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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his small phallus. He also has difficulty becoming aroused. On examination, he is slim and has gynecomastia. There is a general paucity of body hair, his penis and testes are small. Which diagnosis fits best with this history and examination?
Your Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome
Explanation:The patient most likely has Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Klinefelter syndrome (KS) refers to a group of chromosomal disorders in which the normal male karyotype, 46,XY, has at least one extra X chromosome. XXY aneuploidy, the most common human sex chromosome disorder. It is also the most common chromosomal disorder associated with male hypogonadism and infertility.
Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia), gynecomastia in late puberty, hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules, elevated urinary gonadotropin levels, and behavioural concerns. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and platelet levels. A diagnosis of polycythaemia vera is suspected. Which other abnormality of the blood would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Raised ferritin level
Correct Answer: Neutrophilia
Explanation:Neutrophilia is also commonly associated with polycythaemia vera.
Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?
Your Answer: Ataxia telangiectasia
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has a painless, firm enlarged thyroid gland. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding her probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Around 20% of women have some degree of thyroid dysfunction post partum
Correct Answer: The condition is more likely in those in whom thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies were positive prior to delivery
Explanation:Up to 10% of postpartum women may develop lymphocytic thyroiditis (postpartum thyroiditis) in the 2-12 months after delivery. The frequency may be as high as 25% in women with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Some patients return spontaneously to a euthyroid state within a few months, but most patients experience a phase of hypothyroidism that takes 2 to 6 months to resolve; of this group, some develop permanent hypothyroidism. About 50% of patients, however, will develop permanent hypothyroidism within 5 years of the diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis.
High titres of anti-TPO antibodies during pregnancy have been reported to have high sensitivity and specificity for postpartum autoimmune thyroid disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than usual. She has not attended the previous three annual check-ups and her blood glucose control has been poor. She has not been compliant with his medications. Blood pressure is 170/90 mmHg. Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. A blood test reveals her glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 26mL/min. If a renal biopsy was to be performed in this patient, what would be the expected findings?
Your Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis and hyaline arteriosclerosis
Explanation:This patient has a poorly controlled T2DM with an underlying diabetic nephropathy. The histological findings are Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis) and hyaline arteriosclerosis. This is due to nonenzymatic glycosylation.
Diabetic nephropathy is the chronic loss of kidney function occurring in those with diabetes mellitus. Protein loss in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli may become massive, and cause a low serum albumin with resulting generalized body swelling (edema) and result in the nephrotic syndrome. Likewise, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) may progressively fall from a normal of over 90 ml/min/1.73m2 to less than 15, at which point the patient is said to have end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). It usually is slowly progressive over years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Give the blood transfusion
Explanation:People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.
Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.
This could be:
the child’s mother or father
the child’s legally appointed guardian
a person with a residence order concerning the child
a local authority designated to care for the child
a local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.
Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.
Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis. Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?
Your Answer: CA 15-3
Explanation:Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 71-year old gentleman presents with a subacute history of intermittent difficulty in walking, dry mouth, and variable slurring of speech. When the latter is severe he also has difficulty in swallowing. He has lost 3 kg in weight in the last 2 months. On examination he has bilateral mild ptosis, dysarthria, and proximal weakness of the upper and lower limbs, and he is areflexic. The degree of weakness is variable. Nerve conduction studies confirm the clinical suspicion of a neuromuscular junction disorder. Which of the following autoantibodies is likely to be the underlying cause of his neurological symptoms?
Your Answer: Anti-voltage-gated, calcium-channel antibody
Explanation:The clinical picture points to Lambert– Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) which often presents with weakness of the arms and legs. In LEMS, antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels (VGCC) decrease the amount of calcium that can enter the nerve ending, causing autonomic symptoms like dry mouth and slurring of speech, as seen in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?
Your Answer: It has a half-life of 12 h
Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism
Explanation:The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.
Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.
Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 37-year old female nurse presents with severe generalized itching, claiming that she had previously applied cream to the body of a patient with similar symptoms. What is the mechanism that produces her itch?
Your Answer: Allergic reaction
Explanation:Contact dermatitis is a red, itchy rash caused by direct contact with a substance or an allergic reaction to it. The entry of allergen into the epidermis or dermis causes a localized allergic reaction. Local mast-cell activation in the skin leads immediately to a local increase in vascular permeability, which causes extravasation of fluid and swelling. Histamine released by mast cells activated by allergen in the skin causes large, itchy, red swellings of the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?
