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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee.
What dosage of IV hydrocortisone should be administered in this situation?Your Answer: 50 mg
Correct Answer: 100 mg
Explanation:Corticosteroids can be beneficial in preventing or reducing prolonged reactions. According to the current APLS guidelines, the recommended doses of hydrocortisone for different age groups are as follows:
– Children under 6 months: 25 mg administered slowly via intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) route.
– Children aged 6 months to 6 years: 50 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
– Children aged 6 to 12 years: 100 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
– Children over 12 years: 200 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
– Adults: 200 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.It is important to note that the most recent ALS guidelines do not recommend the routine use of corticosteroids for treating anaphylaxis in adults. However, the current APLS guidelines still advocate for the use of corticosteroids in children to manage anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 2
Correct
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You refer a patient with a history of recurrent supraventricular arrhythmias to the cardiology on-call team. While discussing the patient with the cardiology registrar on the phone, she explains that she is currently busy, but suggests that you start verapamil now and that she will review the patient as soon as she can. You review the patient's medication chart to determine if this is an appropriate course of action.
Which of the following drugs should not be co-prescribed with verapamil?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Verapamil is a type of calcium-channel blocker that is commonly used to treat irregular heart rhythms and chest pain. It is important to note that verapamil should not be taken at the same time as beta-blockers like atenolol and bisoprolol. This is because when these medications are combined, they can have a negative impact on the heart’s ability to contract and the heart rate, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure, slow heart rate, impaired conduction between the upper and lower chambers of the heart, heart failure (due to decreased ability of the heart to pump effectively), and even a pause in the heart’s normal rhythm. For more information, you can refer to the section on verapamil interactions in the British National Formulary (BNF).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 3
Correct
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You are evaluating a 25-year-old patient who has arrived at the emergency department by ambulance following a fall from a second-floor balcony. The patient reports experiencing upper abdominal discomfort, which raises concerns about potential hepatic and splenic injuries. In the trauma setting, which imaging modality would be considered the gold standard for assessing these organs?
Your Answer: Computerised tomography
Explanation:CT scan is considered the most reliable imaging technique for diagnosing intra-abdominal conditions. It is also considered the gold standard for evaluating organ damage. However, it is crucial to carefully consider the specific circumstances before using CT scan, as it may not be suitable for unstable patients or those who clearly require immediate surgical intervention. In such cases, other methods like FAST can be used to detect fluid in the abdominal cavity, although it is not as accurate in assessing injuries to solid organs or hollow structures within the abdomen.
Further Reading:
Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.
When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.
In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.
In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes in with severe chest pain in the center of her chest. Her ECG reveals the following findings:
ST elevation in leads I, II, aVF, and V6
Reciprocal ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR
Prominent tall R waves in leads V2-V3
Upright T waves in leads V2-V3
Based on these findings, which blood vessel is most likely affected in this case?Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:This ECG indicates changes that are consistent with an acute inferoposterior myocardial infarction (MI). There is ST elevation in leads I, II, aVF, and V6, along with reciprocal ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR. Additionally, there are tall dominant R waves in leads V2-V3 and upright T waves in leads V2-V3. Based on these findings, the most likely vessel involved in this case is the right coronary artery.
To summarize the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction see below:
ECG Leads – Location of MI | Vessel involved
V1-V3 – Anteroseptal | Left anterior descending
V3-V4 – Anterior | Left anterior descending
V5-V6 – Anterolateral | Left anterior descending / left circumflex artery
V1-V6 – Extensive anterior | Left anterior descending
I, II, aVL, V6 – Lateral | Left circumflex artery
II, III, aVF – Inferior | Right coronary artery (80%), Left circumflex artery (20%)
V1, V4R – Right ventricle | Right coronary artery
V7-V9 – Posterior | Right coronary artery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42 year old female attends the emergency department after developing an intensely itchy red rash to the entirety of her body over the past 48 hours. The patient mentions having a history of eczema and had noticed a few eczematous patches appear in the days before the rash started. On examination, there is erythema to almost the entirety of the body (>90% of total body surface area) with areas of scaling, excoriation marks, and lichenification. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 118/76
Pulse: 106 bpm
Respiration rate: 22 bpm
Temperature: 35.8 ºC
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Erythroderma
Explanation:This explanation describes the observation of a patient with psoriasis, the most common associated condition in adults. The observations suggest that the patient may be experiencing dehydration, which is a complication of this condition.
Further Reading:
Erythroderma is a rare inflammatory skin condition that affects the majority of a person’s skin surface area. It is characterized by widespread redness, intense itching, and peeling of the skin. The condition can occur in people of all ages and races, but it is more common in males. Erythroderma is considered a dermatological emergency due to the potential for life-threatening complications.
The most common causes of erythroderma are exacerbations of pre-existing skin conditions, such as atopic dermatitis, psoriasis, and lichen planus. However, approximately one-third of cases are idiopathic, meaning the cause is unknown. Other less common skin conditions and systemic illnesses, including certain types of lymphoma and leukemia, can also lead to erythroderma.
Clinical features of erythroderma include generalized redness and swelling of at least 90% of the skin surface area. This is often preceded by a rash or dermatitis. The intense itching associated with the condition can lead to scratching and thickening of the skin. Skin scaling or peeling typically occurs a few days after the onset of redness. Other symptoms may include hair loss, yellowing of the palms and soles, nail abnormalities, and swollen lymph nodes. Patients may also feel generally unwell.
Erythroderma can lead to significant complications, including dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, hypothermia, heart failure, and secondary skin infections. Diagnosis is typically made based on clinical presentation, but further investigations may be done to assess the patient’s overall condition and identify any underlying causes.
Treatment of erythroderma involves addressing the underlying cause, if known. Trigger medications should be discontinued, and supportive measures such as fluid resuscitation, correction of electrolyte imbalances, and treatment of secondary infections should be implemented. Medications for symptom relief, such as painkillers and antihistamines, may also be prescribed. Emollients are often recommended to soothe the skin. In some cases, steroids and immunosuppressants may be used, depending on the underlying cause of the erythroderma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old female smoker presents with an episode of acute right-sided chest pain. She describes the pain as being ‘extremely severe’, and it is aggravated by movement and coughing. The pain radiates to her neck and shoulder on the affected side. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and her oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On examination, she exhibits localized tenderness around the 4th rib on the right-hand side. Her lung fields are clear, and her heart sounds are normal.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tietze’s syndrome
Explanation:Tietze’s syndrome is an uncommon condition that leads to localized pain and tenderness in one or more of the upper four ribs, with the second and third ribs being the most commonly affected. The exact cause of this syndrome is still unknown, although it has been suggested that it may be linked to repeated small injuries to the chest wall.
The pain experienced in Tietze’s syndrome is typically aggravated by movement, sneezing, and coughing, and it can also extend to the neck or shoulder on the affected side. In some cases, a firm swelling can be felt over the cartilage of the affected rib. While the pain usually diminishes after a few weeks or months, the swelling may persist.
Treatment for Tietze’s syndrome involves the use of pain-relieving medications, such as NSAIDs. In more severe or persistent cases, local steroid injections may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 21 year old patient is brought into the emergency department with burns to the left arm. The patient informs you that one of their friends had accidentally set their sleeve on fire with a lighter, causing the material to quickly burn and stick to their skin. The patient's entire left arm is burned, with the front part experiencing superficial partial thickness burns and the back part having areas of deep partial thickness and full thickness burns. What is the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient?
Your Answer: 9%
Explanation:To estimate the total body surface area of burn, we need to consider the rule of nines. This rule divides the body into different regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area. According to the rule of nines, the left arm accounts for 9% of the total body surface area. Therefore, the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient is 9%.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 8
Correct
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You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into the resuscitation bay by the ambulance crew. The patient was at home when he suddenly experienced dizziness and difficulty breathing. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG to you. You plan on administering atropine to address the patient's bradyarrhythmia.
According to the resuscitation council, what is the maximum recommended total dose of atropine that should be administered?Your Answer: 3mg
Explanation:When treating adults with bradycardia, a maximum of 6 doses of atropine 500 mcg can be administered. Each dose is given intravenously every 3-5 minutes. The total dose should not exceed 3mg.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. The periods are not excessively painful. A recent ultrasound scan showed the presence of small fibroids, all measuring less than 2-3 cm in diameter. During the examination, a slightly enlarged uterus is palpated. The patient expresses a strong desire to start a family soon.
What would be the most appropriate initial treatment option to consider in this case?Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:Tranexamic acid is the best choice for this patient because her periods are heavy, but not very painful, and her fibroids are small. Additionally, she wants to start a family soon, so contraceptive options are not as suitable. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of heavy menstrual bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman with a history of congestive cardiac failure is experiencing severe central chest pain when reclining. The pain is relieved by assuming an upright position. She has a documented history of severe coronary artery disease.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Decubitus angina
Explanation:Decubitus angina typically occurs in individuals who have congestive heart failure and significant coronary artery disease. When the patient assumes a lying position, the heightened volume of blood within the blood vessels puts stress on the heart, leading to episodes of chest pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a nosebleed that began after blowing her nose an hour ago. You assessed her when she arrived 30 minutes ago and recommended that she try to stop the bleeding by pinching the soft, cartilaginous part of her nose. She has been doing this since then, but her nose is still bleeding. During the examination, you can see bleeding points in both nostrils. What is the most suitable next step to take?
Your Answer: Pack the nose with nasal tampons, e.g. Rapid Rhinos
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.
Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful swelling on the left side of her face. The pain and swelling appear to get worse before meals and then gradually improve after eating. During the examination, a solid lump can be felt in the submandibular region. There is no redness, and the patient has no fever and is in good overall health.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sialolithiasis
Explanation:Sialolithiasis is a condition in which a calcified stone (sialolith) forms inside a salivary gland. The submandibular gland (Wharton’s duct) is the most common site, accounting for about 90% of cases, while the parotid gland is the second most affected. In rare instances, sialoliths can also develop in the sublingual gland or minor salivary glands.
The presence of a sialolith obstructs the flow of saliva, leading to pain and swelling in the affected gland during eating. The pain is most intense when salivary flow is high, such as before and during meals, and gradually subsides within an hour after eating. By palpating the floor of the mouth with both hands, a stone may be detected, and sometimes it can even be seen at the opening of the duct. If there is an accompanying infection, pus may be expressed from the gland.
To assess salivary flow, acidic foods like lemon juice can be used as a simple test. X-rays of the mouth’s floor can reveal the presence of a stone. Patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist (ENT) for the removal of the stone.
Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands and can be either acute or chronic. Acute sialadenitis is most commonly caused by a bacterial infection, usually ascending from Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus viridans. It can occur as a result of sialolithiasis or poor oral hygiene. Clinically, there will be a painful swelling in the affected gland area, with redness of the overlying skin and potential swelling of the cheek and nearby regions. Patients often experience general malaise, with a low-grade fever and elevated inflammatory markers.
Parotitis, on the other hand, refers to inflammation of one or both parotid glands. This inflammation can be caused by bacteria (particularly Staphylococcus aureus), viruses (such as mumps), or tuberculosis.
Sjögren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 13
Correct
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A 45 year old presents to the emergency department due to increasing fatigue and occasional confusion over the past few days. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus. A capillary blood glucose is taken at triage and reads 'hi'. Bloods are collected and sent for analysis. The results are as follows:
Na+ 146 mmol/l
K+ 5.7 mmol/l
Urea 21 mmol/l
Creatinine 138 µmol/l
Glucose 38 mmol/l
pH 7.35
Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
What is the calculated plasma osmolality for this patient?Your Answer: 351 mOsm/kg
Explanation:The plasma osmolality for this patient can be calculated by multiplying the sodium concentration by 2, adding the glucose concentration, and then adding the urea concentration. In this case, the calculation would be (2 x 146) + 38 + 21.
Further Reading:
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a syndrome that occurs in people with type 2 diabetes and is characterized by extremely high blood glucose levels, dehydration, and hyperosmolarity without significant ketosis. It can develop over days or weeks and has a mortality rate of 5-20%, which is higher than that of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). HHS is often precipitated by factors such as infection, inadequate diabetic treatment, physiological stress, or certain medications.
Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, nausea, signs of dehydration (hypotension, tachycardia, poor skin turgor), lethargy, confusion, and weakness. Initial investigations for HHS include measuring capillary blood glucose, venous blood gas, urinalysis, and an ECG to assess for any potential complications such as myocardial infarction. Osmolality should also be calculated to monitor the severity of the condition.
The management of HHS aims to correct dehydration, hyperglycaemia, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte disturbances, as well as identify and treat any underlying causes. Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride solution is the principal fluid used to restore circulating volume and reverse dehydration. If the osmolality does not decline despite adequate fluid balance, a switch to 0.45% sodium chloride solution may be considered. Care must be taken in correcting plasma sodium and osmolality to avoid complications such as cerebral edema and osmotic demyelination syndrome.
