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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl comes to your urgent clinic after being hit in the left eye with a baseball. She reports pain and blurry vision in the affected eye. Upon examination, you observe some blood in a crescent shape along the inferior part of her cornea. The sclera appears white and the pupil reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Arrange a review in one week with an optician
Correct Answer: Urgent (same-day) referral to ophthalmology
Explanation:Ocular Trauma and Hyphema Management
Ocular trauma can lead to serious eye injuries, including hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. It is crucial to seek urgent referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management in such cases. The primary risk to vision arises from increased intraocular pressure, which can occur due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with hyphema require strict bed rest to prevent the disbursement of blood that had previously settled. High-risk cases may require admission to the hospital. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.
In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can result from retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency that requires immediate attention. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, rock hard eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect. Urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit, and it should be performed before diagnostic imaging.
Overall, prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist and appropriate management are essential in cases of ocular trauma and hyphema to prevent vision loss and other complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a lengthy bus trip. Which medication is the most effective for this condition?
Your Answer: Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:The order of effectiveness for treating motion sickness is hyoscine, followed by cyclizine, and then promethazine.
Understanding Motion Sickness and Its Management
Motion sickness is a condition characterized by nausea and vomiting that occurs when there is a mismatch between what the eyes see and what the vestibular system senses. This discrepancy can happen when a person is in a moving vehicle, such as a car, boat, or plane. The brain receives conflicting signals from the eyes and the inner ear, which can lead to discomfort and other symptoms.
To manage motion sickness, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends the use of hyoscine, which is available in a transdermal patch. However, this medication has limitations due to its side effects. Non-sedating antihistamines like cyclizine or cinnarizine are preferred over sedating preparations like promethazine. These medications can help alleviate the symptoms of motion sickness and make travel more comfortable for those who are prone to this condition.
In summary, motion sickness is a common problem that affects many people during travel. By understanding the causes and symptoms of this condition, individuals can take steps to manage it effectively. With the right medication and other strategies, it is possible to reduce the discomfort and inconvenience of motion sickness and enjoy travel without any issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME), or ‘glue ear’. Insertion of ventilation tubes (grommets) has been recommended. His parents are unsure whether to proceed and ask the GP about the benefits.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), which of the following is most improved due to this procedure?
Your Answer: Speech and language development
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The Short and Long-Term Effects of Grommet Insertion for Otitis Media with Effusion
Grommet insertion is a common surgical procedure for children with otitis media with effusion (OME). However, it is important to understand the short and long-term effects of this procedure.
Short-term hearing improvement is the only proven benefit of grommet insertion, with evidence showing improvement for up to 12 months after surgery. However, the effect diminishes after six months and grommets only remain effective while they are in place, which is usually an average of ten months.
In terms of behaviour and cognitive development, there is no evidence-based association between grommet insertion and improvement. Adaptations at school, such as seating arrangements, can help with educational attainment for children with OME.
Similarly, there is little evidence that grommet insertion improves speech and language development in the long term. Instead, parents and caregivers should focus on supporting speech and language development through activities such as daily reading.
Overall, while grommet insertion can provide short-term hearing improvement, it is important to consider other factors when making decisions about treatment for OME.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Correct
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A 32-year-old man comes to your GP clinic seeking advice on infertility. He and his partner have been attempting to conceive for 2 years. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and has a BMI of 24 kg/m2. There is no history of testicular torsion or sexually transmitted infections. His blood pressure and genital examination are normal. His partner has consulted her GP, who is arranging some blood tests for her.
What investigations should be conducted for this man?Your Answer: Semen sample and chlamydia testing
Explanation:For men with infertility, NICE suggests that the first primary care investigations should include semen analysis and chlamydia screening using a first void urine sample. Additionally, a clinical examination should be conducted to check for any indications of hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, or scrotal masses. It is recommended that a semen sample be produced after abstaining for at least 2 days but no more than 7 days. However, NICE doesn’t recommend screening for antisperm antibodies.
Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.
