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  • Question 1 - Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?

      Your Answer: Typhoid (TY 21a)

      Correct Answer: Polio (Salk)

      Explanation:

      Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was referred to the National Chest Hospital because he has had a nine month history of shortness of breath which is getting worse. Tests revealed that he had moderate emphysema. His family history showed that his father died from COPD at the age of 52. Genetic testing found the PiSZ genotype following the diagnosis of alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency. What levels of alpha-1 antitrypsin would be expected if they were to be measured?

      Your Answer: 10% of normal

      Correct Answer: 40% of normal

      Explanation:

      Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency, first described in 1963, is one of the most common inherited disorders amongst white Caucasians. Its primary manifestation is early-onset of pan acinar emphysema. In adults, alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency leads to chronic liver disease in the fifth decade. As a cause of emphysema, it is seen in non-smokers in the fifth decade of life and during the fourth decade of life in smokers.

      Symptoms of alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency emphysema are limited to the respiratory system. Dyspnoea is the symptom that eventually dominates alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. Similar to other forms of emphysema, the dyspnoea of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is initially evident only with strenuous exertion. Over several years, it eventually limits even mild activities.
      The serum levels of some of the common genotypes are:
      •PiMM: 100% (normal)
      •PiMS: 80% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiSS: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiMZ: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT, mild deficiency
      •PiSZ: 40% of normal serum level of A1AT, moderate deficiency
      •PiZZ: 10–15% (severe alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40 year-old lawyer suffered a road traffic accident. MRI reveals that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year-old lawyer suffered a road traffic accident. MRI reveals that he may have hemisection of the spinal cord. Which of the following findings is most likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral hyperreflexia

      Explanation:

      Spinal cord hemisection, also known as Brown-Sequard syndrome, is associated with symptoms affecting one spinothalamic and one corticospinal tract. Symptoms include ipsilateral paralysis, loss of vibration and position sense, and hyperreflexia below the level of the lesion. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation is also seen, usually beginning 2-3 segments below the level of the lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression....

    Correct

    • A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression. She has no past medical history of interest but is known to smoke Cannabis. She had similar episodes in the past winter. Which condition does this signify?

      Your Answer: Seasonal affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that’s related to changes in seasons. SAD begins and ends at about the same time every year. For most people with SAD, the symptoms start in the fall and continue into the winter months, sapping the person’s energy and making him feel moody. Less often, SAD causes depression in the spring or early summer.

      Treatment for SAD may include light therapy (phototherapy), medications and psychotherapy.

      Signs and symptoms of SAD may include:
      Feeling depressed most of the day, nearly every day
      Losing interest in activities you once enjoyed
      Having low energy
      Having problems with sleeping
      Experiencing changes in your appetite or weight
      Feeling sluggish or agitated
      Having difficulty concentrating
      Feeling hopeless, worthless or guilty
      Having frequent thoughts of death or suicide.

      Seasonal affective disorder is diagnosed more often in women than in men. And SAD occurs more frequently in younger adults than in older adults.

      Factors that may increase your risk of seasonal affective disorder include:
      Family history. People with SAD may be more likely to have blood relatives with SAD or another form of depression.
      Having major depression or bipolar disorder. Symptoms of depression may worsen seasonally if you have one of these conditions.
      Living far from the equator. SAD appears to be more common among people who live far north or south of the equator. This may be due to decreased sunlight during the winter and longer days during the summer months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25 yr. old male presented with an episode of syncope. His examination...

