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  • Question 1 - In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of...

    Correct

    • In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of wrist cutting. Upon evaluation, you determine that she has a personality disorder. What specific type of personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Anankastic personality disorder is a personality disorder characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. It falls under cluster C personality disorders according to DSM-IV classification.

      Deliberate self-harm is commonly associated with cluster B personality disorders. In the United Kingdom, poisoning by drugs accounts for 90% of deliberate self-harm cases, while wrist cutting accounts for 6-7%, and all other methods combined account for 3-4%. Frequent wrist cutting can be a part of recurrent suicidal gestures seen in individuals with depressive disorder, schizophrenia, and borderline personality disorder.

      The reasons for wrist cutting are varied and complex, including a means of punishment oneself, reducing tension, feeling bodily instead of emotional pain, wishing to die, testing the benevolence of fate, seeking an interruption to an unendurable state of tension, crying for help, communicating with others, and unbearable symptoms.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by impulsive acts, mood instability, and chaotic relationships. Individuals with BPD are impulsive in areas that have a potential for self-harm and exhibit recurrent suicidal gestures such as wrist cutting, overdose, of self-mutilation.

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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man presents with a persistent abnormal movement of his neck. He...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a persistent abnormal movement of his neck. He experiences opisthotonos, retrocollis and mild blepharospasm, which worsen when walking of stressed and are not alleviated by alcohol. He has a history of paranoid schizophrenia for the past eight years and has been treated with various antipsychotics. Currently, he is stable on clozapine. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tardive dystonia

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described are consistent with tardive dystonia, which is commonly observed in younger patients who have been exposed to neuroleptic medication. Orofacial dyskinesia is more frequently seen in older patients. The symptoms do not suggest Huntington’s chorea of non-epileptic seizures, as the latter typically do not persist. Friedreich’s ataxia typically presents with muscle weakness and lack of coordination. Tourette’s syndrome is unlikely to cause such severe motor neurological symptoms.

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  • Question 3 - Which of the following diagnostic characteristics is most strongly linked to schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diagnostic characteristics is most strongly linked to schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Second-person auditory hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Running commentary' hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Somatisation is a clinical feature that can be present in a variety of disorders and is not exclusive to schizophrenia. Delusions of guilt and grandeur are more commonly associated with affective psychosis, while running commentary is a classic symptom of schizophrenia and is given diagnostic significance in ICD-10.

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  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old woman presents to her doctor and reports feeling anxious and self-conscious...

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    • A 36-year-old woman presents to her doctor and reports feeling anxious and self-conscious in social situations, particularly at work meetings where she worries that her colleagues view her as unintelligent of uninteresting. Despite no one ever expressing such opinions to her, she avoids social gatherings such as football games, pubs, and family events. She notes that this has been a lifelong issue, but has become more severe since starting her current job with frequent meetings. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      An Overview of Anxiety Disorders

      Anxiety disorders are a group of mental health conditions that are characterised by excessive and persistent feelings of fear, worry, and apprehension. There are several types of anxiety disorders, each with its own unique set of symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      Social phobia, also known as social anxiety disorder, is characterised by intermittent anxiety that is associated with specific social situations. Individuals with social phobia often feel the need to perform of fear being scrutinised in these situations, leading to avoidance as a maladaptive coping strategy.

      Generalised anxiety disorder, on the other hand, is characterised by persistent free-floating anxiety that is not necessarily tied to any specific situation of trigger.

      Paranoid personality disorder is not typically associated with anxiety as a key feature, although individuals with this condition may experience other symptoms such as suspiciousness and mistrust.

      In contrast, paranoid schizophrenia may involve self-referential delusions, although the cognitive distortions seen in social phobia are not considered delusional.

      Finally, specific phobia is a category of anxiety disorders that involves intense fear of anxiety in response to a specific object of situation, such as heights of spiders.

