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  • Question 1 - An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees....

    Correct

    • An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Iritis

      Explanation:

      The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old male presents with complaints of a patch of scaling skin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents with complaints of a patch of scaling skin and hair loss on the right side of his head. A skin scraping confirms the diagnosis of tinea capitis. What is the most common organism responsible for tinea capitis?

      Your Answer: Trichophyton verrucosum

      Correct Answer: Trichophyton tonsurans

      Explanation:

      The most common organism responsible for tinea capitis is Trichophyton tonsurans.Tinea is a term given to dermatophyte fungal infections. There are three types of tinea, depending on what part of the body is infected:- Tinea capitis – scalp- Tinea corporis – trunk, legs or arms- Tinea pedis – feet-Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm): It is a cause for scarring alopecia mainly seen in children. If untreated, it can form a raised pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans. Tinea can also be caused by Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs.The diagnosis of tinea capitis and identification of the organism is possible from the skin lesions: – Scalp scrapings and Potassium hydroxide (KOH) mounts.- Wood’s lamp: Microsporum canis produces a green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp examination.Treatment: – Oral antifungals: terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections.- Griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. – Topical ketoconazole shampoo is recommended for the first two weeks to limit the transmission of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon examination the clinician discovered that the fracture affected the insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle. Which of the following bones was most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Calcaneus

      Correct Answer: Base of the fifth metatarsal

      Explanation:

      The peroneus brevis muscle originates from the lower two-thirds of the lateral body of the fibula and has inserts at the base of the fifth metatarsal. Fractures to this bone are common and can be due to infection, trauma, overuse and repetitive use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 5 month old baby presents with bilious vomiting. Doctors notice a palpable...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old baby presents with bilious vomiting. Doctors notice a palpable mass and drawing up of legs. They treat the baby with an air reduction enema, suspecting intussusception. However, the procedure is interrupted as the baby develops abdominal distention and starts to drop their saturations. What would be the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Stop the procedure and arrange for surgical 'open' reduction of intussusception

      Correct Answer: Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum

      Explanation:

      Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum is necessary to avoid tension pneumoperitoneum. Air reduction enema is the main stay of treatment for intussusception and is successful in around 90% of cases. A serious potential risk of this procedure is perforation of the colon and a pneumoperitoneum, leading to rapid distension of the abdomen and splinting of the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      91.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following neonatal skin conditions is NOT benign? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neonatal skin conditions is NOT benign?

      Your Answer: Naevus flammeus

      Correct Answer: Midline lumbosacral lipoma

      Explanation:

      A lumbosacral lipoma is a form of congenital spinal lipoma and can be regarded as a cutaneous marker of dysraphism. It is not a skin condition but rather represents a defect in the process of neurulation and leads to a constellation of other abnormalities. The most common other systemic abnormalities associated with midline lumbosacral lipoma include complex anorectal and urological malformations. Other mentioned conditions are benign rashes or birthmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever and urinary urgency. The temperature is recorded to be 39C. Which of the following is the best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clean catch of urine

      Explanation:

      Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 7 - A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 8 - Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common

      Explanation:

      Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following features is least likely to be present in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least likely to be present in a 14-year-old girl with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      A patient with Down’s syndrome is likely to be subfertile rather than infertile.Down’s syndrome:The clinical features of Down’s syndrome include:- Face: upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in iris, protruding tongue, small ears, and round/flat face- Flat occiput- Single palmar crease, pronounced ‘sandal gap’ in the first interdigital space of the feet.- Hypotonia- Congenital heart defects (40-50%)- Duodenal atresia- Hirschsprung’s diseaseThe cardiac complications in these patients include:- Endocardial cushion defect (40%)- Ventricular septal defect (30%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (5%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (5%)The complications that occur later in the life of the patient include:- Subfertility: Males are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis. Females, however, are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.- Learning difficulties- Short stature- Repeated respiratory infections (+hearing impairment from glue ear)- Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia- Hypothyroidism- Alzheimer’s disease- Atlantoaxial instability

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 10 - What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: >90%

      Explanation:

      90% of patients with meconium ileus have cystic fibrosis (CF). Indeed, in 10 – 15% of cases of CF, the patient presents with meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 11 - A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency department with colicky pain. The boy has experienced such episodes of pain in the past, which radiates from his loin to the groin. After clinical examination and investigations, a 7mm stone has been found in his ureter. What is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conservative treatment

      Explanation:

      Renal stones < 5mm generally pass spontaneously with adequate fluid intake. Stones 5mm-10mm with pain not resolving, require medical expulsive therapy with Nifedipine or Tamsulosin. For stones larger than 10mm, ESWL or Ureteroscopy is indicated. For stones as big as 2cm, percutaneous nephrolithotomy should be applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 12 - A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an episode of infective diarrhoea.Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. HUS is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in children. It predominantly occurs in infants and children after prodromal diarrhoea. In summer epidemics, the disease may be related to infectious causes.Bacterial infections may include the following:S dysenteriaeE ColiSalmonella typhiCampylobacter jejuniYersinia pseudotuberculosisNeisseria meningitidisS pneumoniaLegionella pneumophilaMycoplasma speciesRickettsial infections may include Rocky Mountain spotted fever and microtatobiotesViral infections may include the following:Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)CoxsackievirusEchovirusInfluenza virusEpstein-Barr virusHerpes simplex virusFungal infections can include Aspergillus fumigatus.Vaccinations may include the following:Influenza triple-antigen vaccineTyphoid-paratyphoid A and B (TAB) vaccinePolio vaccinePregnancy-associated HUS occasionally develops as a complication of preeclampsia. Patients may progress to full-blown haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome. Postpartum HUS usually occurs within 3 months of delivery. The prognosis is poor, with a 50-60% mortality rate, and residual renal dysfunction and hypertension occur in most patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised Testosterone

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels:Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen indexLH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 14 - A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysphonia

      Explanation:

      Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 15 - In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is...

    Incorrect

    • In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate purging behaviour. The underlying reason for this behaviour is distorted self-image. Bulimia leads to several medical issues, including various laboratory derangements. Among these deranged laboratory parameters are the hormone cholecystokinin, which is found to be decreased in women having bulimia. It is hypothesized that the bingeing episodes observed in patients with bulimia are due to lower levels of CCK since normal levels of CCK are involved in maintaining satiety and controlling the urge to binge eat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methicillin

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 17 - A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head with a hammer. On arrival at the emergency department, he is pronounced dead. Post-mortem findings will show which of the following features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (a tough fibrous layer of tissue between the brain and skull) and the skull bone. These occur when arteries are torn as a result of a blow to the head, and injury in the temple area is a common cause. Although the pattern of a lucid interval followed by later neurological symptoms is characteristic, only a minority of patients display this pattern of symptoms. Reported death rates from epidural hematoma vary widely, ranging from 5% to over 40%. Middle meningeal artery is frequently involved in such incidents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 18 - At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor...

    Incorrect

    • At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finger play with the hands open and brought together

      Explanation:

      By the age of three months a child should become more fascinated with their hands and fingers; they can bring their hand to their mouth, open and close their hand, and shake and grab at dangling objects and toys. Their ability to roll over will come by the time the child is 6 months, at which time they will also be able to sit with support. Soon, at 8-9 months, attempts will be made to crawl and as they approach 12 months they will be able to pull on objects to stand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 19 - A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a...

    Incorrect

    • A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation; the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 20 - Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoid tumours

      Explanation:

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a higher propensity to develop various endocrine and nonendocrine tumours. The primary endocrine tumours that are a part of this disorder include carcinoid tumours and tumours of parathyroid, enteropancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin. Carcinoid tumours encountered in MEN type 1 are mostly of the foregut region. Non-endocrine tumours found in MEN type 1 include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas. The pathogenesis of MEN type 1 is the inactivating mutation of the tumour suppressor gene MEN 1, which encodes the protein menin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency after collapsing at...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency after collapsing at a shopping mall. She is accompanied by her mother who reveals that she has had amenorrhea for the past 7 consecutive months. There is fine hair on her body. Which of the following investigations is mandatory in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urea & Electrolytes

      Explanation:

      Although some individuals with Anorexia Nervosa exhibit no laboratory abnormalities, the semistarvation characteristic of this disorder can affect most major organ systems and produce a variety of disturbances. The induced vomiting and abuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas can also cause a number of disturbances leading to abnormal laboratory findings.Haematology: Leukopenia and mild anaemia are common; thrombocytopenia occurs rarely.Chemistry: Dehydration may be reflected by an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN). Hypercholesterolemia is common. Liver function tests may be elevated.Hypomagnesemia, hypozincaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperamylasaemia are occasionally found. Induced vomiting may lead to metabolic alkalosis (elevated serum bicarbonate), hypochloraemia, and hypokalaemia, and laxative abuse may cause a metabolic acidosis. Serum thyroxine levels are usually in the low-normal range; triiodothyronine levels are decreased. Hyperadrenocorticism and abnormal responsiveness to a variety of neuroendocrine challenges are common.In females, low serum oestrogen levels are present, whereas males have low levels of serum testosterone. There is a regression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in both sexes in that the 24-hour pattern of secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) resembles that normally seen in prepubertal or pubertal individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 22 - A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of...

