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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female is found in a confused and drowsy state. Her friend discovered her this morning after a night of drinking, but also mentions that she was upset about her recent breakup. Upon examination, she has a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15, a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils that react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and exaggerated reflexes with Downgoing plantar responses. Additionally, a palpable bladder is found during abdominal examination. What substance is she most likely to have taken?
Your Answer: Ecstasy
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation:Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment
Anticholinergic overdose can be identified by symptoms such as drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Patients with anticholinergic overdose should be closely monitored for ventricular arrhythmias and seizures, which can be treated with phenytoin and lidocaine, respectively. Additionally, metabolic acidosis should be corrected with bicarbonate.
Paracetamol overdose may not present with many symptoms or signs initially, but can later lead to fulminant hepatic failure. Opiates typically cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines usually only result in marked drowsiness. Ecstasy, on the other hand, often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, except in cases of severe hyponatremia associated with excessive water consumption.
In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications. Other types of overdose may present with different symptoms and require different interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. Upon conducting a lymph node biopsy, it is revealed that she has nodular sclerosing Hodgkin's disease. What characteristic is indicative of a worse prognosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Mediastinal mass of 3 cm
Correct Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:Prognostic Features in Hodgkin’s Disease
Hodgkin’s disease (HD) is a type of cancer that has important prognostic features. These features include the presence of stage B symptoms, which are fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Additionally, a mass of more than 10 cm in size is also considered a poor prognostic factor. While fatigue and pruritus are common symptoms of HD, they do not have any prognostic significance. It is worth noting that EBV infection is commonly associated with HD, but it does not have any prognostic significance. Therefore, it is important to consider these prognostic features when diagnosing and treating HD. Proper management of these features can help improve the prognosis and overall outcome for patients with HD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old asthmatic has been admitted to the hospital with a worsening wheeze that has persisted for 24 hours. You are urgently called as the patient has become acutely short of breath despite receiving three sets of salbutamol nebulisers. The patient is now hypotensive and desaturating. Upon examination, you notice reduced air entry with a resonant percussion note in the left lung field and a trachea deviated to the right. Based on these symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:Urgent Treatment for Evolving Pneumothorax
This patient is showing clinical signs of a developing pneumothorax, which requires urgent treatment. While a tension pneumothorax is typically associated with a deviated trachea and hyper-resonance, these signs may not appear until later stages. It is possible that the patient has a simple pneumothorax, but given their hypotension, urgent needle decompression is necessary to treat a potential tension pneumothorax. In such cases, chest imaging should not be prioritized over immediate intervention. The procedure involves inserting a large bore needle in the second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line, followed by a chest drain.
Pneumonia can often trigger asthma exacerbations, which can lead to severe chest sepsis and SIRS criteria evolving into severe sepsis. In such cases, ARDS may be the predominant clinical picture with wet lung fields. While massive pulmonary embolism can also cause desaturation and hypotension, there are no other apparent risk factors in this patient’s case. It is important to note that while acute asthma exacerbations can cause anxiety, the diagnosis of panic attacks should only be made after excluding other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use presents with abnormal blood results. His test results show Hepatitis B surface antigen positive, IgG Anti-HBc antibody positive, IgM Anti-HBc antibody negative, and Anti-Hepatitis B surface antibody negative. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Immunity due to hepatitis B vaccine
Correct Answer: Chronically infected with hepatitis B
Explanation:Hepatitis B Surface Antigen and Antibodies
The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host’s cells, whether it is an acute or chronic infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and will no longer be present in chronic infection. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared.
Antibodies to the surface antigen develop in vaccinated individuals, providing natural immunity once the infection has cleared. If a patient has developed antibodies to HBsAg, they would be HBsAg negative and would not be a hepatitis B chronic carrier. the presence and absence of these antigens and antibodies is crucial in diagnosing and managing hepatitis B infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He has no past medical history of note.
In his parents' absence, he reveals that he took an overdose of paracetamol after a fight with his girlfriend, but did not intend to end his life.