Your Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies
Explanation:Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.
The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old athlete presented with a 7-month history of difficulty gripping things. He complained of finding it particularly difficult in cold weather. He remembered his father having similar problems. Upon examination, he had a bilateral ptosis with weakness of the facial muscles. He also had difficulty opening his eyes quickly. Limb examination revealed distal weakness in both hands with difficulty opening and closing both hands quickly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Myotonic dystrophy is the most likely diagnosis here.
It is a multisystem disorder causing cognitive impairment, cataracts, cardiac problems and testicular atrophy, as well as affecting the muscles. Patients have muscle weakness, normally worse distally, and/or myotonia (which is worse in cold weather).
On examination, patients may also have frontal balding, a myopathic facies, bilateral ptosis, an ophthalmoplegia and wasting of facial muscles and other limb muscles. Myotonic dystrophy is associated with diabetes mellitus and pituitary dysfunction.
Diagnosis is normally based on clinical features with a characteristic electromyogram (EMG) of myotonic discharges. Creatine kinase is generally normal and muscle biopsy is non-specific. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy associated with dyspnoea. He has never smoked and takes no medication. The chest X-ray shows multiple round lesions increasing in size and numbers at the base. There is no hilar lymphadenopathy.  What condition does he most likely have?
Your Answer: Lung abscesses
Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases
Explanation:Pulmonary metastasis is seen in 20-54% of extrathoracic malignancies. The lungs are the second most frequent site of metastases from extrathoracic malignancies. Twenty percent of metastatic disease is isolated to the lungs. The development of pulmonary metastases in patients with known malignancies indicates disseminated disease and places the patient in stage IV in TNM (tumour, node, metastasis) staging systems.
Chest radiography (CXR) is the initial imaging modality used in the detection of suspected pulmonary metastasis in patients with known malignancies. Chest CT scanning without contrast is more sensitive than CXR.
Breast, colorectal, lung, kidney, head and neck, and uterus cancers are the most common primary tumours with lung metastasis at autopsy. Choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, testicular tumours, malignant melanoma, Ewing sarcoma, and thyroid cancer frequently metastasize to lung, but the frequency of these tumours is low. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic drug for children with absence seizures. The total number of the children selected for the study was 400, from which 150 children were assigned to take the new drug and 250 children were assigned in the control group. After a period of four months, only 15 children taking the new drug had a seizure compared to 100 children from the control group who had seizure. What is the correct value regarding the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:Relative risk reduction (RRR) tells you by how much the treatment reduced the risk of bad outcomes relative to the control group who did not have the treatment. In the previous example, the relative risk reduction of fever and rash in the group of the children on the intervention was 40 per cent (1 – 0.6 = 0.4 or 40 per cent). RRR = (EER -CER) / CER = (0.1 – 0.4) / 0.4 = -0.75 or 75% reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with Crohn's disease. The objective of the study is to detect any differences between the average calcium levels in men compared to women. Previous studies have shown a normal distribution regarding calcium levels. Which of the the following tests would you most likely apply?
Your Answer: Chi-squared test
Correct Answer: Student's unpaired t-test
Explanation:A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, comparing two independent samples from the same population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Correct
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A 35-year-old gentleman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. This started earlier on in the day and is getting progressively worse. The pain is located on his left flank and radiates down into his groin. He has no history of this pain or any other condition. Examination reveals a gentleman who is flushed and sweaty but is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most suitable initial management?
Your Answer: IM diclofenac 75 mg
Explanation:Because of the patient’s presentation with flank pain that radiates to the groin, we are suspecting renal colic. We should follow guidelines for acute renal management and prescribe IM diclofenac for immediate relief of pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 74-year-old widow is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic renal failure. What is the most common problem that can arise in this case?
Your Answer: Protein–calorie malnutrition
Explanation:Protein-calorie malnutrition is observed in almost 50% of dialysis patients, contributing to increased morbidity and mortality. All the other complications listed can usually be prevented thanks to modern-day dialysis techniques.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 18
Correct
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Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?
Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack
Explanation:Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2 diabetes for 9 years and is now on insulin therapy. She has diabetic nephropathy, as exemplified by hypertension and proteinuria (urinary PCR 155); a recent creatinine level was 205 μmol/l and eGFR 24 ml/min.  Which of the following options best fits her prognosis or management?
Your Answer: Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function
Explanation:Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function in this patient, as studies have shown that blocking of the RAS in type 2 diabetic patients improve renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 20
Correct
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Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus
Explanation:The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.
DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This positive result has persisted for more than six months. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) is negative. HBV DNA is negative. Her liver function tests are all entirely normal. Which of the following options would be the best for further management?
Your Answer: No antiviral therapy but monitor serology
Explanation:Again, remember the Hepatitis B serologies: In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, + anti-HBc, + IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. In immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, + anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. IN THIS CASE, the person is HBsAg+ for 6 months and everything else is negative, normal transaminase. They do not need antiviral therapy, but their serology should be monitored serially. There would be no reason to do a liver biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Correct Answer: Varicella
Explanation:Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 23
Correct
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A 70 yr. old male patient presented with chronic congestive heart failure. Which of the following is the most important factor to consider when prescribing drugs for this patient?
Your Answer: Administration of a B-blocker reduces the time spent in hospital
Explanation:It is proven that spironolactone has survival benefits and loop diuretics only give symptomatic relief. Beta blockers are however, known to improve exercise tolerance, left ventricular function and reduce symptoms. They also reduce the mortality associated with heart failure. So administration of beta blockers will reduce the time spent in hospital by improving symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?
Your Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol
Explanation:Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.
Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.
Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:
Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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Choose the cell organelle involved in the synthesis of lipids:
Your Answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:The Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the major site at which membrane lipids are synthesized in eukaryotic cells. Because they are extremely hydrophobic, lipids are synthesized in association with already existing cellular membranes rather than in the aqueous environment of the cytosol. Although some lipids are synthesized in association with other membranes, most are synthesized in the ER. They are then transported from the ER to their ultimate destinations either in vesicles or by carrier proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Correct
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Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?
Your Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.
The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 24-year-old female presents with generalised irritation and erythematous skin after sunbathing on the beach. Which is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Emollient cream
Explanation:Sun burn reactions usually occur after individuals with a light skin tone have prolonged exposure to the sun. The usual symptoms are redness and itching of the skin. The best treatment plan would be further avoidance of sun exposure and the topical application of emollients. These are Ist degree burns and aggressive therapy is not required in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 25 yr. old previously well female, in her 10th week of pregnancy presented with a left sided painful calf swelling. An ultrasound scan revealed deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of her left leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Your Answer: Initiate and then continue treatment with heparin until delivery
Explanation:Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. She should be given heparin throughout her pregnancy. It can be converted to warfarin if necessary after the delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 60 yr. old previously well male was admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism. On examination his BP was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His CXR was normal. He was treated with low molecular weight heparin. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial lung investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography
Explanation:Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the standard investigative tool, used for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary angiography is indicated if CTPA is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regime. He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning. Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?
Your Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime
Explanation:The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 31
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?
Your Answer: Mean = mode = median
Explanation:Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:
– It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.
– It is unimodal
– The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).
– Its density has two inflection points.
– Its density is log-concave.
The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 32
Correct
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A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Congenital CMV infection can occur when a pregnant woman is infected with the cytomegalovirus (CMV) and passes the virus to her unborn child. Infants infected with CMV during pregnancy can exhibit a range of symptoms, including jaundice, seizures, and microcephaly (abnormally small head size). These symptoms are consistent with congenital CMV infection.
