-
Question 1
Correct
-
A mother brings her 10-week-old child in for review. Since birth, the child's left eye has been watering. The symptoms have worsened over the past few days after the child contracted a mild viral illness. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities were found. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Teach nasolacrimal duct massage
Explanation:Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that causes persistent watery eyes in infants. It occurs when there is an imperforate membrane, usually at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. This condition affects around 1 in 10 infants, with symptoms typically appearing at around one month of age.
Fortunately, nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be managed with simple techniques. Parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct, which can help to alleviate symptoms. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve on their own by the time the child reaches one year of age.
However, in cases where symptoms persist beyond this point, it may be necessary to seek further medical intervention. In such cases, it is recommended to refer the child to an ophthalmologist for consideration of probing. This procedure is typically done under a light general anaesthetic and can help to resolve any remaining issues with the nasolacrimal duct.
Overall, while nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be concerning for parents, it is a manageable condition that typically resolves on its own. By understanding the causes and treatment options for this condition, parents can help to ensure their child’s eyes stay healthy and comfortable.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
You are asked to visit a nursing home where a 90-year-old man has diarrhoea and vomiting. When you see the patient, he has symptoms suggestive of norovirus infection.
Select the single most appropriate management option in this situation.Your Answer: Admit to the local district general hospital
Correct Answer: Barrier-nurse in isolation within the residential home
Explanation:Understanding Norovirus: Symptoms, Transmission, and Control Measures
Norovirus is a highly contagious virus that causes diarrhoea and vomiting. It spreads rapidly through person-to-person contact, aerosol, and contact with infected vomit or stool. The symptoms typically include diarrhoea and vomiting with fever and abdominal cramps, and the illness usually lasts for 12-60 hours.
Outbreaks of norovirus are common in restricted environments such as hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. To prevent the spread of the virus, patients should be barrier-nursed and treated with fluid replacement and symptomatic treatment. It is important to note that these patients should not be admitted to hospitals unless absolutely necessary due to the highly infectious nature of the disease.
Key control measures for norovirus include frequent cleaning, environmental disinfection, and prompt clearance of soiling caused by vomit or faeces. Hygiene and hand-washing are also crucial in preventing the spread of the virus. Anyone who is infected should not prepare food for others until at least 3 days after symptoms have gone.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, transmission, and control measures of norovirus is crucial in preventing outbreaks and protecting public health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 49-year-old patient comes in with a severely tender and swollen big toe on their left foot. The area is very sensitive to touch and moving the toe causes pain. The patient reports no fever and is able to move their toe in all directions despite the discomfort. They have a history of chronic kidney disease and are currently taking ramipril for hypertension. Additionally, they have had a past duodenal ulcer. What is the initial medication recommended for treatment?
Your Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Gout causes joint swelling, redness, and tenderness, which can be very painful. However, indomethacin and prednisolone should be avoided due to the individual’s history of duodenal ulcer. Naproxen can also worsen kidney function and exacerbate ulcer disease. While tramadol is an analgesic, it is not targeted specifically for joint disease. Colchicine is a suitable medication for treating gout in individuals with the mentioned co-morbidities.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 60-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty concentrating on tasks and remembering recent events. Clinical examination and laboratory tests are normal. Mental status examination shows emotional lability, difficulty in naming common objects and a recall of only one out of three objects after 5 minutes.
What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia
Explanation:Understanding the Most Common Causes of Dementia in Older Adults
The symptoms presented by the patient are highly indicative of Alzheimer’s dementia, which is the most prevalent cause of dementia in their age group. This type of dementia is characterized by a gradual onset of memory impairment and the absence of any focal neurological disease. On the other hand, alcohol-related dementia is less likely as there is no history of excessive alcohol intake. Cerebrovascular disease is also an uncommon cause of dementia, and it often has a more sudden onset with evidence of focal neurological or vascular disease. If the deterioration is gradual, it tends to progress in a stepwise manner. Depression may cause difficulty in concentration, but it doesn’t impair short-term memory. It is important to note that aging alone doesn’t cause cognitive function problems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression?
Your Answer: Persistent sadness or low mood most of the time
Correct Answer: Fatigue or loss of energy
Explanation:Core Symptoms of Depression
Depression is a mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the defining characteristics of depression is the presence of core symptoms that are present for more than two weeks. These core symptoms include persistent feelings of sadness or hopelessness, as well as a marked loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable.