    Correct

    • A 25 yr. old male presented with an episode of syncope. His examination findings were normal. He gave a history of sudden cardiac death of a close relative. His ECG showed incomplete right bundle-branch block and ST-segment elevations in the anterior precordial leads. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brugada syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brugada syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by sudden cardiac death. The positive family history and characteristic ECG findings are in favour of Brugada syndrome. Usually the physical findings are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which was not properly followed up, presented with right sided hemiparesis. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg. His ECG revealed right bundle branch block with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Ostium secundum atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Ostium secundum atrial septal defects are known to cause stroke due to the passage of emboli from the right sided circulation to the left sided circulation. ECG shows tall, peaked P waves (usually best seen in leads II and V2) and prolongation of the PR interval, rSR pattern in leads V3 R and V1 as well as right axis deviation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the past three weeks she has also developed painful erythematous nodules on both shins. Respiratory examination is normal. A chest x-ray is performed which is reported as follows: Bilateral mediastinal nodal enlargement. No evidence of lung parenchymal disease. Normal cardiac size. Given the likely diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease that affects one or more organs but most commonly affects the lungs and lymph glands. The inflammation may change the normal structure and possibly the function of the affected organ(s).
      The presentation in sarcoidosis varies with the extent and severity of organ involvement, as follows:
      Asymptomatic (incidentally detected on chest imaging): Approximately 5% of cases.
      Systemic complaints (fever, anorexia): 45% of cases
      Pulmonary complaints (dyspnoea on exertion, cough, chest pain, and haemoptysis [rare]): 50% of cases

      Löfgren syndrome (fever, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and polyarthralgias): Common in Scandinavian patients, but uncommon in African-American and Japanese patients.

      Dermatologic manifestations may include the following:
      – Erythema nodosum
      – A lower-extremity panniculitis with painful, erythematous nodules (often with Löfgren syndrome)
      – Lupus pernio (the most specific associated cutaneous lesion)
      – Violaceous rash on the cheeks or nose (common)
      – Maculopapular plaques (uncommon)

      Staging of sarcoidosis is as follows:
      Stage 0: Normal chest radiographic findings
      Stage I: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
      Stage II: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and infiltrates
      Stage III: Infiltrates alone
      Stage IV: Fibrosis

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are indicated for the treatment of arthralgias and other rheumatic complaints. Patients with stage I sarcoidosis often require only occasional treatment with NSAIDs.

      Treatment in patients with pulmonary involvement is as follows:
      Asymptomatic patients may not require treatment
      In patients with minimal symptoms, serial re-evaluation is prudent
      Treatment is indicated for patients with significant respiratory symptoms
      Corticosteroids can produce small improvements in the functional vital capacity and in the radiographic appearance in patients with more severe stage II and III disease.

      This patient has Stage 1 Sarcoidosis so observation is the most appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old gentleman with a history of alcohol excess presents to hospital with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old gentleman with a history of alcohol excess presents to hospital with progressive abdominal distension. He now complains of early satiety and abdominal discomfort as a result of the distension. Examination reveals a significantly distended abdomen with shifting dullness. A diagnostic ascitic tap is performed and the fluid sent for analysis. What is the most appropriate first line treatment for his ascites?

      Your Answer: Paracentesis

      Explanation:

      The first line treatment for ascites that is symptomatic is paracentesis. If it is not symptomatic, treatment could be with salt and fluid restriction as well as spironolactone. If spironolactone maximum dosage is reached, you can use furosemide additionally. Amiloride is not a diuretic that is recommended in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant. Which of the following is most likely to make you ask her to defer pregnancy at this stage?

      Your Answer: Microalbumin level of 6-mg excretion in 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Hb A1C 9.4%

      Explanation:

      Pregnancies affected by T1DM are at increased risk for preterm delivery, preeclampsia, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, intrauterine fetal demise, fetal growth restriction, cardiac and renal malformations, in addition to rare neural conditions such as sacral agenesis.
      Successful management of pregnancy in a T1DM patient begins before conception. Research indicates that the implementation of preconception counselling, emphasizing strict glycaemic control before and throughout pregnancy, reduces the rate of perinatal mortality and malformations.
      The 2008 bulletin from the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence recommends that preconception counselling be offered to all patients with diabetes. Physicians are advised to guide patients on achieving personalized glycaemic control goals, increasing the frequency of glucose monitoring, reducing their HbA1C levels, and recommend avoiding pregnancy if the said level is > 10%.
      Other sources suggest deferring pregnancy until HbA1C levels are > 8%, as this margin is associated with better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      110
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.
      Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
      Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.
      The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).
      Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      37.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed