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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes in with a painful throat and a dry cough that has been bothering her for two days. During the examination, she does not have a fever and has a few tender lymph nodes in the front of her neck. Her throat and tonsils look red and inflamed, but there is no pus on her tonsils.
What is her FeverPAIN score?Your Answer: 1
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system that is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, different recommendations are given regarding the use of antibiotics.
If the score is 0-1, it is unlikely to be a streptococcal infection, with only a 13-18% chance of streptococcus isolation. Therefore, antibiotics are not recommended in this case. If the score is 2-3, there is a higher chance (34-40%) of streptococcus isolation, so delayed prescribing of antibiotics is considered, with a 3-day ‘back-up prescription’. If the score is 4 or higher, there is a 62-65% chance of streptococcus isolation, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended if the infection is severe. Otherwise, a 48-hour short back-up prescription is suggested.
The Fever PAIN score was developed from a study that included 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was then tested in a trial that compared three different prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, and combining the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in antibiotic prescribing, both by one third. However, the addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.
Overall, the FeverPAIN score is a useful tool for assessing acute sore throats and guiding antibiotic prescribing decisions. It has been shown to be effective in reducing unnecessary antibiotic use and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28 year old female comes to the emergency department complaining of a sore throat that has been bothering her for the past 4 days. She denies having any cough or runny nose. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 37.7°C, blood pressure at 120/68 mmHg, and pulse rate at 88 bpm. Erythema is observed in the oropharynx and tonsils. The neck is nontender and no palpable masses are found.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Discharge with delayed antibiotic prescription
Correct Answer: Discharge with self care advice
Explanation:Patients who have a CENTOR score of 0, 1, or 2 should be given advice on self-care and safety measures. In this case, the patient has a CENTOR score of 1/4 and a FeverPAIN score of 1, indicating that antibiotics are not necessary. The patient should be advised to drink enough fluids, use over-the-counter pain relievers like ibuprofen or paracetamol, try salt water gargling or medicated lozenges, and avoid hot drinks as they can worsen the pain. It is important to inform the patient that if they experience difficulty swallowing, develop a fever above 38ºC, or if their symptoms do not improve after 3 days, they should seek reassessment.
Further Reading:
Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.
Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.
When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.
Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.
To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 38-year-old woman who was hit on the side of her leg by a soccer player while spectating the match from the sidelines. You suspect a tibial plateau fracture and order an X-ray of the affected knee. Besides the fracture line, what other radiographic indication is frequently observed in individuals with acute tibial plateau fractures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipohaemathrosis evident in suprapatellar pouch
Explanation:Lipohaemathrosis is commonly seen in the suprapatellar pouch in individuals who have tibial plateau fractures. Notable X-ray characteristics of tibial plateau fractures include a visible fracture of the tibial plateau and the presence of lipohaemathrosis in the suprapatellar pouch.
Further Reading:
Tibial plateau fractures are a type of traumatic lower limb and joint injury that can involve the medial or lateral tibial plateau, or both. These fractures are classified using the Schatzker classification, with higher grades indicating a worse prognosis. X-ray imaging can show visible fractures of the tibial plateau and the presence of lipohaemathrosis in the suprapatellar pouch. However, X-rays often underestimate the severity of these fractures, so CT scans are typically used for a more accurate assessment.
Tibial spine fractures, on the other hand, are separate from tibial plateau fractures. They occur when the tibial spine is avulsed by the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). This can happen due to forced knee hyperextension or a direct blow to the femur when the knee is flexed. These fractures are most common in children aged 8-14.
Tibial tuberosity avulsion fractures primarily affect adolescent boys and are often caused by jumping or landing from a jump. These fractures can be associated with Osgood-Schlatter disease. The treatment for these fractures depends on their grading. Low-grade fractures may be managed with immobilization for 4-6 weeks, while more significant avulsions are best treated with surgical fixation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 62-year-old woman in the Emergency Room with intense central chest discomfort. She is extremely worried as she experienced a heart attack (MI) 8 weeks ago. Today the pain is sharp and is alleviated by leaning forward. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 37.9°C and she has pitting edema in both ankles. The ECG shows Q waves in the anterolateral leads.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dressler’s syndrome
Explanation:Dressler’s syndrome is a form of pericarditis that occurs within 2 to 10 weeks following a heart attack or cardiac surgery. It is distinguished by intense chest pain that is usually alleviated by assuming an upright position. Additionally, individuals may experience a mild fever, a pericardial rub, pulsus paradoxus, and indications of right ventricular failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman returns from a recent vacation on a cruise ship with a persistent cough and a high temperature. Today she has also experienced frequent episodes of diarrhea and has developed sharp chest pain on both sides. She reports feeling short of breath, especially when she exerts herself. The cruise ship doctor had prescribed her amoxicillin a few days ago, but she has not seen any improvement.
Her blood test results today are as follows:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 14.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
White blood cell count (WCC): 13.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
Neutrophils: 10.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
Lymphocytes: 0.6 x 109/l (normal range: 1.3-3.5 x 109/l)
Eosinophils: 0.35 x 109/l (normal range: 0.04-0.44 x 109/l)
C-reactive protein (CRP): 87 mg/l (normal range: <5 mg/l)
Sodium (Na): 122 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
Potassium (K): 4.4 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Creat): 112 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:Legionella pneumophila is a type of Gram-negative bacterium that can be found in natural water supplies and soil. It is responsible for causing Legionnaires’ disease, a serious illness. Outbreaks of this disease have been associated with poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas, and hot tubs. In the past, there have been instances of Legionnaires’ disease outbreaks on cruise ships due to inadequate maintenance of air conditioning and shower units.
The pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease presents with certain clinical features. Initially, there may be a mild flu-like prodrome lasting for 1-3 days. A persistent cough, which is usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90% of cases, is also common. Other symptoms include pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and anorexia. Additionally, some individuals may experience a condition called syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), which can lead to hyponatraemia.
It is important to note that infections caused by Legionella pneumophila are resistant to amoxicillin. However, they can be effectively treated with macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin or quinolones such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, including doxycycline, can also be used for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with severe otalgia in her right ear that has been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. She describes the pain as ‘constant’, and she has been unable to sleep for several nights. Her family have noticed that the right side of her face appears to be ‘drooping’. Her past medical history includes poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed with otitis externa by a colleague a few weeks earlier, but the pain has failed to settle despite two separate courses of antibiotic drops. On examination, she has a right-sided lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy. Her right ear canal is very swollen and purulent exudate is visible. You are unable to clearly view her tympanic membrane. A swab of the ear taken last week has cultured Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant otitis externa
Explanation:Malignant otitis externa (MOE), also known as necrotising otitis externa, is a rare type of ear infection that primarily affects older individuals with diabetes, particularly if their diabetes is poorly managed.
MOE initially starts as an infection in the ear canal and gradually spreads to the surrounding bone and soft tissues. In about 98% of cases, the responsible pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Typically, MOE presents with intense ear pain and persistent inflammation of the ear canal that does not respond well to topical antibiotics. The pain is often described as constant and tends to worsen at night. Even after the swelling of the ear canal subsides with the use of topical antibiotics, the pain may persist. Other symptoms that may be present include pus drainage from the ear and temporal headaches. Approximately 50% of patients also experience facial nerve paralysis, and cranial nerves IX to XII may also be affected.
If left untreated, MOE can be life-threatening, and serious complications may arise, such as skull base osteomyelitis, subdural empyema, and cerebral abscess.
To diagnose MOE, technetium scanning and contrast-enhanced CT scanning are typically performed. Treatment usually involves long-term administration of intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old individual comes in with symptoms of nausea, confusion, and decreased urine output. After conducting renal function tests and other examinations, the doctor determines that the patient has acute kidney injury (AKI).
What findings align with a diagnosis of AKI?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A fall in urine output to less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function that leads to the accumulation of waste products and disturbances in fluid and electrolyte balance. This can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease (acute-on-chronic kidney disease). AKI is relatively common, affecting approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK.
The clinical presentation of AKI varies depending on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition. Typically, patients experience reduced urine output (oliguria or anuria) along with an increase in serum creatinine levels. AKI is diagnosed when at least one of the following criteria is met: a rise in serum creatinine of 26 μmol/L or more within 48 hours, a 50% or greater increase in serum creatinine (1.5 times the baseline) within the previous seven days, or a decrease in urine output to less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than six hours.
Common symptoms of AKI include reduced urine output, which is usually oliguria or anuria. However, polyuria can also occur due to impaired fluid reabsorption by damaged renal tubules or the osmotic effect of accumulated metabolites. Abrupt anuria may indicate an acute obstruction, severe glomerulonephritis, or renal artery occlusion, while a gradual decrease in urine output may suggest a urethral stricture or bladder outlet obstruction, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, dehydration, and confusion.
Signs of AKI can include hypertension, a palpable bladder if urinary retention is present, dehydration with postural hypotension and no swelling, or fluid overload with elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), pulmonary edema, and peripheral edema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a known history of asthma presents with a headache, nausea, and abdominal pain. Her heart rate is elevated at 117 bpm. She currently takes a salbutamol inhaler and theophylline for her asthma. She had visited the Emergency Department a few days earlier and was prescribed an antibiotic.
Which antibiotic was most likely prescribed to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.
Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.
Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.
Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.
There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.
The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.
Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. He is started on regular maintenance treatment with potent opioids for his pain.
According to NICE, what is the recommended initial rescue medication for breakthrough pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral immediate-release morphine
Explanation:When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.
For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.
When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.
In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.
For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You examine a 60-year-old woman with known presbycusis affecting both ears equally.
Which SINGLE combination of examination findings would you anticipate discovering?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central Weber’s test and bilaterally diminished Rinne’s tests
Explanation:presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs gradually as a person ages. It affects both ears and is characterized by a decrease in hearing ability, particularly at higher frequencies. This type of hearing loss worsens over time. When a person has bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, a central Weber’s test and bilaterally diminished Rinne’s tests would be expected.
To perform a Rinne’s test, a 512 Hertz tuning fork is vibrated and placed on the mastoid process until the sound can no longer be heard. Then, the top of the tuning fork is placed 2 centimeters from the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to indicate where they hear the sound loudest.
In individuals with normal hearing, the tuning fork should still be audible outside the external auditory canal even after it can no longer be heard on the mastoid. This is because air conduction should be better than bone conduction.
In cases of conductive hearing loss, the patient will no longer be able to hear the tuning fork immediately after it can no longer be heard on the mastoid. This indicates that their bone conduction is better than their air conduction, and something is obstructing the passage of sound waves through the ear canal into the cochlea. This is considered a true negative result.
However, a Rinne’s test may produce a false negative result if the patient has a severe unilateral sensorineural deficit and can sense the sound in the unaffected ear through the transmission of sound waves through the base of the skull.
In sensorineural hearing loss, the ability to perceive the tuning fork both on the mastoid and outside the external auditory canal is equally diminished compared to the opposite ear. The sound will still be heard outside the external auditory canal, but it will disappear earlier on the mastoid process and outside the external auditory canal compared to the other ear.
To perform Weber’s test, a 512 Hz tuning fork is vibrated and placed on the center of the patient’s forehead. The patient is then asked if they perceive the sound in the middle of the forehead or if it seems to be more on one side or the other.
If the sound seems to be more on one side, it can indicate either ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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