It’s important to note that while there are other symptoms of depression, such as changes in appetite or sleep patterns, these are classified as other symptoms and are not considered core symptoms. This means that someone may experience these symptoms without necessarily meeting the criteria for a diagnosis of depression.
If you or someone you know is experiencing persistent feelings of sadness or loss of interest in activities, it’s important to seek help from a mental health professional. Depression is a treatable condition, and with the right support, individuals can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
influenza is a viral respiratory illness that can cause mild to severe symptoms and can lead to complications such as pneumonia.
Your Answer: Vaccine must be repeated yearly because the immune response is short-lived
Correct Answer: Aerosol transmission can occur before the onset of symptoms
Explanation:Understanding influenza: From Epidemics to Pandemics
influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a highly contagious respiratory illness caused by influenza viruses. The incubation period of influenza is typically two days, but can range from one to four days. Aerosol transmission may occur one day before the onset of symptoms, making it easy for the virus to spread.
Up to 15% of the population can develop influenza in any given year, with an average of 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week. An epidemic is declared when the GP consultation rate for new cases of influenza or flu-like illness exceeds 400 per 100,000 population per week.
Clinicians usually diagnose influenza based on clinical criteria alone when the virus is circulating in the community. Investigations are typically reserved for community surveillance purposes.
The influenza virus undergoes minor mutations to one or both of its surface antigens, known as antigenic drift. This causes seasonal epidemics, where people have only partial immunity from previous infection or vaccination. As a result, the vaccine requires annual changes.
An influenza pandemic is an epidemic of an influenza virus that spreads on a worldwide scale and infects a large proportion of the human population. This occurs due to the emergence of influenza A virus that is genetically significantly different from the circulating human influenza A viruses, known as antigenic shift. These pandemics occur irregularly, with the 1918 Spanish flu being the most serious pandemic in history with a high mortality.
Understanding the nature of influenza, from its epidemics to pandemics, is crucial in developing effective prevention and control strategies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
You have been caring for a 50-year-old man with chronic lower back pain for a while now. As you review his medications, you notice that he has been taking regular paracetamol, PRN NSAIDs, and oral morphine. He is currently taking a total of 120mg of morphine within 24 hours, but he is uncertain if it has ever been effective and requests an increase in dosage. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing his pain?
Your Answer: Switch to a transdermal patch
Correct Answer: Switch to a different opioid
Explanation:Maximum Oral Morphine Use and Tapering Off
The Faculty of Pain Management has established a maximum threshold for oral morphine use to prevent harm without additional benefits. The maximum dose should not exceed 120mg/day of oral morphine equivalent. In cases where patients report no benefit from the medication, it is sensible to taper them off completely. This approach is unlikely to lead to increased pain and can free the patient from opioid-related side effects. Switching to a different opioid or route of administration is also unlikely to be beneficial if the patient has reported no benefit from the current dose. Immediate-release preparations can provide flexibility in dosing, and patients can be encouraged to avoid taking opioids whenever possible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old boy struggles with temper tantrums, shyness and communication delay. His mother is concerned he may have autism.
What is the SINGLE ‘red flag’ feature that would make you most concerned that this boy might have an autistic spectrum disorder?Your Answer: Evidence of defiant behaviour opposing parental authority
Correct Answer: Lack of response to his name
Explanation:Recognizing Early Signs of Autism in Children
Autistic spectrum disorders are often diagnosed after the age of three years, but parents may have concerns about their child’s development by 18 months. While a specialist diagnosis is required, general practitioners should be aware of warning signs. These include lack of social interactions, impaired communication, repetitive behavior, restricted interests, and difficulty regulating emotions. However, some behaviors that may seem concerning are actually normal parts of child development, such as copying gestures and exhibiting defiant behavior. It is important to note that language delay is a feature of autism, but only linking two words together in speech is a normal milestone that usually occurs between 20 and 24 months. When observing a child, it is crucial to look for a combination of these signs and seek professional evaluation if there are concerns.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting fluoxetine treatment for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior history of taking antidepressants and has no other medical conditions. During the assessment, she denies any suicidal thoughts and has good support from her partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She reports no adverse effects from fluoxetine but has heard positive feedback about St John's Wort from a friend. What would be the most appropriate action to take for this patient?
