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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list?
Your Answer: Patients with proven anaphylaxis can be safely treated with immunotherapy in the community
Correct Answer: Allergy is more common in developed areas than rural areas
Explanation:Understanding the Causes and Patterns of Allergies
Allergies have become increasingly prevalent in recent years, affecting up to 30-35% of people at some point in their lives. This rise is seen not only in developed countries but also in those undergoing development. The causes of allergies are multifactorial, with both environmental and genetic factors playing a role. Outdoor pollution, particularly diesel exhaust particles, has been linked to an increase in respiratory allergies. The hygiene hypothesis suggests that inadequate exposure to environmental micro-organisms during childhood may result in a tendency towards allergy. This is supported by studies showing that children with regular contact with farm animals have a lower incidence of allergy. The pattern of allergy is also changing, with a significant increase in food allergies, particularly among children. Immunotherapy for allergies should only be carried out in hospital where facilities for resuscitation are immediately available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 2
Correct
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You have a female patient aged 30 who works in a factory producing latex products. She has developed asthma and you have referred her to the respiratory unit for further investigation into the possibility of occupational asthma. She wants to know what tests she may need.
Which test is of proven value in diagnosing occupational asthma?Your Answer: Serial peak flow measurements
Explanation:Diagnosis of Occupational Asthma
Investigations that have been proven valuable in diagnosing occupational asthma include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. To accurately measure peak flow, it should be measured more than four times a day at and away from work for three weeks. Results should be plotted as daily minimum, mean, and maximum values, and intraday variability should be calculated as a percentage of either the mean or highest value (normal upper value is 20%).
Occupational asthma can be confirmed if there is a consistent fall in peak flow values with increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work. Computer-based analysis may be necessary. It is important to note that these investigations are only useful when the patient is still in the job with exposure to the suspected agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man contacts the General Practitioner out of hours service for advice. He had a renal transplant five months ago. His family had a viral illness last week, which they managed with self-care and over the counter medications. He now complains of feeling unwell for the past three days. He reports feeling tired, with a fever and a headache and a mild sore throat. He can eat and drink and he has no rash.
You suspect that he may be experiencing an acute renal transplant rejection.
Which of the following signs or symptom would you most expect to see?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lower limb swelling
Explanation:Symptoms of Acute Renal Transplant Rejection
Acute renal transplant rejection can occur after a kidney transplant and is characterized by reduced urine output, leading to oliguria and water retention. This can result in swelling of the limbs or abdomen and face. Malaise and fatigue are common symptoms, but they are also present in upper respiratory tract infections. Fever may also be present, but it is a nonspecific symptom found in many infections. Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is not typically seen in acute renal transplant rejection. Headache is a nonspecific symptom and may be present in both acute infections and graft rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut allergy. She asks you about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis.
Which of the following pieces of information about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gradually increasing amounts of allergen are injected
Explanation:Hyposensitisation: Gradual Exposure to Allergens for Allergy Treatment
Hyposensitisation, also known as immunotherapy, is a treatment that involves gradually exposing a patient to increasing amounts of an allergen to reduce or eliminate their allergic response. The British National Formulary recommends this treatment for seasonal allergic hay fever and hypersensitivity to wasp and bee venoms that have not responded to anti-allergic drugs. However, it should be used with caution in patients with asthma.
The treatment typically lasts four weeks and can be administered through different dosing schedules, including conventional, modified rush, and rush. In a conventional schedule, injections are given weekly for 12 weeks, with the interval increasing stepwise to two, three, then four weeks. Maintenance treatment is then continued four weekly for at least three years.
Immunotherapy is recommended for patients with a history of severe systemic reactions or moderate systemic reactions with additional risk factors, such as a high serum tryptase or a high risk of stings, or whose quality of life is reduced by fear of venom allergy. Skin testing can be done, and measuring allergen-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies is less sensitive.
Patients need referral to an immunotherapy specialist, and injections can be self-administered at home. However, a healthcare professional who can recognize and treat anaphylaxis should be present at the time of injection, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation facilities should be available. The patient should be observed for one hour after injection, and any symptoms, even if mild, need to be monitored until they resolve.
