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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is correct?

      Your Answer: Do not cause weight gain

      Explanation:

      Several dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are in clinical development; these are orally active and increase levels of active glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which in turn increases insulin secretion and reduces glucagon secretion, thereby lowering glucose levels.
      Sitagliptin and vildagliptin both have a long duration of action, allowing once-daily administration. Both sitagliptin and vildagliptin are safe and tolerable with a low risk of hypoglycaemia. In drug-naïve subjects with type 2 diabetes, both sitagliptin and vildagliptin reduce A1C levels by ,1% as monotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old female with a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, obesity and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female with a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, obesity and depression, presents with neck and right arm pain. She claims that the pain is present for two months and is triggered by flexing her neck. Clinical examination reveals sensory loss over the middle finger and palm of the hand without any obvious muscle atrophy or weakness. Which nerve root is most probably affected?

      Your Answer: C6

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of cervical radiculopathy is degenerative disease in the cervical spine. In 80–90% of patients with cervical radiculopathy, the C5/C6 or C6/C7 motion segments are affected by degenerative disease and the nearby C6 and/or C7 nerve roots are producing the symptoms. Patients with cervical radiculopathy complain of neck pain and radiating pain in the arm sometimes combined with sensory and motor disturbances in the arm and/or hand. These symptoms are accepted as being caused by the nerve root compression. Middle finger and palm of the hand are mostly rising the suspicion for C7 nerve root and median nerve involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is found to have oliguria and diagnosed with acute renal tubular necrosis.   What is the most common complication and cause of death in this condition?

      Your Answer: Electrolyte abnormalities

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Correct Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.
      Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
      Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.
      The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).
      Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following would you choose to compare survival time with in this particular study?

      Your Answer: Relative risk

      Correct Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      The hazard ratio describes the relative risk of the complication based on comparison of event rates.

      Hazard ratios have also been used to describe the outcome of therapeutic trials where the question is to what extent treatment can shorten the duration of the illness. However, the hazard ratio, a type of relative risk, does not always accurately portray the degree of abbreviation of the illness that occurred. In these circumstances, time-based parameters available from the time-to-event curve, such as the ratio of the median times of the placebo and drug groups, should be used to describe the magnitude of the benefit to the patient. The difference between hazard-based and time-based measures is analogous to the odds of winning a race and the margin of victory. The hazard ratio is the odds of a patient’s healing faster under treatment but does not convey any information about how much faster this event may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10

      Explanation:

      The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.

      Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

      Clinical features include:
      1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
      2. Lower limb weakness
      3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
      4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
      Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Management options are:
      1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
      2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram after taking it for the past two years for his depression. You have agreed to this because he feels well for the past year. What is the most appropriate method of discontinuing Citalopram?

      Your Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Citalopram is an antidepressant medication that works in the brain. It is approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD). Stopping citalopram abruptly may result in one or more of the following withdrawal symptoms: irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headache, and/or paraesthesia (prickling, tingling sensation on the skin).

      When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose (e.g., over 2 to 4 weeks) to minimize withdrawal symptoms and detect re-emerging symptoms. Reasons for a slower titration (e.g., over 4 weeks) include use of a drug with a half-life <24 hours (e.g., paroxetine, venlafaxine), prior history of antidepressant withdrawal symptoms, or high doses of antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her blood picture shows: Hb: 10.4 g/dL,...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her blood picture shows: Hb: 10.4 g/dL, Plts: 278 x 10^9/L, WCC: 6.3 x 10^9/L, MCV: 68 fL. Blood film: Microcytic hypochromic RBCs, marked anisocytosis and basophilic stippling noted, HbA2: 3.9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Thalassaemias are a group of genetic disorders characterised by decreased production of either alpha or beta chains of haemoglobin (Hb). Beta thalassaemia trait is an autosomal recessive condition in which a disproportionate hypochromic, microcytic anaemia occurs—microcytosis is disproportionate to the Hb level. It is usually asymptomatic.

      Microcytic anaemia in a female should raise the possibility of either gastrointestinal blood loss or menorrhagia. However, there is no history to suggest this in the aforementioned patient. This, combined with characteristic disproportionate microcytosis and raised HbA2 levels ( >3.5%), point towards beta thalassaemia trait.