By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with a productive cough with yellow sputum. On auscultation of the chest, crackles can be heard in the right lower zone. He is on atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention of cardiovascular events. He is allergic to penicillin; therefore, a course of clarithromycin is prescribed for his chest infection.
What is the most important information that needs to be provided?Your Answer: Continue taking 20 mg atorvastatin
Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin
Explanation:Managing Atorvastatin and Clarithromycin Interaction
Explanation: When a patient is allergic to penicillin and requires treatment for a chest infection, clarithromycin may be prescribed. However, it is important to note that clarithromycin is a potent inhibitor of liver isoenzyme cytochrome P450 CYP3A4, which can affect the metabolism of drugs like atorvastatin. Here are some guidelines to manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin:
1. Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin to avoid potential toxic effects like rhabdomyolysis.
2. Simple linctus may help with cough, but stopping atorvastatin is the priority.
3. Continuing to take 20 mg atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin increases the risk of myopathy.
4. Report any muscle pain as it may be a sign of myopathy.
5. If concurrent use of atorvastatin and clarithromycin is necessary, prescribe the lowest dose of atorvastatin and monitor for symptoms of myopathy.By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin and ensure the safety of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The mother of a 4-year-old, newly diagnosed with coeliac disease, is seeking advice on her child's diet.
Which of the following foods is suitable for a gluten-free diet?Your Answer: Ready grated cheese
Correct Answer: Soy sauce
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease and the Importance of a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease affects 1 in 100 people, with a higher prevalence of 1 in 10 for those with a first-degree relative who has the condition. Patients with Coeliac disease must adhere to a strict gluten-free diet to avoid an increased risk of other diseases, such as small bowel lymphoma. Non-compliance with the diet is common, which can lead to symptoms and an increased risk of morbidity.
It is important to understand the general principles of a gluten-free diet, including the risk of contamination from cross-contamination and food additives. Some items that may contain gluten, such as baking powder, stock cubes, and soy sauce, may not be obvious and should be avoided. On the other hand, there are many safe, naturally gluten-free cereals, such as rice flour, tapioca flour, and cornmeal.
Checking a patient’s diet, compliance, and understanding is as important as checking inhaler technique in an asthmatic. While a detailed knowledge of a gluten-free diet is not expected, a broad understanding of the general principles is necessary to provide proper care for patients with Coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman developed nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps 4 hours after consuming a salad and a hamburger at a nearby restaurant. She subsequently experienced watery diarrhea a few hours later. Which single organism is most likely responsible for her illness?
Your Answer: Clostridium perfringens
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Types of Food Poisoning and Their Symptoms
Food poisoning can be caused by various bacteria and toxins that contaminate food. Here are some common types of food poisoning and their symptoms:
1. Staphylococcal food poisoning: This type of food poisoning is caused by preformed enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms include profuse vomiting and watery diarrhea, which can occur 1-6 hours after eating contaminated food.
2. Yersinia infection: This type of food poisoning is usually associated with improperly cooked meat. Symptoms may appear 3-10 days after ingestion of contaminated food.
3. Listeria monocytogenes infection: This type of food poisoning can develop from 2 to 70 days after eating contaminated food. Symptoms include mild flu-like symptoms with diarrhea and vomiting, but the elderly, pregnant women, newborns, and immunosuppressed individuals are at risk of more serious consequences.
4. Vibrio vulnificus-associated food poisoning: This type of food poisoning is caused by contaminated seafood, particularly oysters or undercooked shellfish. Symptoms usually appear 1-7 days after ingestion.
5. Clostridium perfringens infection: This type of food poisoning is caused by spores that can grow into new cells if cooked food is not promptly served or refrigerated. Symptoms include diarrhea and abdominal pain, but not fever or vomiting. Outbreaks are often linked to institutions or events with catered food.
It is important to handle and cook food properly to prevent food poisoning. If you experience symptoms of food poisoning, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presented, having had an episode of right-sided weakness that lasted 10 minutes a fortnight earlier and fully resolved.
Examination reveals that he is in atrial fibrillation.