Your Answer: Increase the dose of Fluoxetine and arrange weekly telephone contact to increase support
Correct Answer: Change to a tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs
When a patient has been taking a Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.
There are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, it is important to note that switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics requires great caution as it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.
Although there is some evidence of the benefit of St John’s Wort, it is not recommended that doctors prescribe or advocate its use due to the lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and antiepileptics.
For moderate depression, Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication. It is important to monitor the patient’s response to treatment and adjust accordingly to ensure the best possible outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a 45-year-old man with pancreatic cancer who is receiving palliative care. He presents with jaundice and liver function tests indicate an obstructive pattern. Despite the use of basic emollients, he is experiencing pruritus that is causing discomfort. What would be the most effective approach to managing his symptoms?
Your Answer: Cholestyramine
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Palliative Care and Pruritus Treatment
Pruritus is a common problem in palliative care, often caused by medication such as morphine. However, in cases of obstructive jaundice, simple approaches like topical emollients may not be enough. Cholestyramine is the preferred drug for pruritus palliation, given at a daily dose of 4-8 g. This anion-exchange resin forms an insoluble complex with bile acids, the cause of pruritus, in the intestine. To avoid any interaction and inhibition of absorption, other drugs should be taken at least one hour before or four to six hours after cholestyramine use. In summary, pruritus in palliative care can be effectively managed with cholestyramine, providing relief for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of a progressively painful left eye. She reports redness in the eye and increased sensitivity to light, with pain rated at 10/10. She typically wears glasses for reading and doesn't use contact lenses. The affected eye's vision is slightly blurred. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, which is managed with methotrexate. On examination, the left eye is red, the cornea is clear, and the pupil is reactive. Eye movements cause pain. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. Using a pinhole, visual acuity is 6/6 in the right eye and 6/12 in the left eye.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Scleritis is a serious condition that can be caused by systemic inflammatory diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. Patients typically experience intense eye pain that worsens with eye movement, as well as sensitivity to light, tearing, and decreased vision. The eye may be tender to the touch. If scleritis is suspected, it is important to seek immediate referral to an ophthalmologist as it can lead to vision loss. Treatment involves the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and immunosuppressants. Episcleritis, on the other hand, is less painful and causes more localized redness. A simple test involving the use of phenylephrine eye drops can help distinguish between the two conditions. Conjunctivitis and subconjunctival hemorrhage do not typically cause vision loss, while optic neuritis can cause pain with eye movement and decreased vision, but not a red eye.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 9-month-old girl is presented to the surgical department after experiencing a seizure. She appears lethargic, has a fever, and her capillary refill time is 3 seconds. The medical team suspects meningococcal septicaemia. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 900mg
Correct Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 300 mg
Explanation:The RCGP has previously provided feedback that doctors are required to have knowledge of emergency medication dosages, with a specific emphasis on suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia.
Paediatric Drug Doses for Emergency Situations
When it comes to prescribing drugs for children in emergency situations, it is important to consult the current British National Formulary (BNF) and be familiar with the appropriate dosages. For instance, in cases of suspected meningococcal septicaemia in the community, IM benzylpenicillin is often prescribed. The following dosages are recommended based on the child’s age: 300 mg for those under 1 year old, 600 mg for those between 1 and 10 years old, and 1200 mg for those over 10 years old. It is important to note that these dosages are just a guide and should be adjusted based on the child’s individual needs and medical history.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old lady presented 48hrs ago with a tender swelling in her left breast. She was prescribed flucloxacillin but her symptoms have failed to settle. She had been Breastfeeding her baby for three weeks and was well until four days prior to being seen when she noted a painful swelling developing.
On examination there was a tender, erythematous, warm area in the left breast. She has been fully compliant with her medication and an alternative diagnosis appears unlikely on clinical grounds.
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Continue with flucloxacillin for a further 5 days before re-assessing
Correct Answer: Breast milk should be cultured
Explanation:Treatment for Lactational Mastitis
Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. If symptoms fail to improve after 48 hours of first-line antibiotic treatment, it is important to check that the woman has taken the antibiotic correctly and consider the possibility of an alternative diagnosis such as breast cancer or a breast abscess. If an abscess is suspected, it is important to note that malaise and fever may have subsided if antibiotics have been started.