The rate of fall of plasma sodium should not exceed 10 mmol/L in 24 hours, and the fall in blood glucose should be no more than 5 mmol/L per hour. Low-dose intravenous insulin may be initiated if the blood glucose is not falling with fluids alone or if there is significant ketonaemia. Potassium replacement should be guided by the potassium level, and the patient should be encouraged to drink as soon as it is safe to do so.
Complications of treatment, such as fluid overload, cerebral edema, or central pontine myelinolysis, should be assessed for, and underlying precipitating factors should be identified and treated. Prophylactic anticoagulation is required in most patients, and all patients should be assumed to be at high risk of foot ulceration, necessitating appropriate foot protection and daily foot checks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department after a significant episode of haematemesis. The patient is transferred to the resuscitation bay upon arrival, and large bore intravenous access is established while blood samples are sent for analysis and cross matching. You observe that the patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis and suspect a bleed from oesophageal varices.
Which of the following medications should be prioritized for administration, as it has been proven to enhance survival in patients with gastro-oesophageal variceal bleeding?Your Answer: Terlipressin
Explanation:Terlipressin, a vasopressin analogue, has been found to significantly enhance survival rates in cases of acute upper gastrointestinal variceal haemorrhage when compared to a placebo. Alternatively, somatostatin and its analogue octreotide have also demonstrated similar benefits and can be used as alternatives. It is not recommended to administer proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) before endoscopy in cases of acute upper GI bleeds, but they are advised after endoscopy for non-variceal upper GI bleeds. There is no consensus on whether PPIs improve outcomes in variceal bleeding. Recombinant factor Vlla should only be considered if other blood products have failed to correct coagulopathy. Studies indicate that tranexamic acid does not reduce mortality from upper GI bleeding and may actually increase the risk of thromboembolic events.
Further Reading:
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for approximately 70,000 hospital admissions each year in the UK with a mortality rate of 10%.
The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.
Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.
Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.
Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.
For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in with complaints of dysuria and frequent urination. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant. A urine dipstick test shows the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on this, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and decide to prescribe antibiotics.
Which antibiotic would be the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Cefalexin
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs), it is recommended to provide them with an immediate prescription for antibiotics. It is important to consider their previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any prior use of antibiotics that may have contributed to the development of resistant bacteria. Before starting antibiotics, it is advised to obtain a midstream urine sample from pregnant women and send it for culture and susceptibility testing.
Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible. The choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is summarized below:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days, if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms with the first-choice antibiotic for at least 48 hours, or if the first-choice is not suitable):
– Amoxicillin 500 mg taken orally three times daily for 7 days (only if culture results are available and show susceptibility).
– Cefalexin 500 mg taken twice daily for 7 days.For alternative second-choice antibiotics, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist and choose the appropriate antibiotics based on the culture and sensitivity results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 16
Correct
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A fourth-year medical student is studying subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) and has some questions about the topic. What is the ONE accurate statement about SAH?
Your Answer: SAH is associated with polycystic kidneys
Explanation:A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) occurs when there is spontaneous bleeding into the subarachnoid space and is often a catastrophic event. The incidence of SAH is 9 cases per 100,000 people per year, and it typically affects individuals between the ages of 35 and 65.
Approximately 80% of SAH cases are caused by the rupture of berry (saccular) aneurysms, while 15% are caused by arteriovenous malformations (AVM). In less than 5% of cases, no specific cause can be identified. Berry aneurysms are commonly associated with polycystic kidneys, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, and coarctation of the aorta.
There are several risk factors for SAH, including smoking, hypertension, bleeding disorders, alcohol misuse, and mycotic aneurysm. Additionally, a family history of SAH can increase the likelihood of developing the condition.
Patients with SAH typically experience a sudden and severe occipital headache, often described as the worst headache of my life. This may be accompanied by symptoms such as vomiting, collapse, seizures, and coma. Clinical signs of SAH include neck stiffness, a positive Kernig’s sign, and focal neurological abnormalities. Fundoscopy may reveal subhyaloid retinal haemorrhages in approximately 25% of patients.
Re-bleeding occurs in 30-40% of patients who survive the initial episode, with the highest risk occurring between 7 and 14 days after the initial bleed. If left untreated, SAH has a mortality rate of nearly 50% within the first eight weeks following presentation. Prolonged coma is associated with a 100% mortality rate.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a CT head scan, which can detect over 95% of cases if performed within the first 24 hours. The sensitivity of the CT scan increases to nearly 100% if performed within 6 hours of symptom onset. If the CT scan is negative, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed to diagnose SAH. The LP should be conducted at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, unless there are contraindications. Approximately 3% of patients with a negative CT scan will be confirmed to have had a SAH following an LP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 37 year old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of headache, profuse sweating, and heart palpitations. Upon examination, her blood pressure is measured at 228/114 mmHg. The possibility of phaeochromocytoma crosses your mind. Where do phaeochromocytomas typically originate within the adrenal tissue?
Your Answer: Medulla
Explanation:Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.
The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.
Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.
The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical signs of a sexually transmitted infection.
Which of the following organisms is frequently transmitted through sexual contact?Your Answer: Human papillomavirus
Explanation:The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral infection that is primarily responsible for the development of genital warts. This virus is predominantly transmitted through sexual contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 19
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of severe asthma symptoms. You begin treatment for the patient, following the most recent BTS guidelines.
According to the BTS guidelines, what is the appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Steroids should be given in all cases of acute asthma attack
Explanation:The BTS guidelines for managing acute asthma in adults provide the following recommendations:
Oxygen:
– It is important to give supplementary oxygen to all patients with acute severe asthma who have low levels of oxygen in their blood (hypoxemia). The goal is to maintain a blood oxygen saturation level (SpO2) between 94-98%. Even if pulse oximetry is not available, oxygen should still be administered.β2 agonists therapy:
– High-dose inhaled β2 agonists should be used as the first-line treatment for patients with acute asthma. It is important to administer these medications as early as possible.
– Intravenous β2 agonists should be reserved for patients who cannot reliably use inhaled therapy.
– For patients with life-threatening asthma symptoms, nebulized β2 agonists driven by oxygen are recommended.
– In cases of severe asthma that does not respond well to an initial dose of β2 agonist, continuous nebulization with an appropriate nebulizer may be considered.Ipratropium bromide:
– Nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) should be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.Steroid therapy:
– Steroids should be given in adequate doses for all cases of acute asthma attacks.
– Prednisolone should be continued at a dose of 40-50 mg daily for at least five days or until the patient recovers.Other therapies:
– Nebulized magnesium is not recommended for the treatment of acute asthma in adults.
– A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulfate may be considered for patients with acute severe asthma (peak expiratory flow rate <50% of the best or predicted value) who do not respond well to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. However, this should only be done after consulting with senior medical staff.
– Routine prescription of antibiotics is not necessary for patients with acute asthma.For more information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with type A Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You proceed to perform an ECG.
Which of the following ECG characteristics is NOT observed in type A Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?Your Answer: QRS duration longer than 110 ms
Correct Answer: Predominantly negative QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).
In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.
There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with dysuria, chills, and left-sided flank discomfort. During the examination, she exhibits tenderness in the left renal angle and has a temperature of 38.6°C.
What is the MOST suitable antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.
According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.
NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).
For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.
For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. They inform you that the child has been sick for the past 48 hours, experiencing vomiting and diarrhea. The parents are concerned about the possibility of dehydration. As you evaluate the patient, you look for any red flag signs that may indicate an increased risk of progressing to shock.
Your Answer: Reduced skin turgor
Explanation:Signs that a child with gastroenteritis may be at risk of progressing to shock include altered responsiveness (such as being irritable or lethargic), sunken eyes, a fast heart rate, rapid breathing, and reduced skin elasticity. In infants aged 3 months or younger, a temperature above 38ºC is also a red flag.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 23
Correct
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A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and drooling. Speaking is difficult for the child. The medical team calls for an experienced anesthesiologist and ear, nose, and throat surgeon. The child is intubated, and a diagnosis of acute epiglottitis is confirmed.
Which antibiotic would be the best choice for treatment in this case?Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is inflammation of the epiglottis, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. When the soft tissues surrounding the epiglottis are also affected, it is called acute supraglottitis. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 5, but it can occur at any age, with adults typically presenting in their 40s and 50s.
In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type B was the main cause of acute epiglottitis, but with the introduction of the Hib vaccination, it has become rare in children. Streptococcus spp. is now the most common causative organism. Other potential culprits include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the herpes simplex virus. In immunocompromised patients, Candida spp. and Aspergillus spp. infections can occur.
The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (especially in children who may drool), muffled voice, stridor, respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, ear pain, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. Some patients may also exhibit the tripod sign, where they lean forward on outstretched arms to relieve upper airway obstruction.
To diagnose acute epiglottitis, fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the gold standard investigation. However, this procedure should only be performed by an anaesthetist in a setting prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case of airway obstruction. Other useful tests include a lateral neck X-ray to look for the thumbprint sign, throat swabs, blood cultures, and a CT scan of the neck if an abscess is suspected.
When dealing with a case of acute epiglottitis, it is crucial not to panic or distress the patient, especially in pediatric cases. Avoid attempting to examine the throat with a tongue depressor, as this can trigger spasm and worsen airway obstruction. Instead, keep the patient as calm as possible and immediately call a senior anaesthetist, a senior paediatrician, and an ENT surgeon. Nebulized adrenaline can be used as a temporary measure if there is critical airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of urgency, bloody diarrhea, and crampy abdominal pain for the past 8 weeks. She occasionally experiences pain before having a bowel movement, but it is relieved once the stool is passed. A sigmoidoscopy is conducted, and a rectal biopsy reveals the presence of inflammatory cell infiltrate and crypt abscesses.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:In a young patient who has been experiencing bloody diarrhea for more than 6 weeks, it is important to consider inflammatory bowel disease as a possible diagnosis. The challenge lies in distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. In this case, a biopsy was performed and the results showed the presence of inflammatory cell infiltrate and crypt abscesses, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis:
– Typically affects only the rectum and colon
– The terminal ileum may be affected if backwash ileitis occurs
– Does not have skip lesions (areas of normal mucosa between affected areas)
– Decreased incidence in smokers
– Common associations include liver conditions such as primary biliary cirrhosis, chronic active hepatitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis
– Other systemic manifestations are less common compared to Crohn’s disease
– Pathological features include primarily affecting the mucosa and submucosa, presence of mucosal ulcers, inflammatory cell infiltrate, and crypt abscesses
– Clinical features include less prominent abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea in 90% of cases, passage of mucus, and possible fever
– Barium studies may show a granular appearance, button-shaped ulcers, and loss of normal haustral markings
– Complications include a 20-fold increase in the 20-year risk of colonic carcinoma, iron deficiency anemia, and rare occurrence of fistulaeCrohn’s disease:
– Can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus
– May have skip lesions of normal mucosa between affected areas
– Increased incidence in smokers
– Systemic manifestations are more common compared to ulcerative colitis, including erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, iritis/uveitis, cholelithiasis, and joint pain/arthropathy
– Pathological features include transmural inflammation, presence of lymphoid aggregates and neutrophil infiltrates, and non-caseating granulomas seen in 30% of cases
– Clinical features include more prominent abdominal pain, common occurrence of diarrhea (which can also be bloody), frequent and oral lesions, and possible fever
– Barium studies may show severe mucosal ulcers -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits your office expressing concern about a recent unprotected sexual encounter that occurred three days ago. She is extremely anxious and determined to prevent pregnancy. The patient has a history of asthma and currently takes Clenil Modulite. Her BMI is 30.
What is the most appropriate choice for her in this situation?Your Answer: Copper IUD
Explanation:Women have three options when requesting emergency contraception. The first option is Levonelle 1.5 mg, which contains levonorgestrel and can be used up to 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking the tablet, another one should be given. Levonelle mainly works by preventing ovulation.
The second option is ulipristal acetate, the newest treatment available. It can be used up to 120 hours after UPSI. If vomiting occurs within 3 hours of ingestion, another tablet should be given. Ulipristal acetate also works by inhibiting ovulation. However, it should be avoided in patients taking enzyme-inducing drugs, those with severe hepatic impairment, or those with severe asthma requiring oral steroids.
The third option is the copper IUD, which can be fitted up to 5 days after UPSI or ovulation, whichever is longer. The failure rate of the copper IUD is less than 1 in 1000, making it 10-20 times more effective than oral emergency contraceptive options. It is important to note that Levonelle and ulipristal may be less effective in women with higher BMIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 26
Correct
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You are managing a 42 year old female who has been brought into the emergency department with burns and suspected inhalation injury following a house fire. Due to concerns about the patient's ability to maintain their airway it is decided to proceed with intubation and ventilation. Your initial attempt to intubate the patient fails. What is the maximum number of intubation attempts that should be made?