Given the mother’s HIV-positive status, the infant may have been at increased risk of acquiring other infections, including CMV, due to potential immunodeficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man with a known history of alcoholic liver disease is reviewed following a suspected oesophageal variceal haemorrhage. He has been resuscitated and intravenous terlipressin has been given. His blood pressure is now 104/60 mmHg and his pulse is 84/min. What is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer: Surgical referral
Correct Answer: Endoscopic variceal band ligation
Explanation:The correct course of action after giving terlipressin and resuscitating with IV fluids is to perform an EGD with endoscopic variceal band ligation. According to NICE: ‘Offer endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices. There are serious complications of a TIPS procedure and it is not the first line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with his wife. He is limping and his wife noticed that his ankle was abnormally-shaped after he stepped out of the shower. Examination of his right ankle reveals a painless warm swollen joint. There is crepitus and what appears to be palpable bone debris. X-ray reveals gross joint destruction and apparent dislocation. Joint aspiration fluid shows no microbes. Investigations: His CRP and white count are of normal values. Historical review of HB A1c reveals that it has rarely been below 9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Charcot’s ankle
Explanation:Charcot arthropathy is a progressive condition of the musculoskeletal system that is characterized by joint dislocations, pathologic fractures, and debilitating deformities. It results in progressive destruction of bone and soft tissues at weight-bearing joints. In its most severe form, it may cause significant disruption of the bony architecture.
Charcot arthropathy can occur at any joint; however, it occurs most commonly in the lower extremity, at the foot and ankle. Diabetes is now considered to be the most common aetiology of Charcot arthropathy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera?
Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Raised ESR
Explanation:Polycythaemia vera (PV) is associated with a low ESR.
PV, also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance. PV is associated with a low ESR.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 53 year old female, longstanding case of rheumatoid arthritis comes for a review. Which of the following features are commonly associated with her condition?
Your Answer: A monoarticular picture
Correct Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joint involvement in the hands
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is a polyarthritis that results in symmetrical pain and swelling of the affected joints (also at rest). It particularly affects the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCPJs) and proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPJs), not the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).
Ulcerative colitis and IBD are associated with seronegative arthritides, not RA. The condition can also cause various extra-articular manifestations such as ocular symptoms, rheumatoid nodules and pulmonary fibrosis. Scleritis, episcleritis and keratoconjunctivitis sicca are more common than uveitis. Early intervention with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) plays a decisive role in successful treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by a high velocity cricket ball and lost consciousness immediately. Paramedics found him to have a Glasgow coma score of 15 but take him to the A&E for further investigation. His Glasgow coma score on examination in the A&E is 13 (M5, V4, E4) and he has anterograde and retrograde amnesia to recent events. The doctors arrange an urgent CT scan. Which clinical sign would be most concerning if present?
Your Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Intracranial pressure (ICP) is a complex brain modality that determines cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is the difference between arterial blood pressure (ABP), and ICP. Raised ICP reduces CPP and blood delivery to the brain. This jeopardizes cerebral function and organismal survival in many species. A massive rise in ICP is also known to produce an increase in ABP, bradycardia and respiratory irregularities termed Cushing response. This mechanism is generally considered to be an agonal and terminal event occurring in extreme condition of brainstem ischaemia leading to a sympatho-adrenal response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 38
Correct
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A 30-year-old man has been unwell for the last 3 weeks and now developed a rash. Chickenpox is diagnosed. What is the appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Acyclovir
Explanation:You may treat chickenpox with acyclovir if it is commenced within the first 24 hours of the rash’s appearance. Erythromycin, doxycycline, and ampicillin would not help because it’s a viral infection (Varicella) not a bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 39
Correct
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A 36 year old female who has been suffering from depression for the past 5 years was recently admitted to the psychiatric intensive care unit. She is currently being managed on Sertraline. In clinic she was observed to be sitting in a fixed position for several hours, awake but unable to move. What would be an appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: ECT
Explanation:Catatonia is a state of apparent unresponsiveness to external stimuli and apparent inability to move normally in a person who is apparently awake. Catatonia can be acute and occur in severely ill patients with underlying psychiatric or other medical disorders.
A history of behavioural responses to others usually includes the presence of the following:
– Mutism (absence of speech)
– Negativism (performing actions contrary to the commands of the examiner)
– Echopraxia (repeating the movements of others)
– Echolalia (repeating the words of others)
– Waxy flexibility (slight, even resistance to positioning by examiner)
– Withdrawal (absence of responses to the environment).In the presence of a catatonic state, both first and second generation antipsychotics (SGA) may contribute to maintaining or worsening the catatonic state and increase the risk of developing NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome).