If an alternative diagnosis is unlikely, a sample of breast milk should be sent for microscopy, culture, and antibiotic sensitivity. A second-line antibiotic, co-amoxiclav 500/125 mg three times a day, should be prescribed for 10-14 days, with a review of this choice when breast milk culture results become available. It is important to seek specialist advice if the woman is allergic to penicillin.
Breastfeeding should continue from both breasts if possible, with the affected breast being expressed if feeding is too uncomfortable. In the absence of culture and sensitivity results, flucloxacillin is the usual first choice, with erythromycin for those who are penicillin allergic. Recurrences are best treated with co-amoxiclav. It is worth noting that some cases progress to an obvious abscess, which should be drained.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 10-week-old child is about to receive vaccination with pertussis. You are assessing his suitability for vaccination.
In which of the following situations should the vaccine be postponed?Your Answer: He had febrile convulsions at the age of six weeks
Correct Answer: He is currently suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection and fever
Explanation:Understanding Contraindications and Postponements for Vaccines
This question requires careful reading of the introduction to determine the appropriate answer. The focus is on situations where the vaccine may need to be postponed rather than being completely contraindicated. While a history of fever is not a contraindication, if the patient is acutely unwell with a fever, it would be appropriate to delay the vaccine to avoid confusing the diagnosis of any acute illness. Allergy to egg protein, forceps delivery, and family history of epilepsy are not contraindications, while convulsions within seven days of the first vaccine are. This question tests your understanding and practical application of the guidance rather than memorization. Remember to read carefully and consider the specific circumstances before administering any vaccine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man mentions that he has a family history of glaucoma. Which from the list is most likely to give evidence of primary open-angle glaucoma?
Your Answer: Cover test
Correct Answer: Visual field testing
Explanation:Visual Field Testing for Glaucoma
Primary open-angle (chronic) glaucoma is a condition that often goes undetected, with up to 50% of cases remaining unnoticed. By the time symptoms arise, up to 90% of optic nerve fibers may have already been irreversibly damaged. However, routine optician checks can help identify abnormal discs, raised intraocular pressure, or reduced visual fields, which are all potential indicators of glaucoma.
Visual field testing is a crucial tool in detecting glaucoma. Perimetry machines objectively document what a patient perceives in their peripheral vision. This is more reliable than simple field testing, such as moving wiggling fingers or the end of a hatpin across each quadrant towards the center of the eye.
Other tests, such as examination of pupillary responses, cover tests, and palpation of the eyes for hardness, are not reliable indicators of glaucoma. Visual acuity testing is also not a reliable indicator, as visual field loss from glaucoma typically spares fixation and visual acuity is preserved until the condition is advanced.
In conclusion, visual field testing is a crucial tool in detecting glaucoma, and routine optician checks can help identify potential indicators of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 32 year old woman who is 15 days postpartum visits your clinic complaining of feeling feverish and hot for the past 3 days. She reports having a painful, swollen, and red right breast. During examination, her temperature is 37.8 degrees, and there is firmness and erythema in the upper quadrant of the right breast. Based on the diagnosis of puerperal mastitis, what is the most appropriate advice to provide her?
Your Answer: Advise her to continue Breastfeeding
Explanation:Mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women, typically occurring six weeks after giving birth. It can be difficult to distinguish between an engorged breast, blocked duct, non-infectious mastitis, and infected mastitis. Milk accumulation in breast tissue can cause an inflammatory response, leading to bacterial growth and resulting in a painful breast with fever, malaise, and a tender, red, swollen, and hard area of the breast.
If symptoms do not improve or worsen after 12-24 hours despite effective milk removal, or if a nipple fissure is infected, infectious mastitis should be suspected. Breast milk culture is not routinely required unless mastitis is severe, there has been no response to antibiotics, or this is recurrent mastitis.
Management of mastitis involves relieving pain with simple analgesia and warm compresses, and ensuring complete emptying of the breast after feeding. Breastfeeding should be continued as it improves milk removal and prevents nipple damage. If pain prevents breastfeeding, expressing breast milk by hand or pump is recommended until breastfeeding can be resumed.
Antibiotics are only recommended if necessary, and the first line antibiotic is flucloxacillin for 14 days (erythromycin if penicillin allergic). Intravenous antibiotics are rarely needed, but urgent referral to breast surgeons for drainage may be necessary if a breast abscess is suspected.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 10 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l).
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a risk of cardiac arrhythmias with treatment
Explanation:Correcting Hypothyroidism with Levothyroxine: Dosage and Risks
One of the main concerns with starting levothyroxine replacement for hypothyroidism is the risk of cardiac arrhythmias or myocardial ischemia, although rare. Therefore, initial low dosing is followed by gradual dose escalation until euthyroid status is achieved. Over-treatment can also lead to osteoporosis. The aim of treatment is to normalise serum TSH and improve thyroid hormone concentrations to the euthyroid state. Levothyroxine alone is the recommended treatment, with an initial dose of 50-100 µg once daily for patients aged 18-49 years, adjusted in steps of 25-50 µg every four weeks according to response. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, and those over 50 years, the recommended initial dose is 25 µg once daily. Symptom relief may take many months after TSH levels have returned to normal, and persisting symptoms warrant further investigations for non-thyroid causes.
Levothyroxine Dosage and Risks in Correcting Hypothyroidism
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man is prescribed a prolonged course of oral prednisolone for a flare-up of ulcerative colitis. What is the most commonly associated side effect of extended use of corticosteroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insomnia
Explanation:Long-term steroid use often leads to psychiatric issues.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
According to NICE guidelines, if a patient with diabetes has a 5 year coronary event risk of >10% but no microalbuminuria, at what threshold level of BP (stage 2 hypertension) should you offer treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 140/80 mmHg
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Management
NICE guidelines for hypertension management were updated in 2019, with a key point to note being the use of the word offer versus discuss. It’s important to pay attention to this difference in wording when answering questions about hypertension management.
Under the updated guidelines, there are no longer separate guidelines for managing hypertension in diabetes. For individuals with stage 1 hypertension (135/85 to 149/94), lifestyle advice should be offered and treatment should be discussed. However, for those with stage 2 hypertension (150/95 or more), treatment should be offered.
By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide effective hypertension management for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of worsening muscle weakness in his upper and lower limbs over the last 10 years. The patient says he had never been interested in sports at school and that his father had problems with his gait for years. On examination, cognition, bulbar function and cranial nerves are all normal. Examination of the limbs shows distal symmetrical wasting and weakness in his arms and legs. There is areflexia. Tone is normal. There are no visible fasciculation. Vibration, pain and temperature are impaired in both hands and feet. There is kyphoscoliosis and bilateral pes cavus.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease
Explanation:Neurological Disorders: A Comparison
When presented with a patient exhibiting neuromuscular symptoms and signs, it is important to consider various possible diagnoses. In this case, the presence of musculoskeletal deformities and a family history of gait difficulties suggest a hereditary basis for the patient’s condition. The following are some potential diagnoses to consider:
Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease (CMT): This is the most common inherited polyneuropathy, affecting approximately 1 in 2500 people. It typically presents with distal limb muscle wasting and sensory loss, with proximal progression over time. However, the disease course can vary greatly.
Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Neurological features of this deficiency may include peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. However, skeletal defects will be absent.
Acquired Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP): This is a chronically progressive or relapsing symmetric sensorimotor disorder that lacks the skeletal deformities of CMT.
Motor Neurone Disease (MND): This tends to present with early signs of weakness in an ankle or leg, or a weak grip. It then progresses, leading to problems with slurred speech or swallowing. However, this patient’s relatively young age and symptoms suggest an inherited neurological problem rather than MND.
Spinal Muscular Atrophy: This is a spectrum of genetically inherited disorders that present with muscle weakness and wasting. It lacks the sensory loss of CMT.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of an enlarged left testicle. The male GP takes a detailed history and requests to examine the genital area, offering a chaperone. The patient agrees, and a female nurse practitioner acts as a chaperone. The GP conducts the examination, speaking only when necessary. Following the examination, he documents the chaperone's acceptance, last name, and role.
Has anything been done incorrectly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recording of only the last name and role
Explanation:It is important to document the full name and role of a chaperone when they are used during an intimate or intrusive examination. The chaperone should be impartial and not related to the patient. Patients are allowed to express a preference for the gender of the chaperone. During the examination, it is recommended that the GP only speaks if necessary.