Your Answer: 3
Explanation:According to the guidelines of the Difficult Airway Society, it is recommended to limit intubation attempts to a maximum of three. However, if the first three attempts are unsuccessful, a more experienced colleague may make a fourth attempt. If all four attempts are unsuccessful, the intubation should be declared as a failure.
Further Reading:
A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.
Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.
If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.
Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department after having a wisdom tooth extraction performed by her dentist yesterday. She continues to experience a lack of feeling over the front two-thirds of her tongue on the left side.
Which nerve is MOST likely to have been damaged during this procedure?Your Answer: Lingual nerve
Explanation:The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve, provides sensory innervation to the front two-thirds of the tongue and the floor of the mouth. It also carries fibers of the chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve, which returns taste information from the front two-thirds of the tongue. The diagram below illustrates the relationships of the lingual nerve in the oral cavity.
The most common cause of lingual nerve injuries is wisdom tooth surgery. Approximately 2% of wisdom tooth extractions result in temporary injury, while permanent damage occurs in 0.2% of cases. Additionally, the nerve can be harmed during dental injections for local anesthesia.
The anterior superior alveolar nerve, a branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve, provides sensation to the incisor and canine teeth.
The inferior alveolar nerve, another branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve, supplies sensation to the lower teeth.
The zygomatic nerve, a branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve, offers sensation to the skin over the zygomatic and temporal bones.
Lastly, the mylohyoid nerve is a motor nerve that supplies the mylohyoid and the anterior belly of the digastric.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 28
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman comes in with a temporary vision loss in her right eye half an hour after a yoga session. She had observed flickering lights in the eye before the incident and also experienced a headache that persisted for a few hours. Her visual symptoms disappeared after 45 minutes, but she still experiences slight nausea.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Migraine
Explanation:The presentation, in this instance, is consistent with retinal (ocular) migraine. As per the International Headache Society, the primary clinical features of retinal migraine include an expanding blind-spot in the center of vision, flickering or flashing lights, temporary loss of vision in one eye lasting less than an hour, headache lasting anywhere from 4 to 72 hours (often affecting only one side of the head), nausea and vomiting, sensitivity to light and sound, and a prodrome present in 50-60% of cases. Retinal migraine is relatively uncommon, affecting only 1 in 200 individuals with migraines, and is believed to occur due to the narrowing of blood vessels in the choroidal or retinal arteries. Factors that can trigger retinal migraine include recent intense exercise, changes in posture, and the use of oral contraceptives.
Acute optic neuritis typically presents with unilateral vision loss that worsens over a couple of weeks and then spontaneously improves within three weeks. This condition is more commonly seen in individuals under the age of 45 and is often accompanied by pain around the eyes that worsens with eye movement. A relative afferent pupillary defect and pallor of the optic disc, visible 4-6 weeks after the onset, are frequently observed. The most common cause of optic neuritis in this age group is acute demyelination.
Retinal hemorrhage leads to painless vision loss, while acute glaucoma and amaurosis fugax are unlikely to occur in individuals of this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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While examining a middle-aged man, who is currently a patient on the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU), you notice some bruising on his arms and legs. He tells you they were caused by his wife, who cares for him when she helped her into bed a few days ago. They had argued, and he says she often handles him roughly after an argument. He asks you not to tell anyone what he has said, as he is worried his husband will be angry and cause another injury if she finds out he has told somebody.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Inform him that you believe he is at risk of further harm and you have a duty to raise a safeguarding concern with social services
Correct Answer: Assess whether he has capacity to make a decision regarding disclosure of this information
Explanation:The GMC provides guidance on confidentiality that highlights the importance of assessing whether adults have the ability to give consent for the disclosure of their medical information. If the patient is capable, meaning they can comprehend relevant information, retain it, evaluate it, and communicate their decision, then their preferences should be honored, even if you believe their decision is unwise or puts them at risk of serious harm.
In the event that the patient has the capacity but you believe it would be beneficial to involve social services, you can encourage them to allow you to contact them. However, it is crucial to respect their decision if they decline. On the other hand, if the patient lacks capacity, the doctor should make a decision based on what is in their best interests, which may include raising a concern for their protection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 30
Correct
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A 3-year-old toddler comes in with a high temperature, trouble swallowing, and difficulty speaking. The child is drooling and has been intubated by a senior anesthesiologist and ENT surgeon. After examination, the diagnosis is determined to be acute epiglottitis.
What is the MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this condition?Your Answer: Streptococcus spp.
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is inflammation of the epiglottis, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. When the soft tissues surrounding the epiglottis are also affected, it is called acute supraglottitis. This condition is most commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 5, but it can occur at any age, with adults typically presenting in their 40s and 50s.
In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type B was the main cause of acute epiglottitis, but with the introduction of the Hib vaccination, it has become rare in children. Streptococcus spp. is now the most common causative organism. Other potential culprits include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas spp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the herpes simplex virus. In immunocompromised patients, Candida spp. and Aspergillus spp. infections can occur.
The typical symptoms of acute epiglottitis include fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, difficulty swallowing secretions (especially in children who may drool), muffled voice, stridor, respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, tenderness in the front of the neck over the hyoid bone, ear pain, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. Some patients may also exhibit the tripod sign, where they lean forward on outstretched arms to relieve upper airway obstruction.
To diagnose acute epiglottitis, fibre-optic laryngoscopy is considered the gold standard investigation. However, this procedure should only be performed by an anaesthetist in a setting prepared for intubation or tracheostomy in case of airway obstruction. Other useful tests include a lateral neck X-ray to look for the thumbprint sign, throat swabs, blood cultures, and a CT scan of the neck if an abscess is suspected.
When dealing with a case of acute epiglottitis, it is crucial not to panic or distress the patient, especially in pediatric cases. Avoid attempting to examine the throat with a tongue depressor, as this can trigger spasm and worsen airway obstruction. Instead, keep the patient as calm as possible and immediately call a senior anaesthetist, a senior paediatrician, and an ENT surgeon. Nebulized adrenaline can be used as a temporary measure if there is critical airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 31
Correct
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A 45 year old hiker becomes ill on his third day at Mount Kilimanjaro base camp (altitude of 5895m). The patient experiences severe shortness of breath while at rest and is diagnosed with high altitude pulmonary edema. If left untreated, what is the mortality rate associated with this condition?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:HAPE is a form of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema that occurs secondary to hypoxia. It is a clinical diagnosis characterized by fatigue, dyspnea, and dry cough with exertion. If left untreated, it can progress to dyspnea at rest, rales, cyanosis, and a mortality rate of up to 50%.
Further Reading:
High Altitude Illnesses
Altitude & Hypoxia:
– As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
– Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
– At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
– AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
– Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
– Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
– Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
– The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
– Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
– Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
– Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
– HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
– It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
– Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
– Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
– Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
– HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
– It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
– Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
– Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
– Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 32
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient comes in with an arthropathy affecting his right knee. After sending a joint aspirate to the laboratory, a diagnosis of pseudogout is made. What type of crystals would you anticipate observing in the presence of pseudogout?
Your Answer: Positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals
Explanation:Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.
Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 33
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with a tremor and difficulty with movement. After being referred to a specialist, he is diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Currently, he is in the early stages of the condition.
Which of the following clinical features is most likely to be present as well?Your Answer: Cogwheel rigidity
Explanation:Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:
– Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
– Bradykinesia (slow movement)
– Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
– Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)Other commonly observed clinical features include:
– Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
– Loss of facial expression
– Monotonous, slurred speech
– Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
– Increased salivation and dribbling
– Difficulty with fine movementsInitially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:
– Postural instability
– Cognitive impairment
– Orthostatic hypotensionAlthough PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 55 year old female patient is brought into the emergency department with urosepsis. It is decided to intubate her pending transfer to ITU. Your consultant requests you prepare propofol and suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation (RSI). What is the recommended dose of suxamethonium for RSI in adults?
Your Answer: 2.5 mg/kg
Correct Answer: 1.5 mg/kg
Explanation:The appropriate dosage of suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) in adults is between 1 and 1.5 milligrams per kilogram of body weight.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 35
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with rigidity and slowness of movement. Following a referral to a specialist, a diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease is made. The patient is in the early stages of the disease at present.
Which of the following clinical features is most likely to also be present?Your Answer: Hypokinesia
Explanation:Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:
– Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
– Bradykinesia (slow movement)
– Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
– Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)Other commonly observed clinical features include:
– Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
– Loss of facial expression
– Monotonous, slurred speech
– Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
– Increased salivation and dribbling
– Difficulty with fine movementsInitially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:
– Postural instability
– Cognitive impairment
– Orthostatic hypotensionAlthough PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 36
Correct
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You are caring for a 72-year-old patient with a history of COPD who has been admitted to the emergency department (ED) due to worsening shortness of breath and suspected sepsis. You are planning to perform an arterial blood gas (ABG) test by puncturing the radial artery. What solution should you use to cleanse the intended puncture site before obtaining the sample?
Your Answer: 70% Alcohol
Explanation:Before performing arterial blood gas sampling, it is necessary to disinfect the skin. This is typically done using alcohol, which should be applied and given enough time to dry completely before proceeding with the skin puncture. In the UK, it is common to use solutions that combine alcohol with Chlorhexidine, such as Chloraprep® (2).
Further Reading:
Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.
To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.
Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.
The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.
The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.
The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.
Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.
The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 28 year old female presents at the emergency department with a circular saw laceration. You opt to examine the wound using local anesthesia. What is the maximum dosage of Prilocaine that can be administered?
Your Answer: 3 mg/Kg
Correct Answer: 6 mg/Kg
Explanation:The highest amount of Prilocaine that can be administered without adrenaline is 6 mg per kilogram of body weight. However, if Prilocaine is used in combination with adrenaline, the maximum dose increases to 8mg per kilogram.
Further Reading:
Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.
However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.
The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.
If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.
It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 38
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper lip, and his hands. He has a confirmed diagnosis of hereditary angioedema.
Which of the following statements about hereditary angioedema is correct?Your Answer: Long-term prophylaxis can be achieved with tranexamic acid
Explanation:Hereditary angioedema is a condition caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor, a protein that is part of the complement system. It is typically inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Symptoms usually start in childhood and continue sporadically into adulthood. Attacks can be triggered by minor surgical procedures, dental work, and stress. The main clinical signs of hereditary angioedema include swelling of the skin and mucous membranes, with the face, tongue, and extremities being the most commonly affected areas. There is often a tingling sensation before an attack, sometimes accompanied by a non-itchy rash.
Angioedema and anaphylaxis resulting from C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency do not respond to adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma, both of which contain C1 esterase inhibitor. In situations that may trigger an attack, short-term prophylaxis can be achieved by administering C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma infusions prior to the event. For long-term prevention, androgenic steroids like stanozolol or antifibrinolytic drugs such as tranexamic acid can be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 39
Correct
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A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after complaining of difficulty breathing whilst at a bar. The paramedics administered 15 litres of oxygen as the patient's oxygen saturations at the scene were 82% on air. The saturations improved to 84% on 100% oxygen. You observe that the patient appears pale but is able to speak in full sentences. The patient informs you that he had sniffed poppers a few minutes before feeling unwell. What is the likely cause of this patient's hypoxia?
Your Answer: Methaemoglobinaemia
Explanation:Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition that can be caused by nitrates, including amyl nitrite.
Further Reading:
Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.
Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.
Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.
Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.
Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with painful bilateral gynaecomastia. She began taking a new medication a few months ago.
Which medication is the SINGLE LEAST likely cause for this adverse drug effect?Your Answer: Ranitidine
Explanation:Gynaecomastia, a condition characterized by the enlargement of breast tissue in males, can be caused by certain drugs. Some medications that have been associated with gynaecomastia include Cimetidine, Omeprazole, Spironolactone, Digoxin, Furosemide, Finasteride, and certain antipsychotics. Interestingly, Ranitidine, another medication commonly used for gastric issues, does not tend to cause gynaecomastia. In fact, studies have shown that gynaecomastia caused by Cimetidine can be resolved when it is substituted with Ranitidine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 41
Correct
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A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department after an explosion occurred in her garage. The patient reports inhaling fumes and experiencing symptoms of nausea and dizziness since then. While triaging the patient, law enforcement officers arrive to interview her and inform you that the patient seemed to be operating a methamphetamine lab in her garage, which contained various dangerous chemicals. Your plan is to initiate decontamination procedures. Which of the following methods has been proven to eliminate up to 90% of the contamination?
Your Answer: Removal of patient clothing to underwear
Explanation:To remove contaminated material, it is recommended to remove and dispose of clothing. It is important to seal the clothing and treat it as hazardous waste. If wet decontamination is being utilized, patients should shower using warm water and detergent.