Assuming he remains in atrial fibrillation which of the following is the most appropriate management regime?Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Correct Answer: No antithrombotic treatment indicated
Explanation:Thromboprophylaxis for High Risk Stroke Patients
This patient is at high risk for future stroke and requires anticoagulation with warfarin. To assess the risk of bleeding and stroke, it is important to calculate the HASBLED and CHADS-VASc scores. The CHADS-VASc score takes into account factors such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes, stroke history, vascular disease, and sex. If the score is 1 or higher, oral anticoagulation should be considered. If the score is 0, no anticoagulation is needed. If the score is 1 but the only point is for female gender, it is treated as a score of 0. In this case, the patient’s CHADS-VASc score is 2, indicating a need for anticoagulation. The target range for INR is 2-3, with a target INR of 2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Correct
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You are monitoring a 40-year-old male patient who has recently finished a two-week Helicobacter pylori treatment for dyspepsia. If he has ceased his eradication therapy today and is not on any other medication, what is the earliest time frame for conducting a urea breath test to confirm eradication?
Your Answer: In 4 weeks time
Explanation:To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of dysuria, visible haematuria, and feeling generally unwell for the past 24 hours. She also has a fever. The patient has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During the examination, the patient's abdomen is soft with slight suprapubic tenderness. There is no renal angle tenderness, and bowel sounds are normal.
What is the appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Encourage hydration and review in 24-48h
Correct Answer: Oral antibiotics and mid-stream urine (MSU)
Explanation:For women with suspected UTI accompanied by visible or non-visible haematuria, it is necessary to send an MSU along with oral antibiotics. Admission for suspected pyelonephritis is not required, but safety netting should be done. Encouraging hydration and reviewing in 24-48h is not appropriate for this case. Oral antibiotics without any investigations are not recommended. An MSU is essential in the presence of haematuria. Delaying antibiotics could lead to pyelonephritis, so a delayed prescription could be considered for less unwell patients.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
Select from the list the single feature that would make it LESS likely that this is a streptococcal infection.Your Answer: Tender anterior cervical lymph nodes
Correct Answer: Cough
Explanation:Differentiating between Viral Sore Throat and Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus
It can be challenging to distinguish between a viral sore throat and one caused by Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus (GABS) through examination alone. However, the Centor criteria can be useful in making this differentiation. These criteria include the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, absence of cough, and a history of fever. If a patient has three of these signs, there is a 40-60% chance that they have GABS. Conversely, if a patient doesn’t have three of these signs, there is an 80% chance that they have a viral infection. Additionally, the presence of a scarlet fever-like rash, a flushed face, circumoral pallor, and a white or red strawberry tongue may also suggest the possibility of a streptococcal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father. He is worried that she is not speaking as much as her peers, though she can say more than 60 words and uses them in short sentences. She prefers to play on her own and gets upset by changes in her daily routine.
On examination, she reacts to quiet speech, but is shy and avoids eye contact.
What is the most probable reason for her speech delay?Your Answer: Austism spectrum disorder (ASD)
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Delayed Speech and Social Interaction in a 3-Year-Old Child
Delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is autism spectrum disorder (ASD), which affects around 1% of children in the UK, with symptoms developing before three years of age. Children with ASD may have absent or delayed speech, a lack of collaborative or imaginative play, or an impairment of non-verbal or social interactions. Another possible cause is deafness, which affects 1-2 per 1,000 newborns in the UK. Symptoms of hearing loss include speech impediments, delayed speech, or behavioural problems. However, deafness is not the most likely cause if the child reacts to quiet speech and exhibits other typical behaviours associated with autism. Learning disability is another possible cause, but with the classic additional features of autism in this case, it is not the most likely cause. Neglect and normal development can also be ruled out as possible causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of delayed speech and social interaction in a 3-year-old child to provide appropriate interventions and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with age-related macular degeneration. He wants to know if he can do anything to prevent it from worsening.
What is the most crucial preventive measure? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Antioxidant supplements
Correct Answer: Smoking cessation
Explanation:Preventing Age-Related Macular Degeneration: Strategies and Misconceptions
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a leading cause of vision loss in older adults. While some risk factors, such as age and genetics, cannot be modified, there are strategies that can help prevent or slow the progression of the disease. However, there are also misconceptions about certain interventions.