While local or systemic reactions may occur, including anaphylaxis, major side-effects are not a significant risk. However, risks are higher in people with asthma. Overall, hyposensitisation can be an effective treatment for allergies that have not responded to other therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner as she has just discovered that she is pregnant with her first child. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B at the age of 19, following a needlestick injury when she was a student doing voluntary health work abroad and has no risk factors for other blood-borne viruses. She is generally in good health with no symptoms from her chronic hepatitis B infection. Her husband is vaccinated against hepatitis B, and she wants to know how her baby can avoid being infected.
What is the most appropriate advice to give her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her baby will need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B within 24 hours of birth
Explanation:Managing Hepatitis B in Pregnancy: Vaccination and Testing for Newborns
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. To prevent transmission, it is important to manage hepatitis B in pregnancy. Here are some important points to keep in mind:
– The baby should receive their first hepatitis B vaccination within 24 hours of birth. This is crucial to prevent transmission, as there is a 90% chance of the infant contracting hepatitis B without immunisation at birth.
– Subsequently, the baby should receive a further vaccination against hepatitis B at 4 weeks of age, followed by routine immunisations which include hepatitis B at 8, 12 and 16 weeks, and then a 6th and final hepatitis B vaccination at one year of age.
– Vaccination can occur at 8, 12 and 16 weeks of age, as per the routine immunisation schedule, but babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers require additional hepatitis B vaccinations.
– The baby should be tested for hepatitis B at 12 months old, at which point they should also have bloods taken to test for hepatitis B infection.
– The mother should not receive the hepatitis B vaccination at 28 weeks’ gestation, as this is not appropriate advice.
– The mother should not take antiviral therapy while pregnant and should not avoid breastfeeding her infant to reduce the risk of vertical transmission, as this is not necessary for hepatitis B.In summary, managing hepatitis B in pregnancy involves vaccinating the newborn and testing for hepatitis B at 12 months old. With proper management, transmission of hepatitis B from mother to child can be prevented.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent cough that has lasted for the last four weeks, with breathlessness at rest. He sometimes does casual work as a labourer, but he is finding that he is unable to keep up with this work due to his breathlessness and generally feels fatigued and 'not well'.
On further questioning, he reports night sweats and weight loss over the past 4-6 weeks. He is a non-smoker and is not on regular medication. He requests a course of antibiotics to make his cough better so he can get back to work.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)
Explanation:Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Differential Diagnosis of a Persistent Cough
A persistent cough can be a symptom of various respiratory conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. In the case of a homeless patient from Romania, the most likely diagnosis is pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), given the patient’s risk factors and symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, malaise, and breathlessness. To investigate this, three sputum samples and a chest X-ray should be arranged.
While lung cancer can also present with similar symptoms, the patient’s young age and non-smoking status make this less likely. Asthma is unlikely given the absence of environmental triggers and the presence of additional symptoms. Bronchiectasis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is characterized by copious mucopurulent sputum production, which is not described in this case. Pulmonary fibrosis is rare in patients under 50 years old and doesn’t typically present with night sweats.
In summary, a persistent cough can be indicative of various respiratory conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents to rheumatology with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and a known allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, and methotrexate are all viable options for first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs for rheumatoid arthritis in this patient. Sarilumab may also be considered, but only if the patient has not responded well to other medications and has a disease activity score of over 5.1.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising injections can help him overcome it.
Which of the following ‘allergic conditions’ is the one for which allergen immunotherapy (desensitising vaccines) is most commonly recommended?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to bee and wasp stings
Explanation:Allergy Treatment Options for Different Types of Allergies
Bee and Wasp Sting Hypersensitivity:
Patients who have a systemic reaction to bee or wasp stings should be referred to an allergy specialist. The first line of investigation is to demonstrate specific IgE by skin testing to both bee and wasp venom. Serum tryptase should also be measured to indicate the risk of future severe reactions. Patients should receive a written emergency management plan, an adrenaline auto-injector, and be educated in its use. Venom immunotherapy is effective in treating this type of allergy.Peanut Allergy:
Desensitization is not widely used to treat food allergy because of the risk of anaphylaxis. The British National Formulary approves its use only for bee and wasp venom and pollen allergy.Allergic Rhinitis:
Desensitization is available for severe seasonal rhinitis that has not responded to drugs. Sublingual or subcutaneous administration can be used, but it is recommended that only specialists use them due to concerns about the safety of desensitizing vaccines.Chronic Urticaria:
Chronic urticaria doesn’t normally have an allergic cause. Chronic spontaneous urticaria may be autoimmune, while chronic inducible urticaria is due to physical stimuli such as heat, cold, pressure, and sweating.Contact Allergic Dermatitis:
This type of allergy is not IgE-mediated but rather a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In contrast, bee and wasp venom and pollen allergies are IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity
Explanation:postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery
Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:
1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.