Further Reading:
Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.
When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.
To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.
Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.
Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.
After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 42
Correct
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A 58 year old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing dizziness and fainting. An ECG reveals bradycardia with a pulse rate of 44 bpm. His blood pressure is 90/60. The resident physician administers atropine. Which of the following conditions would be a contraindication for giving atropine?
Your Answer: Paralytic ileus
Explanation:Atropine is a medication that slows down the movement of the digestive system and is not recommended for use in individuals with intestinal blockage. It works by blocking the effects of a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine, which is responsible for promoting gastrointestinal motility and the emptying of the stomach. Therefore, atropine should not be given to patients with gastrointestinal obstruction as it can further hinder the movement of the intestines.
Further Reading:
Types of Heart Block:
1. Atrioventricular (AV) Blocks:
– Disrupt electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles at the AV node.
– Three degrees of AV block: first degree, second degree (type 1 and type 2), and third degree (complete) AV block.– First degree AV block: PR interval > 0.2 seconds.
– Second degree AV block:
– Type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach): progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs.
– Type 2 (Mobitz II): PR interval is constant, but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.
– Third degree (complete) AV block: no association between the P waves and QRS complexes.Features of complete heart block: syncope, heart failure, regular bradycardia (30-50 bpm), wide pulse pressure, JVP (jugular venous pressure) cannon waves in neck, variable intensity of S1.
2. Bundle Branch Blocks:
– Electrical conduction travels from the bundle of His to the left and right bundle branches.
– Diagnosed when the duration of the QRS complex on the ECG exceeds 120 ms.– Right bundle branch block (RBBB).
– Left bundle branch block (LBBB).
– Left anterior fascicular block (LAFB).
– Left posterior fascicular block (LPFB).
– Bifascicular block.
– Trifascicular block.ECG features of bundle branch blocks:
– RBBB: QRS duration > 120 ms, RSR’ pattern in V1-3 (M-shaped QRS complex), wide S wave in lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-6).
– LBBB: QRS duration > 120 ms, dominant S wave in V1, broad, notched (‘M’-shaped) R wave in V6, broad monophasic R wave in lateral leads (I, aVL, V5-6), absence of Q waves in lateral leads, prolonged R wave peak time > 60 ms in leads V5-6.WiLLiaM MaRROW is a useful mnemonic for remembering the morphology of the QRS in leads V1 and V6 for LBBB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She has been experiencing chills and feeling unwell and is worried about the potential of having an infection. She informs you that she is currently prescribed an antibiotic as a preventive measure against neutropenic sepsis.
Which of the subsequent antibiotic classes is utilized for this specific purpose?Your Answer: Macrolides
Correct Answer: Fluoroquinolones
Explanation:According to the latest guidelines from NICE, it is recommended that adult patients who are undergoing treatment for acute leukaemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumours and are expected to experience significant neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy, should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone such as ciprofloxacin (500 mg taken orally twice daily) during the period when neutropenia is expected. This is to help prevent the occurrence of neutropenic sepsis, a serious infection that can occur in cancer patients with low levels of neutrophils.
Reference:
NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 44
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes ago. She is currently using tissues to catch the drips, and you have been asked to see her urgently by the triage nurse. Her observations are normal, and she has no haemodynamic compromise. The nurse has gained IV access.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate INITIAL management step for this patient?Your Answer: Sit patient up and tell her to apply direct pressure to the soft, fleshy part of her nose
Explanation:The initial step in managing a patient with uncomplicated epistaxis is to have the patient sit up and instruct them to apply direct pressure to the soft, fleshy part of their nose for a duration of 10 minutes.
If the bleeding persists after the 10-minute period, the next course of action would be to insert a gauze swab or pledget soaked with a solution of adrenaline (1:10,000) and lidocaine (4%) into the nasal cavity. This should be left in place for approximately 10-15 minutes before removal. Following the removal, an attempt can be made to cauterize any bleeding point.
If the above measures prove ineffective, it would be appropriate to consider inserting a nasal pack such as a ‘rapid rhino’ pack or alternatively using ribbon gauze soaked in an oily paste like bismuth iodoform paraffin paste. At this stage, it is advisable to refer the patient to the on-call ENT specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 45
Correct
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You requested an evaluation of a 50-year-old individual who has come in with a two-day history of dizziness. The medical student has examined the patient and provided a tentative diagnosis of vestibular neuritis. What characteristics would typically be observed in a patient with vestibular neuritis?
Your Answer: Recent viral infection
Explanation:Vestibular neuronitis is believed to occur when the vestibular nerve becomes inflamed, often following a viral infection like a cold. This condition causes a constant feeling of dizziness, which can worsen with head movements. On the other hand, BPPV (benign paroxysmal positional vertigo) is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo lasting around 10-20 seconds, triggered by specific head movements. To diagnose BPPV, the Dix-Hallpike test is performed, and a positive result is indicated by a specific type of eye movement called nystagmus. In contrast, vestibular neuritis typically presents with horizontal nystagmus that only occurs in one direction.
Further Reading:
Vestibular neuritis, also known as vestibular neuronitis, is a condition characterized by sudden and prolonged vertigo of peripheral origin. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection. It is important to note that vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis are not the same condition, as labyrinthitis involves inflammation of the labyrinth. Vestibular neuritis typically affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 60, with a 1:1 ratio of males to females. The annual incidence is approximately 3.5 per 100,000 people, making it one of the most commonly diagnosed causes of vertigo.
Clinical features of vestibular neuritis include nystagmus, which is a rapid, involuntary eye movement, typically in a horizontal or horizontal-torsional direction away from the affected ear. The head impulse test may also be positive. Other symptoms include spontaneous onset of rotational vertigo, which is worsened by changes in head position, as well as nausea, vomiting, and unsteadiness. These severe symptoms usually last for 2-3 days, followed by a gradual recovery over a few weeks. It is important to note that hearing is not affected in vestibular neuritis, and symptoms such as tinnitus and focal neurological deficits are not present.
Differential diagnosis for vestibular neuritis includes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), labyrinthitis, Meniere’s disease, migraine, stroke, and cerebellar lesions. Management of vestibular neuritis involves drug treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo, typically through short courses of medication such as prochlorperazine or cyclizine. If symptoms are severe and fluids cannot be tolerated, admission and administration of IV fluids may be necessary. General advice should also be given, including avoiding driving while symptomatic, considering the suitability to work based on occupation and duties, and the increased risk of falls. Follow-up is required, and referral is necessary if there are atypical symptoms, symptoms do not improve after a week of treatment, or symptoms persist for more than 6 weeks.
The prognosis for vestibular neuritis is generally good, with the majority of individuals fully recovering within 6 weeks. Recurrence is thought to occur in 2-11% of cases, and approximately 10% of individuals may develop BPPV following an episode of vestibular neuritis. A very rare complication of vestibular neuritis is ph
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 46
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a nosebleed that began after blowing her nose an hour ago. You assessed her when she arrived 30 minutes ago and recommended that she try to stop the bleeding by pinching the soft, cartilaginous part of her nose. She has been doing this since then, but her nose is still bleeding. During the examination, you notice a small and easily visible bleeding spot in her right nostril.
What is the most suitable next step to take?Your Answer: Perform nasal cautery
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s airway and circulation.
If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated. Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula and collect blood samples for tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting studies, and blood typing and crossmatching (depending on the amount of blood loss). These patients should be closely monitored in a majors area or a designated observation area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there are signs of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the back of the throat.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply with pinching their own nose, an alternative technique is to ask a relative or staff member to apply external pressure using a device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones of the nose will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead has not been proven to affect nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may help reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it may be beneficial to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and inflammation. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 47
Correct
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A 6 year old is brought to the emergency department due to the sudden appearance of a widespread maculopapular rash. The child's parents express concern as they recently visited relatives in Nigeria where there was a measles outbreak. The symptoms are indicative of measles. What is a potentially severe complication associated with measles?
Your Answer: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Explanation:SSPE, also known as subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, is a serious and potentially deadly complication that can occur as a result of measles. While pneumonia and otitis media are commonly seen complications of measles, SSPE is much rarer. This condition involves inflammation of the brain and is believed to occur either due to the reactivation of the measles virus or an abnormal immune response to the virus.
Further Reading:
Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.
Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.
The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.
In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.
When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 48
Correct
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You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into the resuscitation bay by the ambulance crew. The patient was at home when he suddenly experienced dizziness and difficulty breathing. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG to you. You are considering administering atropine to address the patient's bradyarrhythmia. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the use of atropine?
Your Answer: Up to 6 doses of 500 mcg can be given every 3-5 minutes
Explanation:When treating adults with bradycardia, it is recommended to administer a maximum of 6 doses of atropine 500 mcg. These doses can be repeated every 3-5 minutes. The total cumulative dose of atropine should not exceed 3 mg in adults.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 2-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his father who is concerned as the child has developed a rash. The father tells you the rash started yesterday evening but only affected the face and behind the ears. Dad thought the child had a cold as he has had a dry cough, itchy eyes, and runny nose for the past 2-3 days but became concerned when the rash and high fever appeared. On examination, you note the child has a widespread rash to the trunk, limbs, and face which is maculopapular in some areas while the erythema is more confluent in other areas. There are small blue-white spots seen to the buccal mucosa. The child's temperature is 39ºC. You note the child has not received any childhood vaccines.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:The rash in measles typically begins as a maculopapular rash on the face and behind the ears. Within 24-36 hours, it spreads to the trunk and limbs. The rash may merge together, especially on the face, creating a confluent appearance. Usually, the rash appears along with a high fever. Before the rash appears, there are usually symptoms of a cold for 2-3 days. Koplik spots, which are blue-white spots on the inside of the cheeks (usually seen opposite the molars), can be observed 1-2 days before the rash appears and can be detected during a mouth examination.
It is important to note that the rash in rubella infection is similar to that of measles. However, there are two key differences: the presence of Koplik spots and a high fever (>38.3ºC) are characteristic of measles. Erythema infectiosum, on the other hand, causes a rash that resembles a slapped cheek.
Further Reading:
Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.
Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.
The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.
In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.
When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 50
Correct
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A 32 year old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, fever, and yellowing of her skin and eyes. Upon examination, it is evident that she is clinically jaundiced. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use. You suspect she may have acute hepatitis B infection. Which of the following serology results would best support this diagnosis?
Your Answer: HBsAg positive and anti-HBc IgM positive
Explanation:The presence of serum HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates chronic HBV infection. HBeAg can be detected in the serum during the early stages of acute infection and some chronic infections. Higher levels of virus replication are usually associated with the presence of HBeAg, making individuals with chronic HBV more infectious. If HBeAg is cleared, anti-HBe is typically detected, indicating lower infectivity. The presence of anti-HBe, along with a decline in HBV-DNA, suggests control of viral replication and the likelihood of resolving acute hepatitis B. The presence of anti-HBc indicates current or past HBV infection, appearing at the onset of symptoms in acute infection and persisting for life. However, it may be absent in the early stages of acute infection. Anti-HBc IgM indicates recent HBV infection within the last six months and can help differentiate between acute and chronic infection. Over time, it is gradually replaced by IgG anti-HBc. IgG anti-HBc generally persists for life and indicates past infection. Anti-HBs indicates recovery from and immunity to HBV. If anti-HBs is present without anti-HBc, it suggests immunization. The quantification of anti-HBs is used to measure the response to vaccination.
Further Reading:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.
Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.
Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.
In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.
Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial injuries. X-rays and CT scans of her face show that she has a Le Fort I fracture.
What is the most accurate description of a Le Fort I fracture?Your Answer: ‘Floating maxilla’
Correct Answer: ‘Floating palate’
Explanation:Le Fort fractures are complex fractures of the midface that involve the maxillary bone and surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the traumatic separation of the pterygomaxillary region. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening injuries and disfigurement.
The Le Fort classification system categorizes midface fractures into three groups based on the plane of injury. As the classification level increases, the location of the maxillary fracture moves from inferior to superior within the maxilla.
Le Fort I fractures are horizontal fractures that occur across the lower aspect of the maxilla. These fractures cause the teeth to separate from the upper face and extend through the lower nasal septum, the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, and into the palatine bones and pterygoid plates. They are sometimes referred to as a floating palate because they often result in the mobility of the hard palate from the midface. Common accompanying symptoms include facial swelling, loose teeth, dental fractures, and misalignment of the teeth.
Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal-shaped fractures, with the base of the pyramid located at the level of the teeth and the apex at the nasofrontal suture. The fracture line extends from the nasal bridge and passes through the superior wall of the maxilla, the lacrimal bones, the inferior orbital floor and rim, and the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. These fractures are sometimes called a floating maxilla because they typically result in the mobility of the maxilla from the midface. Common symptoms include facial swelling, nosebleeds, subconjunctival hemorrhage, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the nose, and widening and flattening of the nasal bridge.