GMC Guidelines on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones
The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided comprehensive guidance on how to conduct intimate examinations and the role of chaperones in the process. Intimate examinations refer to any procedure that a patient may consider intrusive or intimate, such as examinations of the genitalia, rectum, and breasts. Before performing such an examination, doctors must obtain informed consent from the patient, explaining the procedure, its purpose, and the extent of exposure required. During the examination, doctors should only speak if necessary, and patients have the right to stop the examination at any point.
Chaperones are impartial individuals who offer support to patients during intimate examinations and observe the procedure to ensure that it is conducted professionally. They should be healthcare workers who have no relation to the patient or doctor, and their full name and role should be documented in the medical records. Patients may also wish to have family members present for support, but they cannot act as chaperones as they are not impartial. Doctors should not feel pressured to perform an examination without a chaperone if they are uncomfortable doing so. In such cases, they should refer the patient to a colleague who is comfortable with the examination.
It is not mandatory to have a chaperone present during an intimate examination, and patients may refuse one. However, the offer and refusal of a chaperone should be documented in the medical records. If a patient makes any allegations against the doctor regarding the examination, the chaperone can be called upon as a witness. In cases where a patient refuses a chaperone, doctors should explain the reasons for offering one and refer the patient to another service if necessary. The GMC guidelines aim to ensure that intimate examinations are conducted with sensitivity, respect, and professionalism, while also protecting the interests of both patients and doctors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman contacts the surgery regarding an ESA113 form for employment support allowance.
She has type 1 diabetes, has had a partial amputation of her left leg and is having to attend the haemodialysis clinic.
Which one of the following is true with respect to completing the form?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You are obliged to fill in the form under terms of service
Explanation:Importance of Completing Employment Support Allowance Form
The Employment Support Allowance (ESA) form is included in Schedule 9 of the BMA’s guidance document on medical certificates and reports. This means that GPs are required to complete the form as part of their terms and conditions of service. Refusing to complete the form or charging for it would greatly disadvantage the patient.
It is important for GPs to complete the ESA form as it is a crucial document for patients who are unable to work due to illness or disability. Without this form, patients may not be able to receive the financial support they need to cover their living expenses. Therefore, it is essential that GPs fulfill their obligation to complete the ESA form and do not charge patients for it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy has a problem with bed-wetting. This has been a long-term problem and he is otherwise fit and well.
Which of the following features of this condition would necessitate the need for urinalysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daytime symptoms
Explanation:When to Perform Urinalysis for Bed-Wetting: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines on when to perform urinalysis for bed-wetting. According to NICE, urinalysis is only necessary if bed-wetting has started recently, there are daytime symptoms, signs of ill health or urinary tract infection, or a history of diabetes. Daytime symptoms may indicate a bladder disorder and require further investigation or referral.
Bed-wetting that occurs soon after going to bed and a large volume of urine in the first few hours of the night are typical and do not require urinalysis. However, severe bed-wetting that occurs every night may require active measures to promote resolution.
NICE advises against routine urinalysis in children with bed-wetting, as up to 5% of 10-year-old children may still wet the bed. Therefore, urinalysis should only be performed when necessary based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
An older adult patient with renal impairment comes to see you for a medication review.
He has suffered with moderately severe gout in the past and you notice that he has taken allopurinol 300 mg daily for many years to help to prevent recurrent attacks of gout.
He is currently asymptomatic and is unaware of any side effects.
From the perspective of his allopurinol, what would you do?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce the dose to a maximum of 100 mg daily
Explanation:Allopurinol Dosage and Monitoring in Renally Impaired Patients
Patients with renal impairment who are taking allopurinol should be aware that the maximum daily dose is 100 mg. In contrast, patients with normal renal function can take up to 300 mg per day, but doses higher than this would need to be divided. It is recommended to take allopurinol after food if possible, and patients should continue taking it during an acute attack.
While agranulocytosis is a rare side effect of allopurinol, there is no need to monitor the full blood count on an annual basis. However, it is important to adjust the medication dosage in light of the patient’s renal function to avoid potential adverse effects. By following these guidelines, patients with renal impairment can safely and effectively manage their gout symptoms with allopurinol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He has no particular complaints and on examination, no abnormalities were found.
You check the blood test results which were sent by the nurse prior to the appointment:
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 3.5 mmol/l
Urea 4 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 µmol/l
You decide to review his medications.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused his electrolyte abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:SSRIs like sertraline are linked to hyponatraemia, while aspirin and bisoprolol are not commonly associated with it. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and unexplained weight gain. During the physical examination, a diffuse, painless goitre is observed. The following blood tests are conducted:
TSH 15.1 mU/l
Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
ESR 14 mm/hr
Anti-TSH receptor stimulating antibodies Negative
Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies Positive
Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old male patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and bony metastases. Apart from mild urinary symptoms, he is otherwise well.
The local urology department has asked you to initiate 'hormone manipulation of your choice'.
What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Any of the below are equally valid
Explanation:Treatment options for metastatic prostate cancer
In the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer, any luteinising hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) analogue can be used, such as goserelin or leuprorelin. However, there is a small risk of tumour flare in patients with metastatic disease, so it is recommended to initiate LHRH analogue therapy with a short-term anti-androgen like bicalutamide or cyproterone acetate. This risk is minimal, but it is considered good practice to take precautions.
Once treatment has been established, three-monthly preparations of LHRH analogues are convenient for both patients and healthcare professionals. Anti-androgen mono-therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is not recommended. It is important to discuss all treatment options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man reports that he has noticed black tarry stools over the last 2 weeks. He has vomited a small amount of blood.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Melaena can result from oesophageal varices
Explanation:Understanding Melaena: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Melaena is a medical condition characterized by black tarry stools, which is often caused by an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed. The bleeding can occur in the oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, small bowel, or right side of the colon, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause. In some cases, melaena may be the only symptom of bleeding from oesophageal varices, which are associated with portal hypertension.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention, as it can be life-threatening. Patients who are haemodynamically unstable should undergo endoscopy within 2 hours after resuscitation, while other patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. It is important to note that proton pump inhibitors should not be given before endoscopy.
Patients who are at higher risk of complications include those aged over 60 years and those with co-morbidities. The mortality rate for patients with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding in hospital is around 10%. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention promptly if you experience symptoms of melena or haematemesis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A new elderly patient in the practice has been diagnosed with presbycusis. The patient has no history of hearing loss and no family members with hearing impairments. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An autosomal-recessive-inherited disorder
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Congenital Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Congenital sensorineural hearing loss is a type of hearing loss that is present at birth. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including hereditary factors, infections during pregnancy, and complications during birth. In the United Kingdom, hereditary hearing loss accounts for 1-2 per 1000 babies, with around 80% of genetic hearing loss being non-syndromic and not associated with prenatal or perinatal factors.
There are several possible causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss, including autosomal-recessive-inherited disorders, syndromes, autosomal-dominant-inherited disorders, cytomegalovirus infection, and secretory otitis media.
It is important to understand the different causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition. In some cases, genetic testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the hearing loss. Additionally, early intervention and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for children with congenital sensorineural hearing loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner reporting a weight loss of 10 kg in the past four months. He has been experiencing increased fatigue but has not made any changes to his diet or exercise routine.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate cancer
Explanation:Possible Causes of Unexplained Weight Loss in Older Adults
Unexplained weight loss in older adults is a symptom of malignancy and should be investigated promptly. The most prevalent cancer among men in the UK is prostate cancer, which frequently presents with no specific symptoms. Other symptoms of prostate cancer include lower urinary tract symptoms, anorexia, haematuria, erectile dysfunction, lethargy, and low back pain. Lung cancer and colorectal cancer can also cause weight loss, but they are less common among men than prostate cancer. Lung cancer may present with fatigue, shortness of breath, cough, chest pain, haemoptysis, or recurrent chest infections, and may be associated with finger clubbing or lymphadenopathy. Colorectal cancer may cause a change in bowel habit, rectal bleeding, fatigue, and abdominal pain, and may be accompanied by an abdominal or rectal mass. Frailty is another possible cause of unintentional weight loss, but it is usually associated with other indicators, such as slow gait speed, loss of grip strength, exhaustion, and low levels of physical activity. Type I diabetes mellitus can also cause weight loss, but it is more commonly diagnosed in young people, while Type II diabetes is more likely to occur in older age and is associated with weight gain rather than weight loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)