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is effective in all forms of catatonia, even after pharmacotherapy with benzodiazepines has failed. Response rate ranges from 80% to 100% and results superior to those of any other therapy in psychiatry. ECT should be considered first-line treatment in patients with malignant catatonia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, delirious mania or severe catatonic excitement, and in general in all catatonic patients that are refractory or partially responsive to benzodiazepines. Early intervention with ECT is encouraged to avoid undue deterioration of the patient’s medical condition.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a procedure, done under general anaesthesia, in which small electric currents are passed through the brain, intentionally triggering a brief seizure. ECT seems to cause changes in brain chemistry that can quickly reverse symptoms of certain mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 40
Correct
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A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives history of having had a sore throat, fever and lymphadenitis during pregnancy. Which organism may be responsible for causing deafness in her infant?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV is a common viral infection that can be transmitted from a pregnant woman to her unborn child, leading to congenital CMV infection. Congenital CMV infection can result in a range of symptoms and complications in newborns, including deafness. In fact, CMV is one of the leading causes of non-genetic sensorineural hearing loss in children.
Given the mother’s history of symptoms during pregnancy and the concern for deafness in the infant, CMV should also be considered as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin 10mg was found to have persistently high cholesterol levels. Previous attempts to increase the dose of simvastatin have resulted in myalgia. Given this history, which one of the following lipid-regulating drugs should definitely be avoided?
Your Answer: Ezetimibe
Correct Answer: Bezafibrate
Explanation:Both fibrates and nicotinic acid have been associated with myositis, especially when combined with a statin. However, the Committee on Safety of Medicines has produced guidance which specifically warns about the concomitant prescription of fibrates with statins concerning muscle toxicity.
Bezafibrate: It is a fibric acid derivative (fibrate) that has been used as a class of agents known to decrease triglyceride levels while substantially increasing HDL-C levels.
Pharmacological effects:
– Increases VLDL catabolism by increasing lipoprotein and hepatic triglyceride lipase.
– Decreases triglyceride synthesis by inhibiting acetyl-CoA reductase.
– Decreases cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.Side effects:
– Hypersensitivity
– Primary biliary cirrhosis
– Pre-existing gallbladder disease
– Concurrent use with HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) can produce myopathy
– Hepatic/renal impairment in a patient warrants dose adjustment as this drug is primarily excreted via the renal mechanism.Contraindications: Concurrent use of MAO inhibitors, hypersensitivity, pre-existing cholestasis, and pregnancy.
Use: It can be used to treat Barth syndrome (characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia (presenting with recurrent infections), skeletal myopathy and short stature)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a one-week history of dark urine and fatigue. One day before admission, she developed severe abdominal pain and abdominal distension. On examination, she has pallor, jaundice, an enlarged tender liver, and ascites. Her investigations show: Hb: 7.9 g/dL, WCC: 3.2 x 10^9/L, Plts: 89 x 10^9/L, MCV: 101 fL. Peripheral smear: Mild polychromasia, AST: 144 U/L, ALT: 130 U/L, Bilirubin: 54 μmol/L. Urine hemosiderin: ++, Urine urobilinogen +. Abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged liver, ascites, and absent flow in the hepatic veins. Which single test would you request to confirm the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inherited thrombophilia screen
Correct Answer: Flow cytometry for CD55 and CD59 expression
Explanation:The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) complicated by acute hepatic vein thrombosis (Budd–Chiari syndrome).
PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combination of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 43
Correct
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A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils in patients with established ischaemic heart disease. The power of the study is equal to:
Your Answer: 1 - probability of making a type II error
Explanation:The power of a test is defined as 1 − the probability of Type II error. The Type II error is concluding at no difference (the null is not rejected) when in fact there is a difference, and its probability is named β. Therefore, the power of a study reflects the probability of detecting a difference when this difference exists. It is also very important to medical research that studies are planned with an adequate power so that meaningful conclusions can be issued if no statistical difference has been shown between the treatments compared. More power means less risk for Type II errors and more chances to detect a difference when it exists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female has been admitted with an acute infection. She gives a history suggestive of hypersensitivity to amoxicillin. After consultation with the allergy specialist, she has now been diagnosed with an IgE mediated penicillin allergy. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:Cefalexin should be avoided in this patient.