Le Fort III fractures are transverse fractures of the midface. The fracture line passes through the nasofrontal suture, the maxillo frontal suture, the orbital wall, and the zygomatic arch and zygomaticofrontal suture. These fractures cause separation of all facial bones from the cranial base, earning them the nickname craniofacial disjunction or floating face fractures. They are the rarest and most severe type of Le Fort fracture. Common symptoms include significant facial swelling, bruising around the eyes, facial flattening, and the entire face can be shifted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 52
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a known history of asthma presents with a headache, vomiting, and dizziness. His heart rate is elevated at 116 bpm. He currently takes a salbutamol inhaler and theophylline for his asthma. He had visited the Emergency Department a few days earlier and was prescribed an antibiotic.
Which antibiotic was most likely prescribed to this patient?Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.
Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.
Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.
Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.
There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.
The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.
Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 53
Correct
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You evaluate a 58-year-old woman who presents with postmenopausal bleeding. She has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately one month. The patient is currently on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to alleviate vasomotor symptoms.
What would be the MOST SUITABLE next course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology service (for an appointment within 2 weeks)
Explanation:If you are a woman under the age of 55 and experiencing postmenopausal bleeding, it is important to seek medical attention promptly. One possible cause of this symptom could be endometrial cancer. To ensure timely diagnosis and treatment, it is recommended to follow the suspected cancer pathway referral guidelines provided by NICE. These guidelines aim to facilitate recognition and referral of suspected cancer cases. By adhering to these guidelines, you can increase the likelihood of securing an appointment for further evaluation within two weeks. to the NICE referral guidelines on recognition and referral of suspected cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 54
Correct
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A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recent onset back pain. After conducting a thorough examination, your findings raise significant alarm. You begin to suspect the presence of metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC).
What specific feature is the strongest indicator of MSCC?Your Answer: Localised spinal tenderness
Explanation:Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) occurs when a tumor mass compresses the thecal sac and its components, leading to a spinal emergency. If the pressure on the spinal cord is not relieved promptly, it can result in irreversible loss of neurological function. The most crucial factor for predicting functional outcomes is the patient’s neurological function before treatment. Therefore, delayed treatment can lead to permanent disability and a decrease in quality of life.
The most common cancers that cause MSCC include prostate, lung, breast, and myeloma. In approximately 10 to 20% of cancer patients, MSCC is the first noticeable symptom. It is important to consider MSCC in any patient with a history of cancer if they experience any of the following symptoms: severe or worsening lower back pain, nocturnal pain that disrupts sleep, localized spinal tenderness, radicular pain, or neurological symptoms.
Thoracic pain can also be an indicator of MSCC or an aortic aneurysm. In patients aged 60 or older with persistent back pain, myeloma should be considered. For patients aged 60 or older with accompanying weight loss, pancreatic cancer should be taken into consideration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in with vomiting, disorientation, and decreased urine production. His creatinine levels have increased by 150% compared to his usual levels over the past week. After conducting additional tests, the patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI).
What stage of AKI does he fall under?Your Answer: Stage 1
Correct Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This leads to the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body, as well as disturbances in fluid balance and electrolyte levels. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.
AKI is categorized into three stages based on specific criteria. In stage 1, there is a rise in creatinine levels of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50-99% from baseline within 7 days (1.5-1.99 times the baseline). Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours is indicative of stage 1 AKI.
Stage 2 AKI is characterized by a creatinine rise of 100-199% from baseline within 7 days (2.0-2.99 times the baseline), or a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours.
In stage 3 AKI, there is a creatinine rise of 200% or more from baseline within 7 days (3.0 or more times the baseline). Alternatively, a creatinine rise to 354 micromol/L or more with an acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50% or more within 7 days, is indicative of stage 3 AKI. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria (no urine output) for 12 hours also falls under stage 3 AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 56
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman has been referred to the Emergency Department by her primary care physician after a review of her digoxin prescription. Her physician reports that her current digoxin levels are elevated.
At what digoxin level is toxicity typically observed?Your Answer: 2 nmol/L
Explanation:Digoxin is a medication used to manage heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It works by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase in the myocardium, which slows down the ventricular response and has a positive effect on the heart’s contraction. Although less commonly used nowadays, digoxin still plays a role in certain cases.
One advantage of digoxin is its long half-life, allowing for once-daily maintenance doses. However, it is important to monitor the dosage to ensure it is correct and to watch out for factors that may lead to toxicity, such as renal dysfunction and hypokalemia. Once a steady state has been achieved, regular monitoring of plasma digoxin concentrations is not necessary unless there are concerns.
In atrial fibrillation, the effectiveness of digoxin treatment is best assessed by monitoring the ventricular rate. The target range for plasma digoxin concentration is 1.0-1.5 nmol/L, although higher levels of up to 2 nmol/L may be needed in some cases. It is important to note that the plasma concentration alone cannot reliably indicate toxicity, but levels above 2 nmol/L significantly increase the risk. To manage hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity, a potassium-sparing diuretic or potassium supplementation may be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 16 year old girl arrives at the emergency department with her friend following a fall from her skateboard. An X-ray reveals a dislocated shoulder. You inform the patient that the shoulder will require sedation for reduction. At what age is it generally assumed that a patient has the capacity to provide consent for treatment?
Your Answer: 18
Correct Answer: 16
Explanation:Patients who are 16 years old and above are presumed to have the ability to make decisions about their treatment.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 58
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with occasional episodes of excessive sweating, rapid heartbeat, and a sense of panic and anxiety. He measured his blood pressure at home during one of these episodes and found it to be 190/110 mmHg. You measure it today and find it to be within the normal range at 118/74 mmHg. He mentions that his brother has a similar condition, but he can't recall the name of it.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that originates from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. There are also less common tumors called extra-adrenal paragangliomas, which develop in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system. Both types of tumors secrete catecholamines, leading to symptoms and signs associated with hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.
The most common initial symptom is high blood pressure, which can either be sustained or occur in sudden episodes. The symptoms tend to be intermittent and can happen multiple times a day or very infrequently. However, as the disease progresses, the symptoms become more severe and occur more frequently.
Along with hypertension, the patient may experience the following clinical features:
– Headaches
– Excessive sweating
– Palpitations or rapid heartbeat
– Tremors
– Fever
– Nausea and vomiting
– Anxiety and panic attacks
– A feeling of impending doom
– Pain in the upper abdomen or flank
– Constipation
– Hypertensive retinopathy
– Low blood pressure upon standing (due to decreased blood volume)
– Cardiomyopathy
– Café au lait spotsIt is important to note that these symptoms and signs can vary from person to person, and not all individuals with phaeochromocytoma will experience all of them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 59
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She is experiencing pain in her left ear and has symptoms of a cold. Upon examination, her left eardrum appears red. She does not have a fever and is otherwise healthy. You diagnose her with acute otitis media.
What would be a valid reason to prescribe antibiotics for this child?Your Answer: Age less than 2 years
Explanation:According to a Cochrane review conducted in 2008, it was discovered that approximately 80% of children experiencing acute otitis media were able to recover within a span of two days. However, the use of antibiotics only resulted in a reduction of pain for about 7% of children after the same two-day period. Furthermore, the administration of antibiotics did not show any significant impact on the rates of hearing loss, recurrence, or perforation. In cases where antibiotics are deemed necessary for children with otitis media, some indications include being under the age of two, experiencing discharge from the ear (otorrhoea), and having bilateral acute otitis media.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 60
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a long-standing history of ulcerative colitis presents with a complication of his illness.
What is the SINGLE least likely complication that he has developed?Your Answer: Perianal fistula
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis can lead to various complications, although the development of fistulae is rare and less likely compared to other complications. Perianal complications associated with ulcerative colitis are uncommon and typically occur in cases with more extensive inflammation and a severe disease course.
The complications of ulcerative colitis can be categorized into localized and systemic complications. Localized complications include bleeding, electrolyte imbalance, toxic megacolon, perforation, an increased risk of colonic carcinoma, an increased risk of lymphoma, and the rare occurrence of stricture and fistula formation.
On the other hand, systemic complications of ulcerative colitis involve malnutrition and weight loss, iron-deficiency anemia, vitamin B12 deficiency, hypoproteinaemia, primary sclerosing cholangitis, primary biliary cirrhosis, chronic active hepatitis, joint pain or arthropathy, ankylosing spondylitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, and erythema nodosum. Additionally, ulcerative colitis can also lead to complications affecting the eyes, such as iritis, episcleritis, and uveitis.
Overall, while ulcerative colitis can present with various complications, the development of fistulae is rare and less likely compared to other complications. Perianal complications are infrequent and typically associated with more extensive inflammation and a severe disease course.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 61
Correct
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A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department with a painful burning skin rash. She has been feeling unwell for the past 2 to 3 days, experiencing a mild fever, headache, cough, and lethargy before the rash appeared. The patient recently started taking sulfasalazine one week ago for the treatment of ulcerative colitis.
Upon examination, the patient exhibits dark centred macules and blisters primarily on the face, neck, and upper body. The conjunctiva of her eyes appear red, and there are ulcers on her tongue. What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:The initial stage of SJS is characterized by a rash on the skin, specifically on the macular area. As the condition progresses, the rash transforms into blisters, known as bullae, which eventually detach from the skin.
Further Reading:
Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) are severe mucocutaneous immune reactions characterized by blistering skin rash and erosions/ulceration of mucous membranes. SJS has less than 10% total body surface area (TBSA) involvement, SJS/TEN overlap has 10% to 30% TBSA involvement, and TEN has more than 30% TBSA involvement. The exact cause of SJS and TEN is not well understood, but it is believed to be a T-cell–mediated cytotoxic reaction triggered by drugs, infections, or vaccinations. Drugs are responsible for 50% of SJS cases and up to 95% of TEN cases, with antibiotics and anticonvulsants being the most common culprits.
The clinical features of SJS and TEN include a prodrome of malaise, fever, headache, and cough, followed by the appearance of small pink-red macules with darker centers. These macules can coalesce and develop into larger blisters (bullae) that eventually break and cause the epidermis to slough off. Painful mucosal erosions can also occur, affecting various parts of the body and leading to complications such as renal failure, hepatitis, pneumonia, and urethritis. Nikolsky’s sign, which refers to the easy sloughing off of the epidermal layer with pressure, is a characteristic feature of SJS and TEN.
The diagnosis of SJS, SJS/TEN overlap, and TEN can be confirmed through a skin biopsy, which typically shows desquamation at the epidermal-papillary dermal junction and the presence of necrotic epithelium and lymphocytes. Management of SJS and TEN involves supportive care, withdrawal of the causative agent if drug-related, monitoring for metabolic derangement and infection, maintaining the airway, treating respiratory function and pneumonia, fluid resuscitation, wound care, analgesia, and nutritional support. Ophthalmology consultation is also recommended. Intravenous immunoglobulin, ciclosporin, corticosteroids, and plasmapheresis may be used in treatment, but there is limited evidence supporting their effectiveness.
The prognosis of SJS and TEN can be assessed using the SCORTEN score, which comprises of 7 clinical and biological parameters, with the predicted probability of mortality ranging from 3.2% to 90.0%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 62
Correct
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You evaluate the pupillary light reflex in a patient with a cranial nerve impairment. When the light is directed into the left eye, there is no alteration in pupil size in either the left or right eye. However, when the light is directed into the right eye, both the left and right pupils constrict.
What is the location of the lesion in this scenario?Your Answer: Left optic nerve
Explanation:The pupillary light reflex is a reflex that regulates the size of the pupil in response to the intensity of light that reaches the retina. It consists of two separate pathways, the afferent pathway and the efferent pathway.
The afferent pathway begins with light entering the pupil and stimulating the retinal ganglion cells in the retina. These cells then transmit the light signal to the optic nerve. At the optic chiasm, the nasal retinal fibers cross to the opposite optic tract, while the temporal retinal fibers remain in the same optic tract. The fibers from the optic tracts then project and synapse in the pretectal nuclei in the dorsal midbrain. From there, the pretectal nuclei send fibers to the ipsilateral Edinger-Westphal nucleus via the posterior commissure.
On the other hand, the efferent pathway starts with the Edinger-Westphal nucleus projecting preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. These fibers exit the midbrain and travel along the oculomotor nerve. They then synapse on post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers in the ciliary ganglion. The post-ganglionic fibers, known as the short ciliary nerves, innervate the sphincter muscle of the pupils, causing them to constrict.
The result of these pathways is that when light is shone in one eye, both the direct pupillary light reflex (ipsilateral eye) and the consensual pupillary light reflex (contralateral eye) occur.