      Basophilic stippling is also seen in lead poisoning but the raised HbA2 levels cannot be explained in such a case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of being unwell and temperature of 38.1°C. She is a known case of neuroendocrine cancer of the cervix, treated with carboplatin and etoposide. Her last treatment was eight days ago. Blood cultures are taken and she is started on neutropenic sepsis protocol. What will gram-staining of the blood cultures most likely show?

      Your Answer: Gram-positive cocci

      Explanation:

      Gram-staining of the blood cultures of this patient will show gram-positive cocci. Gram-negative bacilli used to be the most common pathogen isolated in neutropenic sepsis, but currently, the most common pathogens are gram-positive organisms. Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most frequent causative agent, and following this are other staphylococci and streptococci species.

      Neutropenic sepsis is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy—usually chemotherapy. It most commonly occurs 7-14 days after the treatment and is usually defined as a neutrophil count of <0.5 x 10^9/L in a patient undergoing anticancer treatment and who has either a temperature higher than 38°C or has other features consistent with clinically significant sepsis. Management approach includes starting empirical antibiotic therapy (piperacillin with tazobactam—Tazocin) immediately. Following this initial treatment, the patient is usually assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to see if outpatient treatment may be possible. However, if the patient remains febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem is often prescribed with or without vancomycin. If patient is still not responding after 4-6 days, then an antifungal, such as amphotericin B, is started after carrying out investigations (e.g. HRCT and Aspergillus PCR) to determine the likelihood of systemic fungal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - How should DVT during pregnancy be managed? ...

    Correct

    • How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?

      Your Answer: Dalteparin

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

      Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
      Other options are not indicated for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following,...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following, except?

      Your Answer: Hypohydrosis

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly occurs due to excessive action of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) after the growth plate cartilage fuses in adulthood.
      It can be an insidious disease. Symptoms, which may precede diagnosis by several years, can be divided into the following groups:
      1. Symptoms due to local mass effects of an intracranial tumour
      Tumour damage to the pituitary stalk may cause hyperprolactinemia (Increased blood prolactin levels associated with galactorrhoea) due to loss of inhibitory regulation of prolactin secretion by the hypothalamus
      2. Symptoms due to excess of GH/IGF-I including:
      – Hyperhidrosis (Not hypohidrosis)
      – Arthritis
      – Peripheral Neuropathies e.g. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific...

    Correct

    • In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies

      Explanation:

      Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.

      The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of the following features is least associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia?

      Your Answer: Monoclonal IgM paraproteinaemia

      Correct Answer: Bone pain

      Explanation:

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include weight loss and lethargy; monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was referred to the National Chest Hospital because he has had a nine month history of shortness of breath which is getting worse. Tests revealed that he had moderate emphysema. His family history showed that his father died from COPD at the age of 52. Genetic testing found the PiSZ genotype following the diagnosis of alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency. What levels of alpha-1 antitrypsin would be expected if they were to be measured?

      Your Answer: 20% of normal

      Correct Answer: 40% of normal

      Explanation:

      Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency, first described in 1963, is one of the most common inherited disorders amongst white Caucasians. Its primary manifestation is early-onset of pan acinar emphysema. In adults, alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency leads to chronic liver disease in the fifth decade. As a cause of emphysema, it is seen in non-smokers in the fifth decade of life and during the fourth decade of life in smokers.

      Symptoms of alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency emphysema are limited to the respiratory system. Dyspnoea is the symptom that eventually dominates alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. Similar to other forms of emphysema, the dyspnoea of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is initially evident only with strenuous exertion. Over several years, it eventually limits even mild activities.
      The serum levels of some of the common genotypes are:
      •PiMM: 100% (normal)
      •PiMS: 80% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiSS: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiMZ: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT, mild deficiency
      •PiSZ: 40% of normal serum level of A1AT, moderate deficiency
      •PiZZ: 10–15% (severe alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25 yr. old female presented with a history of sudden collapse. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 yr. old female presented with a history of sudden collapse. She had been playing netball and had suddenly collapsed. This collapse had been accompanied by a brief period of loss of consciousness. She experienced palpitations for a brief period prior to losing consciousness. On examination her BP was 120/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm, which was regular. The rest of the examination was also normal. She had similar experience of collapse, about two years ago. She was well except for these two incidents and she has not been on any medication. All the investigations done at the first presentation (2 years ago), including FBC, ECG and echocardiography were normal. Her ECG done at this presentation revealed QT prolongation of 0.50 s. FBC, CXR and other investigations were normal. Which of the following is the best way of managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Electrophysiological studies