2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.
3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.
4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.
5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.
6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.
In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old unemployed woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with a persistent productive cough that has so far lasted six weeks, associated with shortness of breath and episodes of haemoptysis, as well as malaise and fatigue.
She is on lisinopril and amlodipine for hypertension. Her weight is 75 kg, a loss of 6 kg since it was last recorded at a hypertension check three months ago. She is a non-smoker and lives alone in a rented flat in a deprived area.
What is the most appropriate initial management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send sputum samples and request a chest X-ray (CXR)
Explanation:The patient is at high risk for tuberculosis (TB) due to his unemployment, living in a deprived area, and having diabetes. His symptoms, including a persistent cough with blood, shortness of breath, weight loss, and fatigue, suggest active TB. To diagnose TB, multiple sputum samples should be sent for analysis and a chest X-ray (CXR) should be performed urgently. A Mantoux test is not necessary in a symptomatic individual like this. A blood serology test for TB is not the recommended first-line investigation. A CT scan of the chest is not the first-line test for TB. The patient doesn’t meet the criteria for an urgent referral for suspected cancer, but if he were over 40 years of age, he would meet criteria for a CXR to look for lung cancer. However, even if he were over 40 years of age, his clinical picture with risk factors would still warrant sending sputum samples and arranging a CXR. The role of primary care is to make the diagnosis and refer the patient promptly for appropriate management and contact tracing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents to your GP clinic with a spider bite that occurred 7 days ago. The patient reports experiencing pruritus, urticarial rash, erythema, lip swelling, abdominal pain, and vomiting shortly after being bitten. The patient has been taking cetirizine daily from a home supply for the past week, which has resolved all symptoms.
What is the recommended follow-up plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to an allergy specialist
Explanation:If someone experiences a systemic reaction to an insect bite, it is important to refer them to an allergy specialist. In this case, the patient’s moderate reaction suggests the need for further evaluation by a specialist who can determine if an adrenaline auto-injector and medical identification bracelet are necessary. However, since the bite occurred 7 days ago and the patient is currently stable, there is no need to refer them to the emergency department or medical team at this time. Additionally, late-onset reactions typically occur within a few hours of the bite, so a follow-up appointment at the 2-week mark is not necessary.
Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short notice. His daughter has been taken ill on her gap year and is in hospital in Thailand, and he wants to travel over there within a few days. He is on interferon and ribavirin for chronic asymptomatic hepatitis C infection, which was diagnosed six months ago. He was fully immunised as a child and was given some additional vaccinations on diagnosis with hepatitis C. He wants to know whether there is time to have any travel vaccinations before he travels.
Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination to offer, which can be given up to the day of travel?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (DTP)
Explanation:The patient is planning to travel to Borneo and needs to know which vaccinations are appropriate to receive before departure. The DTP vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, is recommended and can be given up to the day of travel. Rabies vaccination is also advised for those visiting areas where the disease is endemic, but it requires a course of three injections over 28 days and cannot be given within days of travel. Hepatitis A is a common disease in many parts of the world and can be contracted through contaminated food and water, but the patient’s known diagnosis of hepatitis C means that she has likely already been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B. Hepatitis B is generally given as a course of injections over six months, which is not feasible for the patient’s short timeline. Japanese Encephalitis is rare in travelers and requires two separate injections a month apart, which doesn’t fit with the patient’s schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate advice to give to a patient with a confirmed food allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food allergens may be encountered by routes other than ingestion e.g. skin contact, inhalation
Explanation:Managing Food Allergies and Intolerances
Food allergies and intolerances can be managed through food avoidance. Elimination diets should only exclude foods that have been confirmed to cause allergic reactions, and the advice of a dietician may be necessary. It is important to read food labels carefully, although not all potential allergens are included. Cross contact of allergens during meal preparation should be avoided, and high-risk situations such as buffets and picnics should be avoided as well. It is also important to note that there is a possibility of food allergen cross-reactivity, such as between cows’ milk and goats’ milk or between different types of fish. Additionally, there is a risk of exposure to allergens through routes other than ingestion, such as skin contact or inhalation during cooking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You see a 6-month-old boy who you suspect has non-IgE-mediated cow's' milk protein allergy. He is exclusively breastfed. You would like to do a trial elimination of cows' milk from his diet.