Smoking cessation is the most important modifiable factor in preventing AMD. Current smokers have a two to three times higher risk of developing the disease compared to non-smokers. Quitting smoking can also reduce the risk of progression in those who already have AMD.
Antioxidant supplements, specifically the AREDS2 formula containing vitamin C and E, lutein, zeaxanthin, zinc, and copper, may reduce the risk of progression by 25% in patients with intermediate AMD. However, there is no evidence to support their use in lesser disease or primary prevention.
While some studies have suggested a benefit of eating oily fish, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends a diet rich in leafy green vegetables and fresh fruit to improve concentrations of macular pigment.
There is no conclusive evidence that statins, medications used to lower cholesterol, have an effect on AMD progression. Similarly, treating hypertension, while a risk factor for AMD, doesn’t reduce the risk of developing the disease.
In summary, smoking cessation and antioxidant supplements may be effective strategies for preventing or slowing the progression of AMD, while eating a healthy diet and managing other health conditions can also be beneficial. However, it is important to be aware of misconceptions about certain interventions and to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 14
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a six week history of progressive dyspnea. She has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease which has been relatively stable for the past two years since she quit smoking. Prior to quitting, she smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years. She denies any recent increase in cough or sputum production.
Upon examination, coarse wheezes are heard throughout both lung fields, consistent with previous findings. Additionally, finger clubbing is noted, which has not been documented in her medical records before.
What is the most appropriate course of management?Your Answer: Refer for an urgent chest x ray (report within five days)
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Chest X-Ray in Patients with Chronic Respiratory Problems
Unexplained changes in existing symptoms in patients with underlying chronic respiratory problems should prompt an urgent referral for chest x-ray. According to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered to assess for lung cancer in people aged 40 and over with specific unexplained symptoms or risk factors.
In patients with known COPD, the recent onset of finger clubbing should not be automatically assumed to be due to the pre-existing lung disease. Finger clubbing can occur in various types of lung cancer and mesothelioma, and it is less common in COPD alone. Therefore, an urgent referral for chest x-ray is necessary to assess for possible underlying malignancy. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
Which of the following statements about this condition is correct?Your Answer: If adequately treated, is unlikely to recur
Correct Answer: It may be precipitated by overzealous use of cotton buds
Explanation:Understanding Otitis Externa: Myths and Facts
Otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer’s ear, is a condition that affects the skin of the external ear canal. Here are some common myths and facts about this condition:
Myth: Otitis externa is always bacterial in origin.
Fact: While bacterial pathogens are frequently involved, viral and fungal pathogens may also be seen, particularly after prolonged use of corticosteroid drops.Myth: If adequately treated, otitis externa is unlikely to recur.
Fact: Otitis externa is commonly recurrent, especially in the presence of a predisposing factor, such as a chronic underlying skin disease, immunodeficiency or diabetes.Myth: Systemic complications are common.
Fact: Severe infections may cause local lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Rarely, infection may invade the deeper adjacent structures and progress to necrotising (malignant) otitis externa, a condition that can cause serious morbidity and also mortality. This is mainly seen in immunocompromised individuals, particularly people with diabetes.Myth: The use of aminoglycoside antibiotics is contraindicated.
Fact: In a patient who doesn’t have grommets or a perforated eardrum, aminoglycosides (eg gentamicin) or polymyxin drops are not contraindicated. When the eardrum is not intact, there is concern about ototoxicity. If necessary, they can be used in these circumstances, with caution, by specialists.Debunking Myths About Otitis Externa
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A father asks for some advice regarding the hearing test result of his 6-month-old baby. He tells you that he was told that the baby's hearing was 'not clear' in both ears when it was tested at the pediatrician's office. He says that the hearing test was repeated at the office and the repeat test gave the same result.
You check the clinical record and the screening result sent to the office confirms 'not clear' responses in both ears on both screening tests. He says that he was given some information at the time about the result of the hearing test but cannot remember what was said and cannot find the leaflet he was given.
