of axillary lymphadenopathy. The doctor suspects that he may have non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the most probable test to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) of the chest, neck, abdomen and pelvis

      Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of an enlarged lymph node

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Investigations for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. There are several diagnostic investigations that can be used to diagnose this condition.

      Excisional Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: This is the most common diagnostic investigation for suspected non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It involves removing all of the abnormal tissue from an enlarged lymph node.

      Computed Tomography (CT) of the Chest, Neck, Abdomen, and Pelvis: CT scanning can indicate features suggestive of lymphoma, such as lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. However, it cannot provide a tissue diagnosis.

      Core Needle Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: If a surgical excisional biopsy is not appropriate, a core needle biopsy can be performed. However, if this does not reveal a definite diagnosis, then an excisional biopsy should be undertaken.

      Full Blood Count: A full blood count can be a helpful first-line investigation if a haematological malignancy is suspected, but it is not sufficient to be diagnostic for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

      Protein Electrophoresis and Urine Bence-Jones Protein: Protein electrophoresis can be helpful in screening for multiple myeloma, but it is not helpful for diagnosing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic investigations can be used to diagnose non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. However, excisional biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      5.5
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  • Question 5 - In the monophyletic model of haematopoiesis, which mature cell in the peripheral circulation...

    Incorrect

    • In the monophyletic model of haematopoiesis, which mature cell in the peripheral circulation is a derivative of the CMP? This model suggests that the haematopoietic stem cell (HSC) can give rise to either the common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) or the common myeloid progenitor (CMP).

      Your Answer: Plasma cell

      Correct Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Blood Cells and their Progenitor Cells

      Blood cells are formed from different types of progenitor cells. The common myeloid progenitor cell gives rise to myeloblasts, pro-erythroblasts, megakaryoblasts, and monoblasts. Myeloblasts produce granulocytes, while pro-erythroblasts produce red blood cells. Megakaryoblasts give rise to megakaryocytes and platelets, and monoblasts produce monocytes that can become tissue-specific macrophages. B cells, NK cells, and T cells are derivatives of the common lymphoid progenitor cell. Plasma cells, which are antibody-secreting cells, are derived from B cells. Understanding the different types of blood cells and their progenitor cells is important for studying blood disorders and developing treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      25.6
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest pain, fever and a cough, which he has had for five days. Examination revealed signs of jaundice and the spleen was not big enough to be palpable.
      You take some basic observations:
      Temperature: 38 °C
      Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
      O2 saturation: 86%
      Heart rate: 134 bpm (regular)
      Blood pressure (lying): 134/86 mmHg
      Blood pressure (standing): 132/90 mmHg
      His initial investigation findings are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal
      White cell count (WCC) 13.8 × 109/l 4–11.0 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 7000 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
      Lymphocytes 2000 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 110 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 300 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Troponin l 0.01 ng/ml < 0.1 ng/ml
      D-dimer 0.03 μg/ml < 0.05 μg/ml
      Arterial blood gas (ABG) showed type 1 respiratory failure with a normal pH. Chest X-ray showed left lower lobe consolidation.
      The patient was treated successfully and is due for discharge tomorrow.
      Upon speaking to the patient, he reveals that he has suffered two similar episodes this year.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what medication should the patient be started on to reduce the risk of further episodes?

      Your Answer: Hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Sickle Cell Disease and Acute Chest Pain Crisis

      A patient with sickle cell disease is experiencing an acute chest pain crisis, likely due to a lower respiratory tract infection. Hydroxycarbamide is recommended as a preventative therapy to reduce the risk of future crises by increasing the amount of fetal hemoglobin and reducing the percentage of red cells with hemoglobin S. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not necessary as the patient has a raised white blood cell count. Inhaled beclomethasone is not appropriate as asthma or COPD are not likely diagnoses in this case. Oral prednisolone may be used as a preventative therapy for severe asthma, but is not recommended for COPD and is not appropriate for this patient’s symptoms. A tuberculosis (TB) vaccination may be considered for primary prevention, but would not be useful for someone who has already been infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.2
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  • Question 7 - A 91-year-old woman with known vascular dementia presents to the Emergency Department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 91-year-old woman with known vascular dementia presents to the Emergency Department after a routine blood test uncovered that the patient had a sodium level of 149 mmol/l. Her carer comments that the patient’s fluid intake has been minimal over the past week. The patient’s past medical history includes a previous lacunar stroke and peripheral vascular disease. Her regular medications are atorvastatin, ramipril, amlodipine and clopidogrel. She currently is fully dependent on the assistance provided by carers. The patient’s National Early Warning (NEWS) score is 0, and her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15.
      A physical examination does not reveal any source of infection. A bedside capillary glucose is recorded as 5.8 mmol/mmol. A full set of blood tests are repeated, reported as follows:
      Full blood count and urea and electrolytes (U&Es):
      Investigations Results Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 91 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets (Plt) 215 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 3.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 66 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
      A routine chest X-ray and urinalysis are performed and show no abnormalities.
      Which of the following is the most suitable to correct the patient’s hypernatraemia?

