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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She is diagnosed with a genetic disorder that causes abnormal blood cell shape due to a dysfunctional membrane protein. As a result, these cells are broken down by the spleen, leading to haemolytic anaemia and splenomegaly. What is the most probable abnormality observed in a blood film of individuals with this condition?

      Your Answer: Sphere-shaped red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormalities in Red Blood Cells: Hereditary Spherocytosis and Other Conditions

      Hereditary spherocytosis is an inherited condition that causes red blood cells to take on a sphere shape instead of their normal biconcave disc shape. This abnormality leads to increased rupture of red blood cells in capillaries and increased degradation by the spleen, resulting in hypersplenism, splenomegaly, and haemolytic anaemia. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis often present with jaundice, splenomegaly, anaemia, and fatigue.

      Schistocytes, irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are the result of mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as haemolytic anaemia.

      Acanthocytes or spur cells, which have a spiked, irregular surface due to deposition of lipids and/or proteins on the membrane, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are seen in several conditions, including cirrhosis, anorexia nervosa, and pancreatitis.

      Microcytic red blood cells, which are smaller than normal red blood cells but have a normal shape, are typically seen in iron deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, and anaemia of chronic disease.

      Teardrop-shaped red blood cells are seen in conditions where there is an abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis. This is different from hereditary spherocytosis, which is a primary disorder of abnormal red blood cell shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her parents. She is worried...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her parents. She is worried about not having started her periods yet, while many of her peers have. Her medical history includes a lack of sense of smell, which she has had since childhood. On examination, she has normal height, early breast development, and minimal secondary sexual hair. Her BMI is 22. What blood test would be most helpful in determining the underlying cause of her amenorrhea?

      Your Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Kallmann’s Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis

      Anosmia and primary amenorrhoea are two symptoms that may indicate the presence of Kallmann’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by the underdevelopment of the olfactory bulb, which leads to a loss of the sense of smell, and the failure to produce gonadotrophin releasing hormone. As a result, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone may cause a partial or complete failure to enter puberty in women.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, on the other hand, may cause electrolyte imbalances, but it is typically associated with abnormal female virilization. Prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor, is usually linked to secondary amenorrhoea. Meanwhile, thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, may cause menstrual cessation, but it is less likely to be the cause of primary amenorrhoea, especially in the absence of hyperthyroidism symptoms.

      In summary, Kallmann’s syndrome should be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with anosmia and primary amenorrhoea. However, other conditions such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, prolactinoma, and thyrotoxicosis should also be ruled out through proper evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
    On examination, his left plantar response was...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
      On examination, his left plantar response was extensor, and deep tendon jerks were increased on the left side. A computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain revealed a right-middle cerebral artery territory infarct. He was not known to have diabetes or hypertension. He was not receiving any drugs, either.
      His blood count revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 331 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophil count 145 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Metamyelocyte 3000/mm3
      Platelet 490 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Peripheral smear Many band forms, myelocytes, basophils
      What is the next appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer: Leukapheresis

      Explanation:

      Leukapheresis and Other Treatment Options for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia with High White Blood Cell Count and Ischaemic Stroke

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia can cause an extremely high white blood cell count, leading to hyperviscosity of the blood and an increased risk of ischaemic events such as stroke. While anticoagulation medications are important, they do not address the underlying issue of the high cell count. Leukapheresis is a procedure that can reduce the white cell volume by 30-60%, making it a crucial emergency treatment option. Other treatments, such as hydroxyurea and imatinib, can also be used to control disease burden. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is effective in treating chronic myeloid leukaemia with the Philadelphia chromosome translocation. Aspirin and heparin have limited roles in this scenario. While aspirin is recommended for long-term therapy after an ischaemic stroke, it does not address the hypercoagulable state caused by the high white blood cell count. Heparin is not used in the treatment of ischaemic strokes. Overall, leukapheresis should be the first step in emergency management for chronic myeloid leukaemia with a high white blood cell count and ischaemic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked...

    Correct

    • As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked to give a PowerPoint presentation to the team about a 20-year-old patient who presented with sickle-cell crisis.
      With regard to sickle-cell disease, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Aplastic crisis can be precipitated by parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aplastic Crisis and Sickle-Cell Disease

      Aplastic crisis is a condition of transient bone marrow failure that can be precipitated by parvovirus B19, Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), or Streptococcus. In sickle-cell disease, aplastic crisis is usually caused by parvovirus B19 and is characterized by reticulocytopenia, symptomatic anemia, and the presence of parvovirus immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies. It is managed by monitoring and symptomatic relief with blood transfusion until normal erythrocyte function returns. Aplastic crisis is most common in individuals of Mediterranean descent.

      Sickle-cell disease is most common in individuals of Black Afro-Caribbean descent and, to a lesser extent, in individuals of Mediterranean or Middle Eastern descent. It occurs as a result of the production of an abnormal beta (β) chain in haemoglobin, caused by a mutation that changes adenine to thymine in the sixth codon of the β chain gene. This results in the formation of HbS, which circulates in the blood and forms polymers in the deoxygenated state, causing sickling of red blood cells. The resulting blood film shows elongated, thin, sickled red blood cells, target cells, and Howell–Jolly bodies.

      Splenomegaly is most usually seen in childhood, as most children with sickle-cell disease have a splenic infarction event in late childhood and develop hyposplenism. Spherocytes, on the other hand, are abnormal red blood cells with a spherical shape, seen on the blood film of spherocytosis, a form of haemolytic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 5 - A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor....

    Incorrect

    • A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?

      Your Answer: Female sex

      Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).