This patient is known to have a severe penicillin allergy. None of the above antibiotics are penicillin based. However, 0.5 – 6.5% of patients who are proven to have an IgE mediated penicillin allergy will also be allergic to cephalosporins, including cefalexin.Penicillin, cephalosporins, and carbapenems are all members of the beta-lactam group of antibiotics and share a common beta-lactam ring. There is, therefore, a small risk of allergy cross-over between all these antibiotics. The rates of allergy cross-over are lower with second and third-generation cephalosporins than first-generation cephalosporins such as cefalexin.
It is important to question the patient carefully to ascertain what symptoms they had on exposure to penicillin. Symptoms such as an urticarial rash or itching make it more likely that they have an IgE mediated allergy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?
Your Answer: Erythema Nodosum and topical tetracycline
Correct Answer: Psoriasis and Vitamin D analogues
Explanation:One of the options of Psoriasis treatment is vitamin D analogues i.e. calcipotriol. Acne is exacerbated by steroids. Erythema nodosum can be caused by various diseases and the treatment of the primary condition resolves the symptoms. Lipomas require surgery, whereas Steven-Johnson syndrome requires use of steroids and eliminating the culprit drug, which is one of the most common causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old, thin drama student presents with weakness and muscle cramps. She has a past medical history of reflux and bronchial asthma, for which she takes lansoprazole 30mg once daily, inhaled salbutamol PRN, and a once-daily inhaled corticosteroid. She reports feeling stressed lately as she has a leading role in a significant stage production due to open in one week. Her heart rate is 87 bpm, blood pressure 103/71mmHg, respiratory rate 13/min. Her blood results are: pH: 7.46 Na+: 138 mmol/L, K+: 2.8 mmol/L, Chloride: 93 mmol/L, Magnesium: 0.61 mmol/L, What is the most likely aetiology for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Stress
Correct Answer: Bulimia
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis considering hypochloraemia and the mild metabolic alkalosis as well as the history of GERD (requiring a high dose of PPI to control) would be bulimia.
Other options:
Diuretic abuse tends to give a hypochloraemic acidosis.
Gitelman syndrome also fits the diagnosis but, it is very rare compared to bulimia.
Inhaled steroid use and stress would not be responsible for such marked electrolyte derangement.Other potential signs of bulimia nervosa would be parotid gland swelling and dental enamel erosion induced by regular vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 47
Correct
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An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome. The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?
Your Answer: Fibrillin-1
Explanation:A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is investigated for bloody diarrhoea which started around six weeks ago. She is currently passing 3-4 loose stools a day which normally contain a small amount of blood. Other than feeling lethargic she remains systemically well with no fever or significant abdominal pain. A colonoscopy is performed which shows inflammatory changes in the ascending colon consistent with ulcerative colitis. Bloods show the following: Hb: 14.2 g/dL, Platelets: 323 * 109/L, WBC: 8.1 * 109/L, CRP: 22 mg/l. What is the most appropriate first-line medication to induce remission?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Oral aminosalicylate
Explanation:Given she is not showing signs of systemic illness, you do not need to treat for an acute flair (which would be steroids), but you need to put her on maintenance medication. Oral ASA would be the best option for this, it is first line. You cannot give rectal ASA because the location of her disease is in the ascending colon and the enema will not reach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 68 year old male, previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis presents to your clinic with acute on chronic pain in his big toe. Past history is significant for hypertension for which he takes Bendroflumethiazide 5mg daily. Examination reveals an erythematous, red hot metatarsophalangeal joint that has a knobbly appearance. X-ray shows punched out bony cysts. Which of the following would be the most appropriate long term management for this patient?
Your Answer: Stop Bendroflumethiazide and substitute a calcium antagonist
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is chronic tophaceous gout, which is classically associated with chronic renal impairment or long term diuretic therapy. There is tophus formation due to urate crystal deposition in and around the joint. These tophi can also form in the bones and soft tissues. Renal manifestations with uric acid include nephrolithiasis and uric acid nephropathy. Whenever there is an acute on chronic attack of gout, the inciting cause must be established and in case of diuretic use, they should be immediately replaced with another medication. Allopurinol is never started during an acute episode. it is first allowed to settle before administration of allopurinol. Although dietary restriction must be observed in people with a propensity of gout, this scenario clearly presents diuretics as the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?
Your Answer: Rubella
Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii
Explanation:The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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