      Correct Answer: Start on a beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are drugs of choice for patients with LQTS. The protective effect of beta-blockers is related to their adrenergic blockade, which diminishes the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. They may also reduce the QT interval in some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old male patient is found to have an elevated serum paraprotein level...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male patient is found to have an elevated serum paraprotein level of 35g/L. Bone marrow aspirate reveals 32% monoclonal plasma cell infiltrate. He has no evidence of anaemia, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, or lytic lesions. What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Observe and monitor

      Explanation:

      The patient is asymptomatic but matches the diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma (MM). Therefore, the underlying diagnosis of this condition is smouldering multiple myeloma (SMM). SMM is an early precursor to MM. Its treatment is typically to watch and wait.

      MM is a neoplasm of the bone marrow plasma cells. Peak incidence is in patients aged 60–70 years.

      Clinical features of MM include:
      1. Ostealgia, osteoporosis, pathological fractures (typically vertebral), and osteolytic lesions
      2. Lethargy
      3. Infections
      4. Hypercalcaemia
      5. Renal failure
      6. Other features: amyloidosis e.g. macroglossia, carpal tunnel syndrome; neuropathy; hyperviscosity

      Diagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which have all gotten worse over the past months. She does not complain of a cough but remembered that she had coughed once and produced a twig-shaped mucoid sputum mass. She has no haemoptysis. She has no past medical history and is on no medications.   Her chest X-ray reveals bilateral, perihilar, dense airspace shadowing. A HRCT of her thorax showed a ‘crazy paving’ pattern of extensive, dense, white infiltrates. Her spirometry was a restrictive pattern with reduced total lung capacity. She also had a bronchoscopy and lavage, which revealed periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)-positive proteinaceous fluid and elevated levels of surfactant proteins A and D.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP) is a lung condition that is caused by a build-up of proteins and other substances in the alveoli. The alveoli are the part of the lungs that contain air. PAP has the following symptoms:
      Shortness of breath, also called dyspnoea
      Chest pain or tightness
      Fever
      Weight loss
      Cough (sometimes, but not always)
      Low levels of oxygen in the blood
      Nail clubbing (abnormal growth of toenails or fingernails)

      Serologic studies are generally not useful for PAP. Flexible bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) remains the criterion standard. Elevated levels of the proteins SP-A and SP-D in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Elevated titer of neutralizing autoantibody against GM-CSF (immunoglobulin G [IgG] isotype) in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Recent studies have proposed that deficiency of GM-CSF causes pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP); all patients studied had the antibody to GM-CSF. Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level is usually elevated, but this finding is nonspecific.

      High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) scan of the chest demonstrates areas of patchy ground-glass opacification with smooth interlobular septal thickening and intralobular interstitial thickening, which produces a polygonal pattern referred to as crazy paving.

      Light microscopy of the lung parenchymal tissue shows alveoli filled with a granular PAS base-reactive and diastase-resistant eosinophilic material.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting?

      Your Answer: Minoxidil

      Correct Answer: Moxonidine

      Explanation:

      Moxonidine and alpha-methyl dopa are centrally acting antihypertensives and modify blood pressure through modifying sympathetic activity.

      Other options:
      Verapamil is a calcium antagonist.
      Minoxidil and hydralazine are both vasodilators.
      Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-blocker.

      Adverse effects:
      Dry mouth and somnolence were the most frequently reported adverse events, followed by headache, dizziness, nausea and allergic skin reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic...