Which of the following should you advise?Your Answer: If the mother wishes, the baby can be retested, otherwise she should be advised on how to check her baby's hearing as it grows
Correct Answer: She can be reassured that even with 'not clear' responses in both ears then the baby will be very unlikely have a hearing problem
Explanation:Newborn Hearing Screening in the UK
The newborn hearing screening is a routine test that takes place shortly after birth in hospitals across the UK. If a clear response is found in both ears, no further action is needed. However, if there is not a clear response in both ears, further testing may be required. The screening programmes differ between England, Scotland, and Wales. In Wales, a clear response in one ear doesn’t automatically prompt further investigation, but parents are given the option to have another hearing screening test or wait until their baby is nine months old for a hearing test. In England and Scotland, further testing is automatically arranged if there is a clear response in only one ear.
For newborns with ‘not clear’ responses bilaterally, further testing is necessary to determine if there is a significant hearing deficit. It is important to note that early detection and intervention for hearing loss can greatly improve a child’s language and communication skills. The UK National Screening Committee provides more information on newborn hearing screening across the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 77-year-old-man presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent right ear pain and discharge. He was previously diagnosed with otitis externa and prescribed antibiotic ear drops by a colleague, followed by further antibiotic drops and tramadol by an out of hours doctor. However, his symptoms have not improved and the pain has become unbearable.
The patient has a medical history of type-2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, and takes metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, and atorvastatin regularly. He has no known drug allergies and doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.
Upon examination, debris is observed in the right ear canal, but the tympanic membrane remains visible. There is no erythema of the pinna or mastoid swelling, and cranial nerve examination is normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Prescribe a buprenorphine patch
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to on-call ENT team
Explanation:If a patient with otitis externa experiences worsening pain that doesn’t respond to strong painkillers, it is important to refer them urgently to an ENT specialist. This is especially true if the patient has a history of diabetes, as they are at a higher risk of developing malignant (necrotising) otitis externa. In advanced stages, this condition can cause facial nerve palsy on the same side as the affected ear. Treatment typically involves a long course of intravenous antibiotics, which is why prompt ENT assessment is crucial.
While oral antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin may be prescribed alongside ear drops if there is concern about deep tissue infection, most patients will require IV antibiotics. However, the priority in this situation is to escalate the case to an ENT specialist rather than focusing on pain relief or swabbing the ear canal. It is also important to avoid syringing the ear, as this can worsen the condition.
Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection
Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.
Key features in the patient’s history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and persistent ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and facial nerve dysfunction.
Diagnosis is typically done through a CT scan, and non-resolving otitis externa with worsening pain should be referred urgently to an ENT specialist. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonas infections.
In summary, malignant otitis externa is a rare but serious infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with diabetes or immunosuppression should be particularly vigilant for symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience persistent ear pain or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Correct
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What is a risk factor that can contribute to the development and advancement of diabetic retinal disease?
Your Answer: Microalbuminuria
Explanation:Risk Factors for Diabetic Retinal Disease
Poor glycaemic control, raised blood pressure, increasing number of microaneurysms, duration of diabetes, microalbuminuria, raised triglycerides and lowered haematocrit, and pregnancy are all risk factors that have been shown to determine the development and progression of diabetic retinal disease, according to SIGN guidelines. Smoking is thought to be an independent risk factor in type 1 diabetes, but the evidence in type 2 diabetes is more controversial. It is important for individuals with diabetes to manage these risk factors in order to reduce their risk of developing diabetic retinal disease. By maintaining good glycaemic control, controlling blood pressure, and monitoring for microalbuminuria and other risk factors, individuals with diabetes can help protect their vision and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 4-year-old girl who has been brought in by her father with a 2 day history of cough and fever. Her father describes the cough sounds like a bark and today Sophie has appeared more breathless.
On examination, Sophie appears alert with moist mucous membranes. You observe nasal flaring and moderate intercostal recession. You check Sophie's temperature which is 38.2°C and oxygen saturation is 97% in air. Her respiratory rate is 52 breaths per minute and heart rate is 138 beats per minute.
What red flag symptoms have you observed in Sophie?Your Answer: Temperature of 38.2°C
Correct Answer: Moderate intercostal recession
Explanation:When a child has a fever, moderate or severe intercostal recession is a concerning symptom. This is considered a red flag according to NICE guidelines, which indicate a high risk of serious illness. Other red flag symptoms include those in the amber risk category, such as nasal flaring and a respiratory rate over 40 breaths per minute for children over 12 months old. A heart rate of 138 beats per minute is not a red flag symptom, but a heart rate over 140 beats per minute for children aged 2-5 years is considered an amber symptom. A temperature of 38°C or higher is only a red flag symptom for infants aged 0-3 months.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic with a medical history of type 1 diabetes for the past 30 years. His blood pressure is 122/72, and his most recent HbA1c level is 53 mmol/mol. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with microalbuminuria.
What can be said about the man's condition?Your Answer: Microalbuminuria is the excretion of smaller than usual particles of albumin
Correct Answer: Underlying nephropathy can be reversed by tight BP control
Explanation:Diabetic Nephropathy and Microalbuminuria
Death in young diabetics is often caused by end stage diabetic nephropathy, which can lead to ESRF within 10 years if proteinuria has developed. However, interventions can help prevent this outcome. One of the earliest signs of diabetic nephropathy is microalbuminuria, which is characterized by an albumin excretion of 30-300 micrograms per day. It is important to note that microalbuminuria doesn’t mean that the albumin is smaller. Tight control of both blood pressure and glucose levels can help reduce the progression of microalbuminuria and renal failure. Even if blood pressure is normal, ACE inhibition is still important in managing diabetic nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She was feeling a bit sick yesterday with a fever, tiredness, and a sore throat. Today, her father is concerned as he has noticed 'blisters' in and around her mouth and she is refusing to eat or drink. During the examination, the child appears unhappy but not seriously ill, her temperature is 38.2ºC and she has a combination of shallow ulcers and red papules scattered over her hard palate, tongue, and lips. Upon further examination, a few red maculopapular lesions are also visible along the sides of her fingers, around her left heel, and over her buttocks. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease
Explanation:Hand foot and mouth disease is the correct answer. The patient’s history reveals a mild illness with symptoms such as systemic upset, sore throat, and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and lesions on the hands and feet. It is worth noting that the lesions may also be present in the groin or buttocks area. The rash is characterized by scattered erythematous macules and papules, usually with a central greyish vesicle measuring around 25 mm.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in the Scottish Highlands ten days ago. He found an insect attached to the skin of her abdomen and removed it but is concerned it may have been a tick. She has now developed a circular erythematous rash that has begun to radiate out from the bite.
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Lyme Disease: Early Manifestations and Treatment Options
Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Its early manifestation is erythema chronicum migrans, which can progress to neurological, cardiovascular, or arthritic symptoms. Different strains of Borrelia spp. cause varying clinical manifestations, leading to differences in symptoms between countries. The disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. or deer ticks. Early use of antibiotics can prevent persistent, recurrent, and refractory Lyme disease. Antibiotics shorten the clinical course and progression.
In patients with erythema migrans alone, oral drug therapies can be started in primary care. Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily or 200 mg once daily for 21 days) is the first choice for patients aged 12 years or older. Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily for 21 days) is the first alternative, while azithromycin (500 mg daily for 17 days) is the second alternative but should be avoided in patients with cardiac abnormalities caused by Lyme disease. If there is any suggestion of cellulitis, co-amoxiclav or amoxicillin and flucloxacillin alone would be more appropriate.
In the USA, a single dose of 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal can prevent Lyme disease from developing. However, the risk in the UK is not high enough to warrant prophylactic antibiotics. Antibody testing in patients with erythema migrans is unhelpful as the rash develops before the antibodies. It is important to discuss management with a microbiologist, especially if there are further manifestations. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 75-year-old man admitted to the care of the elderly ward is experiencing diarrhoea and has been isolated in a side room with barrier nursing due to the isolation of Clostridium difficile in his stool samples. What medication is most likely causing his diarrhoea?