Lesions affecting the pupillary light reflex can be identified by comparing the direct and consensual reactions to light in both eyes. If the optic nerve of the first eye is damaged, both the direct and consensual reflexes in the second eye will be lost. However, when light is shone into the second eye, the pupil of the first eye will still constrict. If the optic nerve of the second eye is damaged, the second eye will constrict consensually when light is shone into the unaffected first eye. If the oculomotor nerve of the first eye is damaged, the first eye will have no direct light reflex, but the second eye will still constrict consensually. Finally, if the oculomotor nerve of the second eye is damaged, there will be no consensual constriction of the second eye when light is shone into the unaffected first eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 63
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
What dose of phenytoin is recommended in the treatment of the convulsing child that reaches that stage of the APLS algorithm?Your Answer: 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes
Explanation:If a child who is experiencing convulsions reaches step 3 of the APLS algorithm, it is recommended to prepare a phenytoin infusion. This infusion should be administered at a dosage of 20 mg/kg over a period of 20 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 64
Correct
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You provide Entonox to a patient who has experienced a significant injury for temporary pain relief.
Which ONE statement about Entonox is NOT true?Your Answer: It is a 50/50 mix of oxygen and nitric oxide
Explanation:Entonox is a combination of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with equal parts of each. Its primary effects are pain relief and a decrease in activity within the central nervous system. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve the modulation of enkephalins and endorphins in the central nervous system.
When inhaled, Entonox takes about 30 seconds to take effect and its effects last for approximately 60 seconds after inhalation is stopped. It is stored in cylinders that are either white or blue, with blue and white sections on the shoulders. Entonox has various uses, including being used alongside general anesthesia, as a pain reliever during labor, and for painful medical procedures.
There are some known side effects of Entonox, which include nausea and vomiting in about 15% of patients, dizziness, euphoria, and inhibition of vitamin B12 synthesis. It is important to note that there are certain situations where the use of Entonox is not recommended. These contraindications include reduced consciousness, diving injuries, pneumothorax, middle ear disease, sinus disease, bowel obstruction, documented allergy to nitrous oxide, hypoxia, and violent or disabled psychiatric patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 65
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and persistent back pain a few days after spinal surgery. She has a temperature of 38.4°C and is highly sensitive over the area where the surgery was performed. On examination, she has weakness of left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Discitis
Explanation:Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.
The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.
When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.
Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.
A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 66
Correct
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You are managing a 65-year-old patient who has presented with confusion, shortness of breath, and a productive cough. A diagnosis of pneumonia and sepsis is made. You ask the nurse to administer oxygen to the patient. What target parameter would you use to guide oxygen therapy in this patient who does not have a known history of respiratory disease?
Your Answer: SpO2 >94%
Explanation:In this case, the most appropriate target parameter to guide oxygen therapy would be an SpO2 (oxygen saturation) level of greater than 94%.
Further Reading:
There are multiple definitions of sepsis, leading to confusion among healthcare professionals. The Sepsis 3 definition describes sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. The Sepsis 2 definition includes infection plus two or more SIRS criteria. The NICE definition states that sepsis is a clinical syndrome triggered by the presence of infection in the blood, activating the body’s immune and coagulation systems. The Sepsis Trust defines sepsis as a dysregulated host response to infection mediated by the immune system, resulting in organ dysfunction, shock, and potentially death.
The confusion surrounding sepsis terminology is further compounded by the different versions of sepsis definitions, known as Sepsis 1, Sepsis 2, and Sepsis 3. The UK organizations RCEM and NICE have not fully adopted the changes introduced in Sepsis 3, causing additional confusion. While Sepsis 3 introduces the use of SOFA scores and abandons SIRS criteria, NICE and the Sepsis Trust have rejected the use of SOFA scores and continue to rely on SIRS criteria. This discrepancy creates challenges for emergency department doctors in both exams and daily clinical practice.
To provide some clarity, RCEM now recommends referring to national standards organizations such as NICE, SIGN, BTS, or others relevant to the area. The Sepsis Trust, in collaboration with RCEM and NICE, has published a toolkit that serves as a definitive reference point for sepsis management based on the sepsis 3 update.
There is a consensus internationally that the terms SIRS and severe sepsis are outdated and should be abandoned. Instead, the terms sepsis and septic shock should be used. NICE defines septic shock as a life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure. Sepsis 3 defines septic shock as persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg or more, along with a serum lactate level greater than 2 mmol/l despite adequate volume resuscitation.
NICE encourages clinicians to adopt an approach of considering sepsis in all patients, rather than relying solely on strict definitions. Early warning or flag systems can help identify patients with possible sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 67 year old female attends the emergency department complaining of palpitations. The patient reports experiencing brief episodes of palpitations over the past few weeks, but they usually resolve themselves after 5-10 minutes. However, today's episode has been ongoing for 30 minutes. The patient denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. She is currently taking aspirin 75mg once daily as her only medication. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 115 g/l
Platelets: 155 * 109/l
White blood cells (WBC): 6.4 * 109/l
Sodium: 138 mmol/l
Potassium: 3.8 mmol/l
Urea: 4.1 mmol/l
Creatinine: 74 µmol/l
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR): 68 mL/min/1.73m2
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, revealing atrial fibrillation. You decide to assess the patient's bleeding risk using the ORBIT tool. What is this patient's ORBIT score?Your Answer: 1
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.
AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.
Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.
Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.
Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.
Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 68
Correct
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A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department during a heatwave after being discovered collapsed while wearing running attire. The patient appears confused and is unable to provide coherent responses to questions. A core body temperature of 41.6ºC is recorded. You determine that immediate active cooling methods are necessary. Which of the following medications is appropriate for the initial management of this patient?
Your Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are helpful in reducing shivering and improving the effectiveness of active cooling techniques. They are particularly useful in controlling seizures and making cooling more tolerable for patients. By administering small doses of intravenous benzodiazepines like diazepam or midazolam, shivering can be reduced, which in turn prevents heat gain and enhances the cooling process. On the other hand, dantrolene does not currently have any role in managing heat stroke. Additionally, antipyretics are not effective in reducing high body temperature caused by excessive heat. They only work when the core body temperature is elevated due to pyrogens.
Further Reading:
Heat Stroke:
– Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
– Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
– Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
– Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
– Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
– Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
– Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
– Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°CHeat Exhaustion:
– Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
– Core temperature elevated but <40°C
– Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
– Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
– Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and restOther Heat-Related Illnesses:
– Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
– Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
– Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydrationRisk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
– Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factorsManagement:
– Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
– Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
– Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
– Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
– Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
– Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 69
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, and purulent vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative and her last period was four weeks ago. Her temperature today is 38.6°C.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix. The most common culprits are sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea, with chlamydia being the most prevalent infection seen in UK genitourinary medicine clinics.
PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms do occur, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It’s important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be mistaken for PID, so a pregnancy test should always be conducted in patients with suspicious symptoms.
To investigate a potential case of PID, endocervical swabs are taken to test for chlamydia and gonorrhea using nucleic acid amplification tests. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic treatment as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made, without waiting for swab results.
Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings. However, patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.
The current recommended treatment for outpatient cases of PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.
For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment consists of intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. Afterward, the treatment is switched to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day course.
If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 70
Correct
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You evaluate an infant with bluish skin discoloration. The possibility of congenital cyanotic heart disease is being considered.
What is one of the potential causes of congenital cyanotic heart disease?Your Answer: Tricuspid atresia
Explanation:It is crucial to be able to distinguish between the underlying causes of congenital cyanotic and acyanotic heart disease. Tricuspid atresia is one of the causes of congenital cyanotic heart disease. Other causes in this category include Ebstein’s anomaly, Hypoplastic left heart syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot, and Transposition of the great vessels.
On the other hand, congenital acyanotic heart disease has different causes. These include Ventricular septal defect, Patent ductus arteriosus, Atrial septal defect, Atrioventricular septal defect, Pulmonary stenosis, Aortic stenosis, and Coarctation of the aorta.
By understanding the distinctions between these causes, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate diagnosis and treatment for patients with congenital heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 71
Correct
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A toddler is brought in with a severe headache and a high fever. You suspect a potential diagnosis of herpes simplex encephalitis.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, which of the following symptoms is MOST indicative of this condition?Your Answer: Focal neurological signs
Explanation:NICE has emphasized that there are particular symptoms and indications that may indicate specific diseases as the underlying cause of a fever. In the case of herpes simplex encephalitis, the following symptoms and signs may suggest its presence: the presence of a focal neurological sign, focal seizures, and a decreased level of consciousness. For more information on this topic, you may refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under the age of 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 72
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only passed a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 2 days, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
Which of the following is NOT a cause of AKI that occurs after the kidneys?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body and disrupts the balance of fluids and electrolytes. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.
The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases that develop outside of healthcare settings are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These causes typically involve low blood pressure associated with conditions like sepsis and fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated.
Pre-renal:
– Volume depletion (e.g., severe bleeding, excessive vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
– Oedematous states (e.g., heart failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
– Low blood pressure (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
– Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe heart failure, arrhythmias)
– Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, abdominal aortic aneurysm
– Renal artery stenosis
– Hepatorenal syndromeIntrinsic renal:
– Glomerular diseases (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
– Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged lack of blood supply
– Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
– Vascular diseases (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
– EclampsiaPost-renal:
– Kidney stones
– Blood clot
– Papillary necrosis
– Urethral stricture
– Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
– Bladder tumor
– Radiation fibrosis
– Pelvic malignancy
– Retroperitoneal -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 73
Correct
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You are managing an elderly trauma patient in the resuscitation bay. The patient has sustained severe chest contusions and you have concerns regarding the presence of cardiac tamponade. What is considered a classic clinical sign of cardiac tamponade?
Your Answer: Neck vein distension
Explanation:Cardiac tamponade is characterized by several classic clinical signs. These include distended neck veins, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds. These three signs are collectively known as Beck’s triad. Additionally, patients with cardiac tamponade may also experience pulseless electrical activity (PEA). It is important to recognize these signs as they can indicate the presence of cardiac tamponade.
Further Reading:
Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.
Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.
Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.
It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 74
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with a history of feeling generally unwell and having experienced fevers at home. He has a history of lung cancer for which he is currently undergoing radiation therapy. His observations are as follows: HR 92 bpm, BP 130/80, SaO2 98% on air, temperature 38.9°C. A diagnosis of neutropenic sepsis is suspected.
Which of the following antibiotics are recommended by the current NICE guidelines for the initial empiric treatment of neutropenic sepsis?Your Answer: Tazocin alone
Explanation:Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that can occur when a person has low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. This condition can be life-threatening and is often caused by factors such as chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, infections, bone marrow disorders, and nutritional deficiencies.
To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, patients must have a temperature higher than 38°C or show other signs and symptoms of significant sepsis.
According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the recommended initial antibiotic treatment for suspected neutropenic sepsis is monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin 4.5 g IV). It is important to note that aminoglycosides should not be used as monotherapy or in combination therapy unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological reasons to do so.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 25 year old female comes to the emergency department with a stab wound to her thigh. She explains that she was in a confrontation with a group of individuals, and one of them attacked her with a knife. She specifically requests that her information remains confidential and insists that the police not be involved. She expresses her fear of retaliation and emphasizes that she does not want to be seen as a snitch. How should you respond in this situation?
Your Answer: Inform the police there has been a stabbing but do not give them patient details
Correct Answer: Inform the police about this incident
Explanation:It is important to inform the police in cases of gunshot and deliberate knife wounds. Deliberate stabbings pose a risk of further attacks in the area and can endanger both the patient and the staff in the department. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides clear guidance supporting the need to involve the police in such situations.
According to the GMC, it is usually necessary to inform the police when a person presents with a gunshot wound. Even accidental shootings involving legally held firearms raise important issues for the police, such as firearms licensing. Similarly, the police should generally be informed when a person has been wounded in an attack involving a knife, blade, or any other sharp instrument. However, if a knife or blade injury appears to be accidental or a result of self-harm, it is not usually necessary to involve the police.
In cases where seeking consent to disclose personal information is not practical or appropriate, or if a patient refuses consent, it may be justified to disclose the information in the public interest. This is particularly true if failure to do so could expose others to a risk of death or serious harm.
Further Reading:
Principles of Medical Ethics:
1. Autonomy: Competent adults have the right to make informed decisions about their own medical care.
2. Beneficence: Healthcare professionals should take actions that serve the best interests of patients.
3. Non-maleficence: Healthcare professionals should not take actions that may injure or harm patients.
4. Justice: Healthcare professionals should take actions that are fair and equitable to both the individual and society as a whole.Confidentiality:
1. Use minimum necessary personal information and consider anonymizing information if possible.
2. Manage and protect personal information to prevent improper access, disclosure, or loss.
3. Understand and adhere to information governance appropriate to your role.
4. Comply with the law when handling personal information.
5. Share relevant information for direct care unless the patient objects.
6. Obtain explicit consent to disclose identifiable information for purposes other than care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or justified in the public interest.