    Correct

    • A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic renal failure and is unfortunately suffering from metabolic bone disease. His GP has asked for an explanation of the causes and features of metabolic bone disease. Which of the following best describes the biochemical changes involved?

      Your Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased

      Explanation:

      The patient’s chronic renal failure causes decreased renal hydroxylation of vitamin D which leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Simultaneously, there is also decreased renal excretion of phosphate, and this combination of factors results in increased PTH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is not a risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma?

      Your Answer: Afro-Caribbean ethnicity

      Correct Answer: Hypermetropia

      Explanation:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is associated with hypermetropia, whereas primary open-angle glaucoma is associated with myopia. Glaucoma is a group of eye disorders characterised by optic neuropathy due, in the majority of patients, to raised intraocular pressure (IOP). It is now recognised that a minority of patients with raised IOP do not have glaucoma and vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3 month history of pain and stiffness in the joints of his hands and feet. He also complains of dyspnoea occurring for the past 6 weeks. On examination there is a right pleural effusion and swollen hand joints. The clinician makes a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is most characteristic of a rheumatoid pleural effusion?

      Your Answer: It has a low glucose level

      Explanation:

      The typical “rheumatoid effusion” is a sterile exudative fluid with low pH (<7.3), low glucose (<60 mg. dL−1) and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (may be >700 IU). It should initially be treated with NSAIDs. Decortication should be reserved in patients with thickened pleura who have symptomatic dyspnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old lady, known with a history of Type 1 diabetes presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old lady, known with a history of Type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with increasing tiredness, mild upper abdominal discomfort and itching. The GP has arranged some investigations prior to her clinic visit. Investigations; Hb 13.2 g/dL, WCC 5.0 x109/L, PLT 240 x109/L, Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 μmol/L, HbA1c 8.3%, Anti-Smooth muscle antibody: positive, Immunoglobulins increased. Which of the following would be the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function testing

      Correct Answer: Liver function testing

      Explanation:

      The key to this question is anti-smooth muscle antibodies. This is a finding of autoimmune hepatitis, which can be seen in type I diabetics. This also fits with her clinical picture. If you know these two facts, you should get every question correct regarding autoimmune hepatitis. Liver function testing is the best answer, then and should be elevated to indicate inflammation of the liver. Hepatic US, CK, thyroid function testing, short synacthen test are not helpful in the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 36-year-old man is scheduled to start on interferon-alpha and ribavarin for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is scheduled to start on interferon-alpha and ribavarin for the treatment of hepatitis C. His past history includes intravenous drug usage. Which are the most common side effects of interferon-alpha?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea and transient rise in ALT

      Correct Answer: Depression and flu-like symptoms

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects due to IFN-alpha have been described in almost every organ system. Many side-effects are clearly dose-dependent. Taken together, occurrence of flu-like symptoms, haematological toxicity, elevated transaminases, nausea, fatigue, and psychiatric sequelae are the most frequently encountered side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride. The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?

      Your Answer: Testosterone

      Correct Answer: Dihydrotestosterone

      Explanation:

      Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.
      Finasteride is a 5α-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

      DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly.

      Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has a history of Graves disease. On examination, his blood pressure is 103/58 mmHg, pulse 64/min and temperature 36.3ºC. The following results are obtained: Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.4 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 42 umol/L, TSH 3.5 mu/l, Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L. You arrange for a random cortisol test, however, whilst awaiting the result he becomes unresponsive. In addition to giving intravenous steroids and fluid, what test is urgent to check first given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Addison’s disease as he has a history of autoimmune disease, hyperkalaemia and hypotension.
      It is important to keep an Addisonian crisis on the differential in cases of shock, especially since adrenal crisis can be the patient’s first presentation of adrenal insufficiency.
      Patients with Addison’s disease are prone to developing hypoglycaemia due to loss of the glucogenic effect of glucocorticoids. Given the sudden deterioration, a glucose level must be checked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 72 yr. old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad...

    Correct

    • A 72 yr. old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following features is more suggestive that this has resulted because of a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) rather than a ventricular tachycardia (VT)?