Your Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly associated with an increased risk of developing C. difficile infection. This is because broad spectrum antibiotics, including clindamycin, can disrupt the normal gut flora and allow for the overgrowth of C. difficile. Other antibiotics commonly used to treat C. difficile include vancomycin and metronidazole, which are administered orally to ensure high concentrations in the colon. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole are also believed to contribute to the development of C. difficile infection.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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Sophie is a 6-year-old girl who comes to see the GP with her mother. Her mother has observed that the labia seem to be joined together in one spot. She is urinating normally and growing and developing typically in all other aspects. What guidance would you offer?
Your Answer: Reassure as likely to resolve spontaneously
Explanation:Gemma has been diagnosed with labial adhesion, which typically resolves on its own without the need for treatment unless there are issues with urination. If urination problems arise, a topical oestrogen cream may be used. Since Gemma is not experiencing any urination problems, no treatment is necessary, and her symptoms are expected to resolve naturally. There is no need to refer her to social services as labial adhesions do not necessarily indicate safeguarding concerns, and there is no other information in her medical history to suggest such concerns. Additionally, genetic testing or a referral to a paediatric surgeon is not necessary as this condition is common and usually resolves on its own.
Labial Adhesions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.
Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.
Conservative management is usually appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.
In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can cause problems with urination. While conservative management is usually effective, medical intervention may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of progressive numbness in his feet and weakness in his lower limbs. These symptoms have developed over the past week. He has a broad-based ataxic gait. He has a history of using 'laughing gas' recreationally. His aunt has multiple sclerosis (MS) and he is concerned that he may be experiencing the first signs of the condition. What neurological finding would be most indicative of an alternative diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bilateral up-going plantar responses
Correct Answer: Absent ankle jerk
Explanation:Distinguishing between Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Multiple Sclerosis: Neurological Manifestations
Neurological manifestations can help distinguish between vitamin B12 deficiency and multiple sclerosis (MS). Vitamin B12 deficiency causes degeneration of the white matter in the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord, peripheral nerves, optic nerves, and cerebral hemispheres. Chronic inhalation of nitrous oxide is an increasingly common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency. On the other hand, MS is a demyelinating disease that primarily affects the white matter of the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves.
Sensory peripheral neuropathy, absent distal tendon reflexes, and distal sensory loss are neurological manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency. In contrast, sensory loss consistent with peripheral neuropathy and absent ankle jerks are not features of MS. Ataxia, which is the lack of muscle coordination, is a feature of both subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord and MS.
Barber’s chair sign, an electrical sensation that runs down the back and into the limbs, can be elicited by bending the head forward or lapping on the posterior cervical spine while the neck is flexed. It is caused by the involvement of the posterior columns and is most commonly associated with MS. However, it may also occur in other lesions of the cervical cord, such as cord compression, syringomyelia, and vitamin B12 deficiency.
Bilateral up-going plantar responses signify advanced subacute combined degeneration of the cord and pyramidal signs associated with MS. Optic atrophy, the degeneration of the optic nerve, is a common feature of MS and subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight with his best friend. He is found by his roommate and rushed to the hospital.
What is the most significant factor that suggests a high likelihood of successful suicide?Your Answer: Making efforts to not be found
Explanation:The risk of completed suicide is heightened when attempts are made to avoid being discovered. Additionally, the presence of certain factors such as writing a note, making plans, sorting out affairs, and using violent methods also increase the risk. However, there is no evidence to suggest that an overdose of paracetamol and alcohol increases the risk of completed suicide. While a history of deliberate self harm does increase the risk of suicide, it doesn’t necessarily increase the risk of completed suicide. Furthermore, an impulsive suicide attempt is considered less concerning than a meticulously planned one.
The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough and fever. He has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years.
On examination he has dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right lung base. He doesn't have any pain and is not breathless. You arrange a chest x ray, prescribe antibiotics and review him in one week.
He now feels better with less cough and no fever. His chest x ray reports an area of consolidation with a small pleural effusion at the right lung base. The radiologist recommends a follow up x ray in four weeks.