      Your Answer: Hypertonic saline infusion

      Correct Answer: Oral water

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hypernatraemia: A Case Study

      Hypernatraemia is a condition characterized by an elevated sodium concentration in the blood. In this case study, the patient’s hypernatraemia is mild and caused by insufficient free water intake. It is important to rule out infection as a cause of hypernatraemia, which can increase free water loss. Mild calcification of the aortic arch is a common finding in the elderly and unrelated to the patient’s current complaint.

      Hypertonic saline infusion is not recommended as it would further increase the sodium concentration. Standard dialysis is not necessary in this case as the hypernatraemia is not profound enough. 500 ml of 10% dextrose is not appropriate as it is not equivalent to giving free water and is used to reverse hypoglycaemia. 500 ml of 0.9% saline is not the correct option for this patient, but it may be appropriate for hypovolaemic and hypotensive patients to restore circulating volume.

      The most appropriate treatment option for this patient is to provide free water, which can be achieved by administering 5% dextrose. It is important to monitor the patient’s sodium levels and fluid intake to prevent further complications. The decision to start hypertonic saline infusion or dialysis should be made by a consultant in severe cases of hypernatraemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's syndrome screening test around 15 weeks into her pregnancy.

      What is included in the measurement of a Down's screening blood test?

      Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      AFP Measurement for Detecting Birth Defects and Chromosomal Abnormalities

      When a woman is 15 weeks pregnant, a blood test called AFP measurement can be performed to determine if there is an increased risk of certain birth defects and chromosomal abnormalities. This test can detect open neural tube or abdominal wall defects, as well as Down’s syndrome and trisomy 18. In the past, if the results of the AFP measurement were abnormal, an ultrasound scan would be performed. However, it is possible that in the future, mid-trimester anomaly scanning may replace the use of AFP measurement altogether.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      3.3
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  • Question 9 - A 17-year-old male patient comes in with a history of fevers, night sweats,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male patient comes in with a history of fevers, night sweats, and a weight loss of 20 pounds over the course of several months. Upon conducting a CT scan, mediastinal lymphadenopathy is discovered, and a biopsy is performed. The genetic analysis of the lesion reveals a translocation between chromosomes 14 and 18. What protein is expected to be overexpressed due to this translocation?

      Your Answer: c-myc

      Correct Answer: bcl-2

      Explanation:

      Follicular lymphoma is a prevalent type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma that results from a chromosomal translocation between chromosome 14 and chromosome 18. This translocation causes the bcl-2 protein, which is anti-apoptotic, to be moved to the IgH promoter region, leading to overproduction of bcl-2. Consequently, abnormal B cells undergo clonal proliferation and are protected from apoptosis. Follicular lymphoma affects both genders equally, and its incidence increases with age. The disease typically presents with painless adenopathy that progresses over time. Systemic symptoms, such as fevers, night sweats, and weight loss, may occur later in the disease progression and can be associated with anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and lymphocytosis. Diagnosis requires a lymph node biopsy to demonstrate the expansion of follicles filling the node and chromosomal analysis of cells from bone marrow aspiration to detect t(14:18). Chemotherapy is the primary treatment, and rituximab, a monoclonal antibody against the CD20 protein found on B cells, is often used in combination with other agents. In Burkitt’s lymphoma, c-myc overexpression is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 8 and 14, while chronic myeloid leukaemia results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, forming the Philadelphia chromosome. Ewing’s sarcoma is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 12, leading to the formation of the fusion protein Ewsr1-fli1, which causes aberrant transcription of genes regulating cell growth and development. In a small subset of follicular lymphoma patients, translocations involving the bcl-6 gene and protein are found, which may increase the risk of transformation to a more aggressive form.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      4.6
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  • Question 10 - A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.

      During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)

      What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (8/9) 89%
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