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  • Question 5 - John is a 35-year-old businessman. He is seeking therapy for his anxiety and...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 35-year-old businessman. He is seeking therapy for his anxiety and the therapist is struggling to understand his constant need for attention and validation. They are also confused by his rapid mood swings, going from feeling hopeless and defeated to being overly confident and grandiose. He often shows up to sessions in flashy clothing and talks about his accomplishments and successes. His wife mentions that he has always been this way and that his charisma was what initially attracted her to him.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      John’s behavior is causing distress and impairment in his ability to participate in family therapy and may have contributed to his child’s depression. His behavior is consistent with histrionic personality disorder, which is only found in the ICD-10. This disorder is characterized by self-dramatization, exaggerated emotions, suggestibility, a shallow and unstable emotional state, a constant need for attention and excitement, inappropriate seductive behavior, and an excessive concern with physical appearance. Other associated features may include egocentricity, self-indulgence, a constant desire for appreciation, easily hurt feelings, and manipulative behavior to meet personal needs.

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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man presents with a potassium reading of 3.1 mmol/L. As there...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a potassium reading of 3.1 mmol/L. As there is no apparent cause, you schedule an appointment to conduct a thorough assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that he experiences strong cravings to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. He then takes laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and his body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa

      Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement. In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely. A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.

      Paragraph spacing:

      Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement.

      In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely.

      A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.

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  • Question 7 - You are on call for a general medical ward and are asked to...

    Incorrect

    • You are on call for a general medical ward and are asked to evaluate a 45-year-old woman who has been experiencing intermittent confusion and aggression for the past three days. She recently recovered from a severe respiratory infection but has been experiencing 20-minute periods of lucidity and confusion, preceded by abdominal discomfort. There is no history of substance abuse of alcohol dependence, and all blood and urine tests have come back negative. A CT scan of her brain is normal, and she has not been taking her prescribed medication during her hospital stay. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antibiotic induced psychosis

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Temporal Lobe Epilepsy

      Temporal lobe epilepsy, also known as complex partial seizures, is characterized by an aura of abdominal symptoms followed by altered consciousness and behavior. This episodic condition can occur rapidly. The presenting symptoms of this patient suggest an acute confusional state, ruling out antibiotic-induced psychosis, which is associated with ongoing antibiotic treatment. Delirium tremens, a severe form of alcohol withdrawal, is also unlikely. Early onset dementia cannot be associated with this presentation due to insufficient information. A differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

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  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old woman, with a lengthy history of alcohol misuse, presents in a...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman, with a lengthy history of alcohol misuse, presents in a disorganized and bewildered state. She has significant difficulty maintaining her balance. What clinical manifestation would provide the strongest evidence for a diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: Nystagmus and ataxia of gait

      Explanation:

      The typical symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy include ophthalmoplegia (such as horizontal and vertical nystagmus, weakness of paralysis of the lateral rectus muscles, and weakness of paralysis of conjugate gaze), ataxia (primarily affecting stance of gait, often without clear intention tremor), and confusion. If a patient presents with drowsiness, jaundice, and metabolic flap, it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. On the other hand, nystagmus and intention tremor are indicative of alcohol withdrawal.

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  • Question 9 - You observe a 42-year-old woman with delusions referred by her primary care physician....

    Incorrect

    • You observe a 42-year-old woman with delusions referred by her primary care physician. She is convinced that George Clooney is deeply in love with her. Over the past two months, she has attempted to send him 50 handwritten letters, along with numerous gifts. She frequently visits locations associated with the actor and places where he is attending public events. She believes that he is unable to express his true feelings for her due to the potential backlash from his wife and fans. What syndrome is being exhibited in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Correct Answer: De Clérambault's syndrome

      Explanation:

      De ClĂ©rambault’s syndrome is characterized by amorous delusions where the patient believes that a person of higher social status, often a public figure, is in love with them. These delusions are not based on any actual contact of encouragement from the subject. Patients with this syndrome may also experience delusions of persecution. Due to their strong belief in the reality of their delusions, patients often lack insight and may not seek help. Treatment can include psychotherapy and antipsychotics. Other syndromes with delusional symptoms include Capgras syndrome, Cotard’s syndrome, Ekbom’s syndrome, and Othello’s syndrome.

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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further assess their condition, you inquire about their seating preference when dining out.

      Which of the following responses would best support your suspicion?

      Your Answer: In a quiet corner

      Explanation:

      Individuals with social phobia experience anxiety and apprehension regarding the possibility of receiving unfavorable attention from others, leading them to avoid eating in public.

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Diagnosis (6/10) 60%
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