When the patient returns for the result of the follow up x ray the radiologist reports that there is little change in the appearances.
What is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: Refer to a respiratory physician routinely
Correct Answer: Refer to a respiratory physician urgently
Explanation:Importance of Thorough Respiratory Examination in Lung Cancer Diagnosis
Pleural effusion and slowly resolving consolidation may indicate lung cancer, requiring urgent referral to a respiratory physician under the two week wait criteria. However, a comprehensive examination is necessary to avoid missing an effusion. Simply auscultating the chest is insufficient. A thorough respiratory examination, including noting any deviation of the trachea, percussion note, and tactile vocal fremitus, can provide important clues and need not significantly prolong the examination time. Failure to perform a thorough examination or investigation of malignancy is a contributing factor to delay in cancer diagnosis, according to the NPSA. In this case, the patient’s smoking history and slow-to-resolve consolidation further support the need for urgent referral and detailed imaging to reveal any underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A study examines whether playing golf increases the likelihood of developing medial epicondylitis. Sixty individuals who frequently play golf are paired with sixty individuals who do not play golf. Out of the golfers, thirty have experienced medial epicondylitis at some point, while only ten of the non-golfers have. What is the odds ratio for developing medial epicondylitis among individuals who play golf?
Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:When calculating the odds, it is important to distinguish them from the risk. For instance, the odds of a golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 1, which is obtained by dividing the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the number of golfers in the sample (30). If we were to calculate the risk, we would divide the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.5.
Similarly, the odds of a non-golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 0.2, which is obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the number of non-golfers in the sample (50). The risk, on the other hand, would be obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.16.
To calculate the odds ratio, we divide the odds of golfers developing the condition (1) by the odds of non-golfers developing the condition (0.2), resulting in an odds ratio of 5.
Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio
When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.
In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.
For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.
Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female has been experiencing headaches for a while. She reports having 2-3 headaches per month over the past few months, each lasting for 2-3 days. The headaches are usually pulsating and on one side. She is generally healthy, active, and takes the mini-pill for birth control. She lives with her partner and works as a teacher in a primary school.
Which of the following treatment options is not recommended for this patient?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:The patient is experiencing recurrent migraines with classic symptoms such as unilateral and pulsating headache. However, topiramate is not the best option as it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception, including both the combined oral contraceptive pill and the progestogen-only pill (UKMEC 3 (disadvantages outweigh advantages)). Instead, alternative options such as triptans and NSAIDs can be used as monotherapy or in combination for acute treatment. Propranolol is also a suitable preventative treatment for women who are of childbearing age or those who are on hormonal contraceptives.
Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations
Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.
Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.
Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for her routine 4-month immunisations, which includes the new Meningitis B vaccine, introduced in 2015. What guidance should be provided regarding post-vaccination care at home?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give paracetamol post-vaccination
Explanation:It is common for individuals to experience a fever of over 38 degrees after receiving the Meningitis B vaccine. To prevent this from occurring, it is recommended that infants receive three doses of paracetamol, with the first dose administered immediately after vaccination. If necessary, parents should continue to administer paracetamol every 4-6 hours for up to 48 hours after vaccination. It is believed that the use of paracetamol doesn’t affect the effectiveness of the vaccine.
Meningitis B Vaccine Now Part of Routine NHS Immunisation
Children in the UK have been receiving immunisation against meningococcus serotypes A and C for many years. However, this led to meningococcal B becoming the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the country. To address this, a vaccine against meningococcal B called Bexsero was developed and introduced to the UK market.
Initially, the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) rejected the use of Bexsero after conducting a cost-benefit analysis. However, this decision was eventually reversed, and meningitis B has now been added to the routine NHS immunisation. Children will receive three doses of the vaccine at 2 months, 4 months, and 12-13 months.
Moreover, Bexsero will also be available on the NHS for patients at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or complement disorder. With the inclusion of meningitis B vaccine in the routine NHS immunisation, the UK hopes to reduce the incidence of bacterial meningitis and protect more children and high-risk patients from the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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