    Incorrect

    • A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of 0.256.Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The paired differences are not significantly different from zero on average

      Explanation:

      The paired sample t-test, sometimes called the dependent sample t-test, is a statistical procedure used to determine whether the mean difference between two sets of observations is zero. In a paired sample t-test, each subject or entity is measured twice, resulting in pairs of observations. Common applications of the paired sample t-test include case-control studies or repeated-measures designs.Statistical significance is determined by looking at the p-value. The p-value gives the probability of observing the test results under the null hypothesis. The lower the p-value, the lower the probability of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true. Thus, a low p-value indicates decreased support for the null hypothesis. However, the possibility that the null hypothesis is true and that we simply obtained a very rare result can never be ruled out completely. The cut-off value for determining statistical significance is ultimately decided on by the researcher, but usually a value of .05 or less is chosen. This corresponds to a 5% (or less) chance of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 23 - A 15-year-old girl, known to have atopic eczema since she was six months...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl, known to have atopic eczema since she was six months old, presents because her parents are worried about several skin changes. They are concerned that they could be caused by topical steroid ointments. Which of the following is more likely to be present due to the disease, rather than as a side-effect of the treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypopigmentation

      Explanation:

      Hypopigmentation is a side-effect that is more likely to be due to eczema rather than topical steroids therapy.All the options provided are potential side-effects of topical steroid therapy. They are observed when the potency of the steroid used is too high, or the amount of drug used is too much.. FTU or fingertip unit application is what is recommended, with caution, in delicate areas such as the face. Hypopigmentation can occur in eczema and is a post-inflammatory response, in contrast to the total depigmentation which is seen in vitiligo. Chronic eczema causes lichenification of skin, where the epidermis is thickened, and not skin atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central precocious puberty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GnRH stimulation test

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. The best laboratory investigation to diagnose central precocious puberty is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, which is regarded as the gold standard. It requires the collection of multiple blood samples at different time points to measure FSH and LH levels. If the LH levels increase to >8IU/L after stimulation with GnRH, then the diagnosis of central precocious puberty is confirmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents with worsening ataxia. They also mention that the boy's urine has a distinct sweet odour. Further investigations reveal the presence of leucine, isoleucine and valine in the urine. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maple Syrup Urine Disease

      Explanation:

      Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting branched-chain amino acids. It is one type of organic academia. The condition gets its name from the distinctive sweet odour of affected infants’ urine, particularly prior to diagnosis, and during times of acute illness. MSUD, also known as branched-chain ketoaciduria, is an aminoacidopathy due to an enzyme defect in the catabolic pathway of the branched-chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 26 - Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes...

    Incorrect

    • Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 27 - A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following IV blood products is most likely to cause an...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following IV blood products is most likely to cause an urticarial reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      Transfusion with blood products carries a risk of acute and more chronic adverse reactions. These reactions can either be immune mediated due to a component mismatch, or non immune, underpinned by bacterial or viral contamination. Reactions range from very mild such as urticaria, to life threatening in the case of transfusion-related acute lung injury. In transfusion with packed red blood cells, the most common adverse event is pyrexia, while urticaria is the most common adverse event that follows infusion with FFP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 29 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child whose head circumference is on the 3rd centile? Note that his height and weight are in the 75th centile.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital rubella syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child is congenital rubella syndrome.Microcephaly is defined as head circumference > two standard deviations below the mean.The causes of microcephaly include:- Genetic disorders: Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, Patau syndrome, Williams syndrome, Angelman syndrome, and Rett syndrome.- Infective: Meningitis, toxoplasmosis, CMV, rubella, varicella, HIVand Zika.- Acquired causes: Severe brain malformations, neurodegenerative diseases, hypoxic-ischemic injury, infarction, antenatal exposure to drugs, alcohol, and other toxins. Severe malnutrition and uncontrolled phenylketonuria in the mother are other causes of microcephaly in children.- Craniosynostosis- Neurometabolic disorders- Early non-accidental trauma- Fanconi anaemia- Other causes include: Familial and nonfamilial nonsyndromic microcephalyMost children with microcephaly have one or several associated symptoms:- Developmental delay- Seizures- Visual abnormalities- Short stature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (0/1) 0%
Neonatology (0/1) 0%
Passmed