What would you advise the mother to achieve this trial elimination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclude cows' milk protein from her diet for 4 weeks
Explanation:Managing Non-IgE-Mediated Cow’s’ Milk Protein Allergy in Infants
When dealing with a breastfed infant suspected of having non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy, it is recommended to advise the mother to exclude cows’ milk from her diet for 2-6 weeks. During this period, calcium and vitamin D supplements may be prescribed to ensure the infant’s nutritional needs are met. After the exclusion period, reintroducing cows’ milk is advised to determine if it is the cause of the infant’s symptoms. If there is no improvement or the symptoms worsen, a referral to secondary care may be necessary.
For formula-fed or mixed-fed infants, replacing cow’s milk-based formula with hypoallergenic infant formulas is recommended. Extensively hydrolysed formulas (eHF) are typically the first option, and amino acid formulas are an alternative if the infant cannot tolerate eHFs or has severe symptoms. It is important to note that parents should not switch to soy-based formulas without consulting a healthcare professional, as some infants with cow’s’ milk protein allergy may also be allergic to soy.
In cases where there is faltering growth, acute systemic reactions, severe delayed reactions, significant atopic eczema with multiple food allergies suspected, or persistent parental concern, a referral to secondary care should be considered. With proper management and guidance, infants with non-IgE-mediated cow’s’ milk protein allergy can still receive adequate nutrition and thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
Explanation:Common Infections in Kidney Transplant Patients
Kidney transplant patients are at a higher risk of infections due to immunosuppression. In the first month post-transplant, infections are similar to those in non-immunosuppressed individuals. However, in the one-month to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6, hepatitis A, B and C viruses, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are most problematic. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but routine annual administration of the injectable inactivated vaccine is recommended. Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions and even disseminated or visceral disease. Pneumonia and urinary infections are also common, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation and prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after transplantation. A small group of patients may experience persistence of viral infections and are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of progressive tiredness. She has been working alternative night and day shifts for many months. In the last two months she has experienced intermittent constipation. She reports that her diet is not great because of these awkward shift patterns but that she doesn't restrict it. She thinks she may have lost a small amount of weight over this period. Her legs ache after a long shift and that the tan she obtained in the summer seems to have lingered.
She has no significant previous illness and doesn't take any regular medications.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 222 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.8 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 56 µmol/l 45–84 µmol/l
Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/l 9–24 pmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.2 mU/l 0.4–4.0 mU/l
Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 39 mmol/mol < 41 mmol/mol
Ferritin 50 ng/ml 10–300 ng/ml
Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addison's disease
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with fatigue, weight loss, and electrolyte abnormalities
Addison’s disease: The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the adrenal glands and leads to a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. The gradual onset of symptoms, including fatigue, weight loss, muscle aches, constipation, and hyperpigmentation, along with mild hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, are consistent with this diagnosis.
Subclinical hypothyroidism: Although the patient has some symptoms that could be attributed to low thyroid hormone levels, her thyroid function tests are normal, making this diagnosis less likely.
Dietary related hyponatremia: Mild hyponatremia in a young person is unlikely to be caused by dietary differences or deficiency, suggesting a pathological process.
Renal disease: While electrolyte abnormalities could be a sign of renal insufficiency, the patient’s normal urea and creatinine levels make this diagnosis less likely.
Cushing’s disease: Although some symptoms, such as fatigue and muscle weakness, could be attributed to excess cortisol, other expected symptoms, such as weight gain and high blood sugar, are not present in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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In which scenario will skin-prick allergy testing be most valuable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 2-year-old boy whose mother says he is allergic to milk, eggs and fish.
Explanation:Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing
When dealing with a potential case of food allergy or intolerance, it is crucial to gather a detailed symptom history to identify possible allergens and determine if the reaction is IgE-mediated, which could lead to anaphylaxis. Symptoms such as acute urticaria, nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic, rhinorrhea, itchy eyes, or bronchospasm with a temporal relationship to the offending item may suggest an IgE-mediated reaction. However, it is important to note that many people attribute symptoms to food that are not actually caused by it.
To support or refute the mother’s suspicions, a skin-prick test and/or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods can be performed in conjunction with the symptom history. However, it is essential to remember that there have been cases of systemic reactions and anaphylaxis in food allergen skin testing, so referral is necessary in most cases.