      Your Answer: Absence of QRS concordance in chest leads on ECG

      Explanation:

      To differentiate ventricular tachycardia (VT) from supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

      Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
      QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
      QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
      AV dissociation for VT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old man who is admitted with bright red haematemesis, which occurred after...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man who is admitted with bright red haematemesis, which occurred after a bout of vomiting. He had been out with friends on a stag party and consumed 12 pints of beer. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy proves unremarkable and haemoglobin (Hb) is stable at 12.5 g/dl the morning after admission, there is no sign of circulatory compromise. There have been no previous similar episodes. Which of the following stems represents the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Send home

      Explanation:

      This is a classic clinical presentation, with alcohol intake and nausea/vomiting that leads to hematemesis, of a Mallory-Weiss tear. In Mallory-Weiss tear, they typically present as a hemodynamically stable patient after a night of binge drinking and excessive resultant vomiting. Given his EGD did not show any other pathology and he is now stable, he can be discharged home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia presents with fever and worsening of recurrent back pain. There is no history of weight loss or night sweats. The investigations done on her arrival show: Hb: 7.8 g/dL, WCC: 10.1 x10^9/L, Plts: 475 x10^9/L, Reticulocytes: 12%, Serum total bilirubin: 88 μmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic crisis

      Correct Answer: Vaso-occlusive event

      Explanation:

      This patient is having vaso-occlusive event/crisis (thrombotic crisis) which is a type of sickle cell crisis. It may be associated with ostealgia.

      There is no evidence of an aplastic crisis in this case as the haemoglobin level is reasonable with a good reticulocyte count. Conversely, the haemoglobin is not low enough and reticulocyte count and bilirubin are not high enough for a haemolytic crisis.

      Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises. The four main types of sickle cell crises are thrombotic crisis (painful or vaso-occlusive crisis), sequestration crisis, aplastic crisis, and haemolytic crisis.

      Thrombotic crisis is precipitated by infection, dehydration, alcohol, change in temperature, and deoxygenation. Sequestration crisis is characterised by acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates). Aplastic crisis is characterised by a sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis. It usually occurs secondary to parvovirus infection. In haemolytic crisis, a fall in haemoglobin occurs secondary to haemolysis. It is a rare type of sickle cell crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old Muslim man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old Muslim man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for advice. He is about to start fasting for Ramadan and he is not sure how to modify the administration of his diabetes medications. He is currently on metformin 500mg tds. What is the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal

      Explanation:

      Biguanides (Metformin):
      People who take metformin alone should be able to fast safely given that the possibility of hypoglycaemia is minimal. However, patients should modify its dose and administration timing to provide two-thirds of the total daily dose, which should be taken immediately with the sunset meal, while the other third is taken before the predawn meal.

      Thiazolidinediones: No change needed.

      Sulfonylurea:
      Once-daily sulfonylurea (such as glimepiride or gliclazide MR): the total daily dose should be taken with the sunset meal.
      Shorter-acting sulfonylurea (such as gliclazide twice daily): the same daily dose remains unchanged, and one dose should be taken at the sunset meal and the other at the predawn meal.
      Long-acting sulfonylurea (such as glibenclamide): these agents should be avoided.

      It is important that diabetic patients to eat a healthy balanced diet and choose foods with a low glycaemic index (such as complex carbohydrates), which can help to maintain blood glucose levels during fasting. Moreover, it is crucial to consume adequate fluids to prevent dehydration. Physical activity is encouraged, especially during non-fasting periods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Lesions disappearing within a month

      Correct Answer: Absence of erythema surrounding lesions

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum (MC), is a viral infection of the skin that results in small, raised, pink lesions with a dimple in the center with little to no surrounding erythema. They may occasionally be itchy or sore. They may occur singularly or in groups. Any area of the skin may be affected, with abdomen, legs, arms, neck, genital area, and face being most common. Onset of the lesions is around 7 weeks after infection. It usually goes away within a year without scarring.
      Chickenpox lesions in the early stages may be mistaken for molluscum. However, the presence of associated macules and later vesicles and pustules help to differentiate them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (5/5) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/4) 0%
Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/3) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (4/6) 67%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
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