      It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort and bloating that have been progressively worsening over the past few months. Upon examination, her GP discovered a complex left ovarian cyst. Which blood test would be the most useful in determining if the cyst is cancerous?

      Your Answer: CA19-9

      Correct Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Association with Different Cancers

      Tumor markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be used to detect the presence of cancer, monitor the progress of treatment, and detect the recurrence of cancer. One such tumor marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian carcinoma. However, elevations in CA125 can also be seen in uterine cancer, pancreas, stomach, and colonic tumors. In some cases, benign ovarian tumors can also cause a rise in CA125 levels. If a patient has a CA125 level of over 200U/ml and an abnormal ultrasound scan, it is highly likely that they have ovarian carcinoma.

      Other tumor markers include CA19-9, which is primarily associated with pancreatic tumors, beta-HCG, which is associated with germ cell tumors, alpha-fetoprotein, which is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen, which is associated with colonic carcinoma. While AFP and beta-HCG can rarely be secreted by ovarian tumors, it is important to check CA125 levels first, as they are much more frequently elevated. By monitoring tumor markers, doctors can detect cancer early and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 7 - A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which...

    Incorrect

    • A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which needs debridement. His platelet counts are 15 ×109/l. His blood sugars are poorly controlled and he has been started on a sliding scale insulin. He has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions.

      What is the recommended product to increase platelet counts to a safe level for debridement surgery in a diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura who has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions and has poorly controlled blood sugars, and is slightly older?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin concentrates

      Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for ITP patients

      Intravenous immunoglobulin is the preferred treatment for patients with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) who also have diabetes. Steroids may be used as a trial treatment if the patient does not have any contraindications for steroid-related complications. Platelets are not typically effective in raising platelet counts in ITP patients because they are destroyed by the antibodies. However, they may be used in emergency situations to treat major bleeding. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the individual patient’s medical history and current condition when selecting a treatment plan for ITP. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU). However, he is starting to deteriorate despite being on the Sepsis Six Bundle. He is pyrexial and appears very unwell. On examination:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Respiratory rate (RR) 30 breaths/minute 12–18 breaths/minute
      Heart rate (HR) 120 bpm 60–100 bpm
      Blood pressure (BP) 88/40 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      You noted some bleeding along the cannulation site and on his gums. The coagulation profile showed prolonged prothrombin time, a decrease in fibrinogen level and marked elevation of D-dimer. He has some purpuric rash on his extremities.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the above condition?

      Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)

      Explanation:

      Comparison of DIC, von Willebrand’s Disease, Liver Failure, Haemophilia, and Heparin Administration

      Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is a serious complication of severe sepsis that can lead to multiorgan failure and widespread bleeding. It is characterized by high prothrombin time and the use of fibrinogen for widespread clot formation, resulting in high levels of D-dimer due to intense fibrinolytic activity. DIC is a paradoxical state in which the patient is prone to clotting but also to bleeding.

      Von Willebrand’s disease is an inherited disorder of coagulation that is usually autosomal dominant. There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient in this case has von Willebrand’s disease.

      Liver failure could result in excessive bleeding due to disruption of liver synthetic function, but there is no other information to support liver failure in this case. Signs of hepatic encephalopathy or jaundice would also be expected.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation that is characterized by prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and normal prothrombin time.

      There is no information to suggest that heparin has been administered, and the bleeding time and platelet count would be normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right leg, five days after having a cholecystectomy. Upon examination, the right leg is swollen, tender, and warm, while the left leg appears normal. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Arterial Dopplers

      Correct Answer: Venous Dopplers

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      This patient is showing typical symptoms of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). While you may not have access to the necessary investigations in your practice, it is important to have knowledge of secondary care investigations and their appropriate use, as highlighted in the latest MRCGP curriculum statement. Venous Dopplers are the most likely test to confirm the diagnosis, while a venogram is considered the gold standard.

      DVTs should be treated with anticoagulation, typically with the use of DOACs due to the potential risk of embolisation. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat DVTs to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. As a healthcare professional, it is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines and recommendations for the diagnosis and treatment of DVTs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old boy with thalassaemia major, receiving regular blood transfusions, has been added...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with thalassaemia major, receiving regular blood transfusions, has been added to the transplant waiting list for chronic heart failure. What is the probable reason for his heart failure?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Correct Answer: Transfusion haemosiderosis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Blood Transfusions: Understanding the Risks

      Blood transfusions are a common medical intervention used to treat a variety of conditions, from severe bleeding to anaemia. While they can be life-saving, they also carry certain risks and potential complications. Here are some of the most common complications associated with blood transfusions:

      Transfusion haemosiderosis: Repeated blood transfusions can lead to the accumulation of iron in the body’s organs, particularly the heart and endocrine system. This can cause irreversible heart failure if left untreated.

      High-output cardiac failure: While anaemia on its own may not be enough to cause heart failure, it can exacerbate the condition in those with reduced left ventricular systolic dysfunction.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction: This occurs when there is a mismatch between the major histocompatibility antigens on blood cells, such as the ABO system. It can cause severe intravascular haemolysis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal failure, and shock, and has a high mortality rate if not recognized and treated quickly.

      Pulmonary oedema: While rare in patients with normal left ventricular systolic function, blood transfusions can cause fluid overload and pulmonary oedema, which can exacerbate chronic heart failure.

      Transfusion-related bacterial endocarditis: While rare, bacterial infections can occur from blood transfusions. Platelet pools, which are stored at room temperature, have a slightly higher risk of bacterial contamination that can cause fulminant sepsis.

      Understanding the potential complications of blood transfusions is important for both patients and healthcare providers. By recognizing and addressing these risks, we can ensure that blood transfusions remain a safe and effective treatment option for those who need them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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