7. Inform patients about disclosures of personal information they would not reasonably expect, unless not practicable or undermines the purpose of the disclosure.
8. Support patients in accessing their information and respecting their legal rights.Obtaining Patient’s Consent for Disclosure:
– Consent should be obtained for disclosing personal information for purposes other than direct care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or not appropriate or practicable.
Situations Where Patient Consent is Not Required for Disclosure:
– Adults at risk of or suffering abuse or neglect, as required by law.
– Adults lacking capacity, if neglect or harm is suspected, unless not overall beneficial to the patient.
– When required by law or approved through a statutory process.
– When justified in the public interest, such as for the prevention, detection, or prosecution of serious crime, patient’s fitness to drive, serious communicable disease, or posing a serious risk to others through being unfit for work.Confidentiality Following a Patient’s Death:
– Respect the patient’s confidentiality even after their death.
– If the patient previously requested not to share personal information with those close to them, abide by their wishes.
– Be considerate, sensitive, and responsive to those close to the patient, providing as much information as possible.The Law & Caldicott Guardians:
Data Protection Act:
– Sets rules and standards for the use and handling of personal data by organizations.
– Personal data must be used fairly, lawfully, transparently, and for specified purposes.
– Individuals have rights -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 76
Correct
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You observe that a patient's temperature has risen to 41.5ºC after rapid sequence induction. You are worried that the patient might be experiencing malignant hyperthermia. What is typically the earliest and most frequent clinical manifestation of malignant hyperthermia?
Your Answer: Increasing end tidal CO2
Explanation:The earliest and most common clinical indication of malignant hyperthermia is typically an increase in end tidal CO2 levels.
Further Reading:
Malignant hyperthermia is a rare and life-threatening syndrome that can be triggered by certain medications in individuals who are genetically susceptible. The most common triggers are suxamethonium and inhalational anaesthetic agents. The syndrome is caused by the release of stored calcium ions from skeletal muscle cells, leading to uncontrolled muscle contraction and excessive heat production. This results in symptoms such as high fever, sweating, flushed skin, rapid heartbeat, and muscle rigidity. It can also lead to complications such as acute kidney injury, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis. Treatment involves discontinuing the trigger medication, administering dantrolene to inhibit calcium release and promote muscle relaxation, and managing any associated complications such as hyperkalemia and acidosis. Referral to a malignant hyperthermia center for further investigation is also recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 77
Correct
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A middle-aged individual with a history of intravenous drug use and unstable housing presents with extremely intense back pain, elevated body temperature, and weakness in the left leg. The patient has experienced multiple episodes of nighttime pain and is struggling to walk. During the examination, tenderness is noted in the lower lumbar spine, along with weakness in left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
What is the preferred diagnostic test to definitively confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: MRI scan spine
Explanation:Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in intravenous drug users and those with weakened immune systems. Gram-negative organisms such as Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in 1-2% of cases post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.
The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, refusal to walk may also be a symptom.
When diagnosing discitis, MRI is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. CT scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.
Treatment for discitis involves admission to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is important to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a CRP, to the lab. The choice of antibiotics depends on the specific situation. A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis may include IV flucloxacillin as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy, IV vancomycin if the infection was acquired in the hospital or there is a high risk of MRSA, and possibly IV gentamicin if there is a possibility of a Gram-negative infection. In cases where there is acute kidney injury and Gram-negative cover is required, IV piperacillin-tazobactam alone may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 78
Correct
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You are called into the pediatric resuscitation room to assist with a child who has arrested. The team have just started the first cycle of chest compressions and have attached monitoring. You suggest briefly pausing chest compressions to check if the rhythm is shockable.
How long should the brief pause in chest compressions last?Your Answer: ≤ 5 seconds
Explanation:The duration of the pause in chest compressions should be kept short, not exceeding 5 seconds. This applies to both pausing to assess the rhythm and pausing to administer a shock if the rhythm is deemed shockable. It is important to note that a pulse check lasting less than two seconds may fail to detect a palpable pulse, particularly in individuals with a slow heart rate (bradycardia).
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient complains of a red and painful right eye. Upon examination, you observe conjunctival erythema. There is also mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting present in the eye. Based on the current NICE guidance, what is the recommended first-line antibiotic for treating bacterial conjunctivitis?
Your Answer: Chloramphenicol 1% drops
Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol 1% ointment
Explanation:When it comes to managing bacterial conjunctivitis, NICE provides some helpful guidance. It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment. However, in severe cases or situations where a quick resolution is necessary, topical antibiotics may be necessary. In some cases, it may be appropriate to delay treatment and advise the patient to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.
There are a few options for topical antibiotics that can be used. One option is Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops, which should be applied every 2 hours for 2 days and then 4 times daily for 5 days. Another option is Chloramphenicol 1% ointment, which should be applied four times daily for 2 days and then twice daily for 5 days. Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment and should be applied twice daily for 7 days.
By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage bacterial conjunctivitis and provide appropriate treatment options for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 80
Correct
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A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful rash that seems to be indicative of shingles. The rash is vesicular in nature and affects a single dermatome.
What is the most frequent location of reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in individuals with a healthy immune system?Your Answer: Thoracic nerves
Explanation:Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which primarily infects individuals during childhood as chickenpox. However, the initial infection can also be subclinical. After the primary infection, the virus remains dormant in the sensory nervous system, specifically in the geniculate, trigeminal, or dorsal root ganglia.
During the dormant phase, the virus is kept under control by the immune system for many years. However, it can later become active and cause a flare-up in a specific dermatomal segment. This reactivation occurs when the virus travels down the affected nerve over a period of 3 to 5 days, leading to inflammation within and around the nerve. The decline in cell-mediated immunity is believed to trigger the virus’s reactivation.
Several factors can trigger the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, including advancing age (with most patients being older than 50), immunosuppressive illnesses, physical trauma, and psychological stress. In immunocompetent patients, the most common site of reactivation is the thoracic nerves, followed by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.
Diagnosing shingles can usually be done based on the patient’s history and clinical examination alone, as it has a distinct history and appearance. While various techniques can be used to detect the virus or antibodies, they are often unnecessary. Microscopy and culture tests using scrapings and smears typically yield negative results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 81
Correct
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You evaluate a 47-year-old man with a history of increasing shortness of breath and a persistent dry cough. He has a smoking history of 25 pack-years.
The recent lung function test findings are as follows:
FEV1/FVC ratio = 85% predicted
FVC = 60% predicted
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:This patient has a history of worsening breathlessness and lung function tests that show a pattern of restrictive lung disease. In restrictive lung disease, the ratio of FEV1 to FVC is usually normal, around 70% predicted, but the FVC is reduced to less than 80% predicted. Both the FVC and FEV1 can be reduced in this condition. The ratio can also be higher if the FVC is reduced to a greater extent. Out of the options provided, only idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis can cause a restrictive lung disease pattern. Smoking is a risk factor for developing idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, especially if the person has smoked more than 20 packs of cigarettes per year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 82
Correct
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You assess a client with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. He reports a sensation in which he believes that individuals in close proximity to him are inserting their thoughts into his mind.
Which ONE of the following thought disorders is he exhibiting?Your Answer: Thought insertion
Explanation:Thought insertion is one of the primary symptoms identified by Schneider in schizophrenia. This symptom refers to the patient’s belief that their thoughts are being controlled or influenced by external sources, such as other individuals or entities. In some cases, they may even experience auditory hallucinations, hearing distinct voices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 83
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past day. She has no history of a cough and no symptoms of a cold. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is clear evidence of pus on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen and red. No swollen lymph nodes are felt in the front of her neck.
Based on the FeverPAIN Score used to evaluate her sore throat, what is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Treat immediately with empiric antibiotics
Explanation:Two scoring systems are suggested by NICE to aid in the evaluation of sore throat: The Centor Clinical Prediction Score and The FeverPAIN Score.
The FeverPAIN score was developed from a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and above. The score was tested in a trial that compared three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, or a combination of the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. Utilizing the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in the prescription of antibiotics (both reduced by one third). The inclusion of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.
The score comprises of five factors, each of which is assigned one point: Fever (Temp >38°C) in the last 24 hours, Purulence, Attended rapidly in under three days, Inflamed tonsils, and No cough or coryza.
Based on the score, the recommendations are as follows:
– Score 0-1 = 13-18% likelihood of streptococcus infection, antibiotics are not recommended.
– Score 2-3 = 34-40% likelihood of streptococcus infection, consider delayed prescribing of antibiotics (3-5 day ‘backup prescription’).
– Score 4-5 = 62-65% likelihood of streptococcus infection, use immediate antibiotics if severe, or a 48-hour short ‘backup prescription.’ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 84
Correct
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A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department from his nursing home due to the sudden onset of profuse foul smelling diarrhea over the past 2 days that has not improved. The patient has been feeling slightly unwell for the past few weeks and was prescribed a week-long course of amoxicillin by his GP for a chest infection, which he completed. He then started taking clindamycin for lower limb cellulitis five days ago, which he is still taking. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in determining the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Stool cytotoxin assay
Explanation:C. difficile diarrhoea is typically diagnosed by testing a stool sample for the presence of its toxin using the cytotoxin assay. This patient has several risk factors for developing c.diff diarrhoea, including recent use of broad spectrum antibiotics, being over the age of 65, and residing in a nursing home. The gold standard for diagnosing c.diff diarrhoea is the detection of exotoxin in the stool using the cytotoxin assay. The C13 urea breath test is used to detect h.pylori infection, while stool antigen testing is commonly used to detect h.pylori as well as rotavirus and other viral causes of gastroenteritis. Stool microscopy is utilized to identify the presence of parasitic organisms such as protozoa and helminths.
Further Reading:
Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with intense pain in her left eye and sudden vision loss in the same eye. She has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting. After conducting a comprehensive examination and measuring the intraocular pressure, you diagnose her with acute closed-angle glaucoma. You provide analgesics and administer IV acetazolamide as the initial treatment.
What other treatment option could potentially benefit this patient?Your Answer: Topical cyclopentolate
Correct Answer: Topical pilocarpine
Explanation:This patient has presented with acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is a serious eye condition requiring immediate medical attention. It occurs when the iris pushes forward and blocks the fluid access to the trabecular meshwork, leading to increased pressure within the eye and damage to the optic nerve.
The main symptoms of acute closed-angle glaucoma include severe eye pain, decreased vision, redness around the cornea, swelling of the cornea, a fixed semi-dilated pupil, nausea, vomiting, and episodes of blurred vision or seeing haloes.
To confirm the diagnosis, tonometry is performed to measure the intraocular pressure. Normal pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mmHg, but in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is often higher than 30 mmHg. Goldmann’s applanation tonometer is commonly used in hospitals for this purpose.
Management of acute closed-angle glaucoma involves providing pain relief, such as morphine, and antiemetics if the patient is experiencing vomiting. Intravenous acetazolamide is administered to reduce intraocular pressure. Additionally, a topical miotic medication like pilocarpine is started about an hour after initiating other treatments to help constrict the pupil, as it may initially be paralyzed and unresponsive.
Overall, acute closed-angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention to alleviate symptoms and prevent further damage to the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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You assess a patient who has a confirmed diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. She has been living with the disease for several years and is currently in the advanced stages of the condition.
Which of the following clinical manifestations is typically observed only in the later stages of Parkinson's disease?Your Answer: Loss of facial expression
Correct Answer: Cognitive impairment
Explanation:Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:
– Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
– Bradykinesia (slow movement)
– Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
– Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)Other commonly observed clinical features include:
– Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
– Loss of facial expression
– Monotonous, slurred speech
– Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
– Increased salivation and dribbling
– Difficulty with fine movementsInitially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:
– Postural instability
– Cognitive impairment
– Orthostatic hypotensionAlthough PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 87
Correct
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A 6-year-old child is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee. What is the appropriate dosage of IM adrenaline to administer?
Your Answer: 0.3 mL of 1:1000
Explanation:The management of anaphylaxis involves several important steps. First and foremost, it is crucial to ensure proper airway management. Additionally, early administration of adrenaline is essential, preferably in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. Aggressive fluid resuscitation is also necessary. In severe cases, intubation may be required. However, it is important to note that the administration of chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone should only be considered after early resuscitation has taken place.
Adrenaline is the most vital medication for treating anaphylactic reactions. It acts as an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist, which helps reverse peripheral vasodilatation and reduce oedema. Furthermore, its beta-adrenergic effects aid in dilating the bronchial airways, increasing the force of myocardial contraction, and suppressing histamine and leukotriene release. Administering adrenaline as the first drug is crucial, and the intramuscular (IM) route is generally the most effective for most individuals.