Hay fever is typically diagnosed clinically, so a skin-prick test is unnecessary. Acute urticaria usually resolves within six weeks, so testing is also unnecessary unless the patient can identify a possible trigger. Skin-prick testing is not typically performed on asthmatics unless there is a likely precipitant that could be eliminated. For hairdressers, who are prone to both irritant and allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing would be appropriate for diagnosing delayed hypersensitivity.
Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old medical student is required to give a blood sample to check his hepatitis B status. He received a course of vaccinations nine months ago.
Which of the following is this patient’s blood test most likely to show?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-HBs
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves checking for various antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here is a breakdown of what each result means:
Anti-HBs: This antibody indicates that a person has been vaccinated against hepatitis B.
Anti-HBsAb + anti-HBc: The presence of both antibodies suggests that a person has had a past infection with hepatitis B and is now immune.
Anti-HBeAb: This antibody indicates that a person is less infectious and is recovering from an acute infection.
HBsAg + HBcAg: The presence of both antigens suggests that a person is currently infected with hepatitis B.
Immunoglobulin M to HBcAg: The presence of this antibody indicates that a person has recently been infected with hepatitis B.
Understanding these test results can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic reaction to a wasp sting. She presents to her General Practitioner (GP) a few days later as she is worried about the possibility of this happening again and is seeking advice on what she should do if it does.
What is the most appropriate initial self-management advice for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Self-administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of adrenaline
Explanation:How to Self-Administer an Intramuscular Injection of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The most effective treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular (IM) adrenaline, which can be self-administered using adrenaline auto-injectors (AAIs) such as EpiPen® and Jext®.
Before using an AAI, patients should receive proper training on their use. The recommended dose of adrenaline for adults is 0.3 mg, while for children up to 25-30 kg, it is 0.15 mg. Patients should carry two doses with them at all times, as the dose may need to be repeated after 5-15 minutes.
It is important to note that a cold compress is not an effective treatment for anaphylaxis, as it is a systemic reaction. Similarly, taking an oral antihistamine should not delay treatment with IM adrenaline.
If experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to administer the IM adrenaline injection immediately and then seek medical attention. Contacting emergency services is recommended, but should not delay self-administration of the injection. Additionally, if stung by a bee, the sting should be scraped out rather than plucked to avoid squeezing more venom into the skin.
In summary, knowing how to self-administer an IM injection of adrenaline is crucial for those at risk of anaphylaxis. Proper training and carrying two doses of the medication at all times can help ensure prompt and effective treatment in case of an emergency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A mother has brought her 10-year-old daughter to see the GP regarding a rash that developed after being bitten by a horsefly on her left arm while playing in the garden. The child developed multiple red rashes on her body and limbs within fifteen minutes, which were itchy and uncomfortable. The mother promptly gave her daughter cetirizine syrup, and the rash went down by the evening. The child has no history of allergies or any other symptoms.
During examination, the child's observations are normal, and there is only a small area of localised redness measuring 1 cm in diameter where she was bitten. There is no sign of infection. The mother shows a picture of the rash on her phone, which appears to be an urticarial rash, affecting the trunk, upper and lower limbs.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this 10-year-old girl?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to allergy clinic
Explanation:People who have experienced a systemic reaction to an insect bite or sting should be referred to an allergy clinic, according to NICE guidelines. This is particularly important if the individual has a history of such reactions or if their symptoms suggest a systemic reaction, such as widespread urticarial rash and pruritus. Immediate admission to the emergency department is necessary if there are signs of a systemic reaction. Treatment for large local reactions to insect bites or stings may involve oral antihistamines and/or corticosteroids, although evidence to support this is limited. Testing for serum levels of complement C1 inhibitor may be necessary in cases of suspected hereditary angioedema, which is characterized by recurrent oedema in various parts of the body. However, there are no indications of this in the case at hand.
Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old healthcare worker presents to her General Practitioner with an itchy rash on her hands. She reports that the rash develops quickly while she is wearing gloves at work and is diagnosed with a latex allergy. She also mentions experiencing similar symptoms related to food. Which of the following foods is she most likely allergic to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Banana
Explanation:Latex-Fruit Syndrome: Allergies to Certain Fruits and Vegetables
Latex allergies are immediate hypersensitivity reactions that can cause itching, urticaria, angioedema, anaphylaxis, and other symptoms. Latex-fruit syndrome occurs when there is a co-existing allergy to latex and certain fruits or vegetables due to cross-reactivity. The most common fruits associated with this syndrome are bananas, chestnuts, kiwi fruit, avocado, and tomato. Melon, apple, papaya, and potato are less commonly associated with this syndrome. It is believed that the resemblance of these fruits and vegetables to a latex protein component is responsible for the cross-reactivity. If you have a latex allergy, it is important to be aware of the potential for cross-reactivity with certain fruits and vegetables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review after undergoing a renal transplant three months ago. The GP notes that the patient's medication was changed following the transplant, with the addition of immunosuppressant medication. What is the most probable immunosuppressive drug regimen for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycophenolatemofetil (MMF), prednisolone, tacrolimus
Explanation:After a renal transplant, patients require immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection. There are four classes of maintenance drugs: calcineurin inhibitors, antiproliferative agents, mammalian target of rapamycin inhibitors, and steroids. Mycophenolate mofetil is a cost-efficient antiproliferative agent that reduces the risk of acute rejection by 50%. Prednisolone is a steroid that is typically used in low doses and gradually reduced over several months. Azathioprine may also be used in initial therapy, but a calcineurin inhibitor is necessary. Basiliximab may be used for induction therapy within four days of the transplant. Ciclosporin and prednisolone are both used for maintenance immunosuppression, but require an antiproliferative agent to complete the regimen. Sirolimus may be used with a corticosteroid in patients intolerant of calcineurin inhibitors, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A woman in her 30s presents with an eczematous rash on her hands suggestive of contact dermatitis, possibly related to wearing protective gloves at work. She requests confirmatory tests.
Select the single test that is most likely to be helpful establishing the diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patch testing
Explanation:Understanding Patch Testing for Contact Allergic Dermatitis
Patch testing is a diagnostic tool used to identify substances that may be causing delayed hypersensitivity reactions, such as contact allergic dermatitis. This type of reaction occurs when the skin comes into contact with an allergen, resulting in a localized rash or inflammation. During patch testing, diluted chemicals are placed under patches on a small area of the back to produce a reaction. The chemicals included in the patch test kit are the most common offenders in cases of contact allergic dermatitis, including metals, rubber, leather, hair dyes, formaldehyde, lanolin, fragrance, preservatives, and other additives. If a patient has identified a possible allergen, such as shavings from the inside of gloves, it can be included in the test. Patches are removed after 48 hours, and the skin is inspected for reactions. The patient may return after 96 hours to check for late reactions.
Skin-prick testing, intradermal testing, and measurement of specific IgE are used to investigate immediate hypersensitivity reactions. However, direct exposure to gloves is not usually helpful in diagnosing contact allergic dermatitis, as the patient needs to continue wearing them. Additionally, not all cases of hand eczema are allergic in origin and may be caused by constitutional eczema or irritant dermatitis. In these cases, patch testing may be negative or show an irrelevant result. Understanding patch testing and its limitations can help healthcare providers accurately diagnose and treat contact allergic dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute urticaria
Explanation:Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms
Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.
In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.
Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.
Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher with a history of eczema, seasonal allergies and high blood pressure visits her doctor complaining of itchy hives on her arms after wearing latex gloves for 30 minutes. She reports no difficulty breathing or facial swelling. Her vital signs are within normal range.
What is the probable mechanism involved in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity
Explanation:Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Characteristics
Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause damage to the body. There are different types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with their own characteristics.
Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity is a type of reaction that involves the release of antibodies against an antigen, resulting in mast cell degranulation and the release of inflammatory mediators. This type of reaction is characterized by the presence of weals and occurs within one hour of contact with the allergen. Atopic individuals, such as those with asthma and hay fever, are more susceptible to this type of reaction.
Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions produce symptoms 48-72 hours after contact with an allergen. Allergic contact dermatitis is an example of this type of reaction, which causes redness, itching, swelling, blistering, or bumps on the skin.
Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reactions occur when antibodies bind to antigens on the cell surface, interfering with cell function and marking the cells for destruction. This type of reaction is the basis for autoimmune diseases and haemolytic diseases in newborns.
Contact irritant dermatitis occurs when irritants remove oils and natural moisturizing factors from the skin, allowing chemical irritants to penetrate the skin barrier and trigger inflammation. This type of reaction presents acutely with redness, papules, swelling, and blistering, and progresses to redness, dryness, and cracking in the chronic stage.
Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies bind to free-floating antigens, forming antigen-antibody complexes that can deposit in susceptible tissue and cause inflammation and damage. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an example of a disease caused by this mechanism.
Understanding the Different Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents with her father with a history of tingling lips and mouth within minutes of eating kiwi. There are no other symptoms. It has occurred on a number of occasions over the past few weeks but only after eating kiwi. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of eczema. The pediatrician suspects the diagnosis is oral allergy syndrome.
What other condition is the girl likely to have been diagnosed with?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Birch pollen allergy
Explanation:Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Liam is a 6-year-old boy who has been brought to the emergency department by his father. He experienced swelling of his lips and an itchy mouth after eating a peach. Liam is generally healthy, with only mild allergies to pollen and occasional skin irritation.
During the examination, you observe that Liam's lips are swollen, and there are a few red bumps around his mouth. His chest sounds clear, and his vital signs are normal.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:The most common symptoms of oral allergy syndrome are itching and tingling of the lips, tongue, and mouth. This condition occurs when the body reacts to proteins in certain foods as if they were pollen due to cross-reacting allergens. While the reaction is localized, it can cause an itchy mouth or throat and sometimes hives. However, there is no evidence of anaphylaxis as there is no wheezing or hypotension.
While contact dermatitis is a possibility, it typically presents with a rash rather than swelling of the lips and an itchy mouth. The presence of hay fever also makes a diagnosis of oral allergy syndrome more likely. Eczema, on the other hand, presents as dry and red skin rather than swelling and itching of the lips.
Lastly, hand, foot, and mouth is a viral infection that causes a sore throat and high temperature. It can also cause ulcers in the mouth and blisters on the hands and feet.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with facial swelling that started 6 hours ago. She is a busy lawyer and has important court cases this week. During the examination, her lips are found to be swollen. Her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg and her pulse rate is 80 beats per minute. She reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loratadine
Explanation:The symptoms and signs exhibited by this woman suggest the presence of angioedema, which is a condition characterized by swelling of the connective tissue beneath the skin in response to a trigger. Unlike anaphylaxis, angioedema doesn’t affect breathing or vital signs. antihistamines are effective in treating this condition, while adrenaline is not necessary as it is primarily used to treat anaphylaxis. Hydrocortisone is also used to treat anaphylaxis, but it is not recommended for angioedema. Furosemide is typically prescribed for leg swelling caused by heart failure and is not suitable for treating angioedema. Chlorphenamine and loratadine are both effective in reducing swelling caused by angioedema, but since the woman has an important job that requires full concentration, loratadine would be the better option as it is a non-sedating antihistamine.
Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment
Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A father thinks his 4-year-old daughter may have a peanut allergy. Twice, recently, she has complained of an itchy mouth after eating a peanut butter sandwich. On the second occasion, her mouth became swollen and her father stopped her eating the sandwich and the symptoms gradually resolved. He wonders what he should do and has come to ask your advice.
What is the most appropriate advice you can give him regarding peanut allergy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The only treatment is to avoid peanuts
Explanation:Understanding Peanut Allergy: Myths and Facts
Peanut allergy is a serious condition that affects a significant number of people, especially children. However, there are many misconceptions about this allergy that can lead to dangerous situations. Here are some myths and facts about peanut allergy:
Myth: Most children with peanut allergy will outgrow the condition by school age.
Fact: While some children may outgrow their peanut allergy, only about 20% do so by the time they reach school age. Even if they seem to have outgrown it, the allergy may still recur.Myth: Only peanuts should be implicated.
Fact: About half of patients with peanut allergy are also allergic to other nuts, with almond being the most frequently cross-reacting nut.Myth: Skin-prick tests will confirm the diagnosis.
Fact: While skin-prick testing can be done, it is positive in only 50-70% of those with confirmed nut allergy. It is useful in excluding allergy but less so in confirming it. The RAST test is less sensitive and may not confirm clinical allergy. Oral food challenge is potentially risky.Myth: They need only be concerned about visible pieces of nut.
Fact: For some people with peanut allergy, even small amounts of peanuts can cause a serious reaction. Food that is exposed to peanuts during processing or handling can also be problematic. Aerosols or dust containing peanuts may give symptoms, as can direct skin contact.The only treatment for peanut allergy is to avoid peanuts. It is important to take this allergy seriously and to educate oneself and others about the risks and precautions necessary to prevent a potentially life-threatening reaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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