The recommended doses of IM adrenaline for different age groups during anaphylaxis are as follows:
– Children under 6 years: 150 mcg (0.15 mL of 1:1000)
– Children aged 6-12 years: 300 mcg (0.3 mL of 1:1000)
– Children older than 12 years: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000)
– Adults: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 88
Correct
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You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance with a 68-year-old individual who is undergoing treatment for cardiac arrest. After three defibrillation attempts and the administration of adrenaline and amiodarone, the patient experiences a restoration of spontaneous circulation.
What is the recommended target SpO2 following a cardiac arrest?Your Answer: 94-98%
Explanation:The recommended target SpO2, which measures the percentage of oxygen saturation in the blood, following a cardiac arrest is 94-98%. This range ensures that the patient receives adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia, which is an excess of oxygen in the body.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 89
Correct
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A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after ingesting 150 paracetamol tablets in a impulsive suicide attempt. The patient is now worried about the potential liver failure and other possible injuries associated with paracetamol overdose. What other organs or systems are at risk of injury in cases of paracetamol overdose?
Your Answer: Renal tubule
Explanation:When someone takes too much paracetamol, it can harm their liver cells and the tubules in their kidneys. This is because paracetamol produces a harmful substance called NAPQI, which is normally combined with glutathione. However, when there is too much NAPQI, it can cause damage and death to liver and kidney cells.
Further Reading:
Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.
Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.
The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.
In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.
The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 90
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial trauma. Imaging studies show that she has a Le Fort I fracture.
What is the characteristic injury pattern of a Le Fort I fracture?Your Answer: Horizontal fracture across the inferior aspect of the maxilla
Explanation:Le Fort fractures are complex fractures of the midface that involve the maxillary bone and surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the traumatic separation of the pterygomaxillary region. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening injuries and disfigurement.
The Le Fort classification system categorizes midface fractures into three groups based on the plane of injury. As the classification level increases, the location of the maxillary fracture moves from inferior to superior within the maxilla.
Le Fort I fractures are horizontal fractures that occur across the lower aspect of the maxilla. These fractures cause the teeth to separate from the upper face and extend through the lower nasal septum, the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, and into the palatine bones and pterygoid plates. They are sometimes referred to as a floating palate because they often result in the mobility of the hard palate from the midface. Common accompanying symptoms include facial swelling, loose teeth, dental fractures, and misalignment of the teeth.
Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal-shaped fractures, with the base of the pyramid located at the level of the teeth and the apex at the nasofrontal suture. The fracture line extends from the nasal bridge and passes through the superior wall of the maxilla, the lacrimal bones, the inferior orbital floor and rim, and the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. These fractures are sometimes called a floating maxilla because they typically result in the mobility of the maxilla from the midface. Common symptoms include facial swelling, nosebleeds, subconjunctival hemorrhage, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the nose, and widening and flattening of the nasal bridge.
Le Fort III fractures are transverse fractures of the midface. The fracture line passes through the nasofrontal suture, the maxillo frontal suture, the orbital wall, and the zygomatic arch and zygomaticofrontal suture. These fractures cause separation of all facial bones from the cranial base, earning them the nickname craniofacial disjunction or floating face fractures. They are the rarest and most severe type of Le Fort fracture. Common symptoms include significant facial swelling, bruising around the eyes, facial flattening, and the entire face can be shifted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 91
Correct
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You receive a needlestick injury after drawing blood from a 45-year-old patient. The patient is visiting due to experiencing frequent heart palpitations. Her only significant medical history is hypothyroidism, for which she is prescribed thyroxine.
What should be your initial course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Wash the wound with soap and water and gently encourage bleeding
Explanation:First and foremost, the immediate concern is providing first aid for the wound. It is important to wash the wound with soap (or chlorhexidine) and water, while gently encouraging bleeding. It is crucial not to scrub or suck the wound. Additionally, if there are any splashes or body fluid that come into contact with the eyes or mouth, they should be thoroughly washed.
For all healthcare workers who experience a needlestick injury, it is necessary to have a baseline serum sample taken and stored. This should be arranged through occupational health. The subsequent management of the injury depends on the risk of blood-borne virus transmission. This risk is determined by factors such as the source patient’s history (e.g. IV drug use), the circumstances of the injury (e.g. visible blood on the device, use of personal protection equipment), and the healthcare worker’s own characteristics (e.g. response to hepatitis B vaccination).
If the patient consents after appropriate counseling, blood may be taken from the source patient for blood-borne virus testing. However, it is important to note that the injured healthcare worker should not be responsible for counseling and obtaining consent from the patient. Lastly, all needlestick injuries should be reported to the Health Protection Agency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 92
Correct
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A 65 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 3 hour history of severe chest pain that radiates to his left arm and neck. On examination, his chest is clear and his heart sounds are normal with a regular rhythm. No carotid bruits are heard. The following observations are noted:
Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg
Pulse rate: 88 bpm
Respiration rate: 18 rpm
Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
Temperature: 37.2ºC
An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm and a chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. The patient's pain subsides after receiving buccal GTN (glyceryl trinitrate). Cardiac enzyme tests are pending. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Administer 300 mg oral aspirin
Explanation:For patients suspected of having acute coronary syndromes (ACS), it is recommended that they receive 300 mg of aspirin and pain relief in the form of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) with the option of intravenous opioids such as morphine. However, if the patient is pain-free after taking GTN, there is no need to administer morphine. The next steps in medical management or intervention will be determined once the diagnosis is confirmed.
Further Reading:
Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).
The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.
There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.
The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.
The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.
The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 93
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes in with right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. Her ROSIER score is 3. She weighs 60 kg.
What is the appropriate dosage of alteplase to give?Your Answer: 63mg
Explanation:Alteplase (rt-pA) is recommended for the treatment of acute ischaemic stroke in adults if it is administered as soon as possible within 4.5 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms. It is important to exclude intracranial haemorrhage through appropriate imaging techniques before starting the treatment. The initial dose of alteplase is 0.9 mg/kg, with a maximum dose of 90 mg. This dose should be given intravenously over a period of 60 minutes. The first 10% of the dose should be administered through intravenous injection, while the remaining dose should be given through intravenous infusion. For a patient weighing 70 kg, the recommended dose would be 63 mg. For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals over 16 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 94
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. He has been involved in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. You evaluate his airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. You decide to perform intubation on the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing early intubation in a burn patient?Your Answer: Superficial partial-thickness circumferential neck burns
Explanation:Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a burned patient. Airway obstruction can occur rapidly due to direct injury or swelling from the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated while maintaining cervical spine control.
There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, and neck, burns inside the mouth, large burn area and increasing burn depth, associated trauma, and a carboxyhemoglobin level above 10%.
In cases where significant swelling is anticipated, it may be necessary to urgently secure the airway with an uncut endotracheal tube before the swelling becomes severe. Delaying recognition of impending airway obstruction can make intubation difficult, and a surgical airway may be required.
The American Burn Life Support (ABLS) guidelines recommend early intubation in certain situations. These include signs of airway obstruction, extensive burns, deep facial burns, burns inside the mouth, significant swelling or risk of swelling, difficulty swallowing, respiratory compromise, decreased level of consciousness, and anticipated transfer of a patient with a large burn and airway issues without qualified personnel to intubate during transport.
Circumferential burns of the neck can cause tissue swelling around the airway, making early intubation necessary in these cases as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 95
Correct
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A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of lower back pain. He is currently experiencing discomfort and wants to know which pain medication would be most effective. You give him a self-help guide and discuss his treatment choices.
According to the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended initial pharmacological treatment for lower back pain? Choose ONE option.Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 96
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 45-year-old woman who has come in with an episode of dizziness. The patient mentions that she suspects she may be experiencing symptoms of Meniere's syndrome.
What would be a typical observation in a patient with Meniere's syndrome?Your Answer: Episodes lasting from a few seconds to a few minutes
Correct Answer: Associated tinnitus and low frequency hearing loss
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is characterized by recurring episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and low frequency hearing loss that typically last for a few minutes to a few hours. A patient with Meniere’s disease would be expected to experience these symptoms. During the Weber test, the sound would be heard loudest in the unaffected (contralateral) side. The Romberg test would show a positive result, indicating impaired balance. Additionally, the Fukuda (also known as Unterberger) stepping test would also be positive, suggesting a tendency to veer or lean to one side while walking.
Further Reading:
Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and low frequency hearing loss. The exact cause of the disease is unknown, but it is believed to be related to excessive pressure and dilation of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear. Meniere’s disease is more common in middle-aged adults, but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally.
The clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that can last from minutes to hours. These attacks often occur in clusters, with several episodes happening in a week. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure. Nystagmus and a positive Romberg test are common findings, and the Fukuda stepping test may also be positive. While symptoms are typically unilateral, bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests can be used to help diagnose Meniere’s disease. In Rinne’s test, air conduction should be better than bone conduction in both ears. In Weber’s test, the sound should be heard loudest in the unaffected (contralateral) side due to the sensorineural hearing loss.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms often resolve within 5-10 years, but most patients are left with some residual hearing loss. Psychological distress is common among patients with this condition.
The diagnostic criteria for Meniere’s disease include clinical features consistent with the disease, confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry, and exclusion of other possible causes.
Management of Meniere’s disease involves an ENT assessment to confirm the diagnosis and perform audiometry. Patients should be advised to inform the DVLA and may need to cease driving until their symptoms are under control. Acute attacks can be treated with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and hospital admission may be necessary in some cases. Betahistine may be beneficial for prevention of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 97
Correct
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A 28 year old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing 4 days of severe vomiting and diarrhea. A peripheral cannula is inserted, and blood samples are taken, revealing the following results:
Na+ 135 mmol/L
K+ 2.3 mmol/L
Ur 8.8 mmol/L
Cr 123 umol/L
The medical team decides to administer intravenous fluids. They plan to infuse a 1 liter bag of 0.9% saline with 40 mmol of potassium chloride. What would be the most appropriate duration for this infusion?Your Answer: 4 hours
Explanation:The recommended maximum infusion rate for IV fluids containing potassium is 10 mmol/hr in normal circumstances outside of the HDU/ICU setting, according to NHS SPS. However, in certain situations, higher infusion rates may be used. The BNF advises a maximum infusion rate of 20 mmol/hr for saline containing KCl, which is commonly administered to patients with DKA. If infusion rates exceed 10 mmol/hr, it is recommended to administer the fluids ideally in a HDU/level 2/ICU setting, through a central line, using an infusion pump, and with cardiac monitoring in place.
Further Reading:
Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.
Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.
Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.
Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.
In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 98
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes in with bothersome swelling in both ankles. This has developed since he began taking a new medication for high blood pressure a couple of weeks ago.
Which medication is the MOST likely culprit for this side effect?Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Amlodipine is a medication that belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers and is often prescribed for the management of high blood pressure. One of the most frequently observed side effects of calcium-channel blockers is the swelling of the ankles. Additionally, individuals taking these medications may also experience other common side effects such as nausea, flushing, dizziness, sleep disturbances, headaches, fatigue, abdominal pain, and palpitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 99
Correct
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A 25 year old female has been brought into the emergency department (ED) in the early hours of the morning after being discovered unresponsive in a parking lot behind a nightclub by the authorities. The paramedics initiated cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which has been ongoing since the patient's arrival in the ED. The patient's core temperature is recorded at 28ºC. You contemplate the most effective Rewarming strategy to employ. Which method of Rewarming is known for producing a rapid increase in core body temperature?
Your Answer: Cardiopulmonary bypass
Explanation:Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) is the most efficient technique for warming up a patient who is experiencing hypothermia. While other methods may also be suitable and may have already been initiated by the paramedic team, CPB stands out as the most effective approach.
Further Reading:
Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.
ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.
Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.
Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 100
Correct
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A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to their initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer a second nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide. How long would it take for the ipratropium bromide to have its maximum effect?
Your Answer: 30-60 minutes
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide is a medication that falls under the category of antimuscarinic drugs. It is commonly used to manage acute asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). While it can provide short-term relief for chronic asthma, it is generally recommended to use short-acting β2 agonists as they act more quickly and are preferred.
According to the guidelines set by the British Thoracic Society (BTS), nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) can be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.
For mild cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief, as long as the patient is not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug like tiotropium. The maximum effect of ipratropium occurs within 30-60 minutes after use, and its bronchodilating effects can last for 3-6 hours. Typically, treatment with ipratropium is recommended three times a day to maintain bronchodilation.
The most common side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Other potential side effects include constipation, cough, paroxysmal bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. It is important to note that ipratropium can cause urinary retention in patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction. Additionally, it can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients.
For more information on the management of asthma, it is recommended to refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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