What is the most reliable indicator of the extent of liver damage?Your Answer: INR
Explanation:Management of Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose is a common occurrence that requires prompt management. The first step is to check the paracetamol level four hours after ingestion and compare it against the Rumack-Matthew nomogram. If a large dose (more than 7.5 g) was ingested and/or the patient presents within eight hours of ingestion, gastric lavage may be necessary, and oral charcoal should be considered. N-acetylcysteine or methionine should be administered, and bowel movements should be monitored hourly.
It is crucial to check the INR 12 hourly and look out for signs of poor prognosis, which may indicate the need for transfer to a liver unit. These signs include an INR greater than 2.0 within 48 hours or greater than 3.5 within 72 hours of ingestion, creatinine greater than 200 µmol/L, blood pH less than 7.3, signs of encephalopathy, and hypotension (SBP less than 80 mmHg).
It is important to note that liver enzymes are not a reliable indicator of the degree of hepatocellular damage. Instead, synthetic function, as determined by INR or PT, is the best indicator. Proper management of paracetamol overdose can prevent severe liver damage and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25-year-old law student presents with visual loss in the right eye, accompanied by a constant headache for the past three months. She also reports not having had her menstrual cycle for six months. Upon examination, her visual acuity in the affected eye is 6/24, with slight constriction of both temporal visual fields. However, there are no other neurological deficits present. The patient is stable, without fever or hemodynamic abnormalities. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pituitary tumour
Explanation:Pituitary Lesion and Visual Pathway Involvement
This patient is presenting with symptoms of headache and amenorrhoea, which are suggestive of a pituitary lesion. The lesion could either be a prolactinoma or a non-functioning tumour. Unfortunately, the involvement of the visual pathway has led to visual loss, which has further complicated the situation.
To determine the extent of the pituitary lesion, the patient needs to undergo an urgent assessment of her pituitary function. Additionally, an MRI scan of the pituitary gland is necessary to determine the extent of the lesion. One of the most important investigations to perform would be a serum prolactin test.
It is unlikely that the patient is suffering from retrobulbar neuritis associated with MS, as the amenorrhoea would argue against this. Similarly, the peripheral visual field constriction would be unusual, as a central scotoma and fluctuating visual loss would be more typical.
In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms suggest a pituitary lesion, which has been complicated by involvement of the visual pathway. Urgent assessment and imaging are necessary to determine the extent of the lesion and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As the foundation year doctor in general surgery, you are called to assess a patient who has suddenly become unresponsive at 4 am. The patient is a 45-year-old female who has been admitted for an elective cholecystectomy scheduled for 8 am.
Upon examination, the patient appears sweaty and clammy and is hypoventilating. She is only responsive to painful stimuli.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 115, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate of 8, oxygen saturation of 99%, and blood glucose level of 1.1.
What would be your next step in initiating drug therapy?Your Answer: Dextrose 5% 1 Litre IV
Correct Answer: Dextrose 20% 100 ml IV
Explanation:Hypoglycaemia: The Importance of Early Recognition and Management
Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness in patients. The diagnosis of hypoglycaemia is made when there is evidence of low blood sugar, associated symptoms, and resolution of symptoms with correction of hypoglycaemia. The management of hypoglycaemia should be prompt and involves administering 100 ml of 20% dextrose, as opposed to 50%, which can be too irritating to the veins. Repeat blood sugar measurements should be taken to ensure that levels remain above 3.0.
In patients who are fasting overnight for surgery, intravenous fluids should be prescribed with close monitoring of blood sugars to determine whether slow 5% dextrose is required to maintain an acceptable blood sugar level. Glucagon and Hypostop are alternative therapies used to increase glucose levels, but they are not rapid rescue drugs for the correction of low sugars in symptomatic patients.
To identify the cause of hypoglycaemia, the acronym EXPLAIN is used. This stands for Exogenous insulin administration, Pituitary insufficiency, Liver failure, Alcohol/Autoimmune/Addison’s, Insulinoma, and Neoplasia. All episodes of hypoglycaemia require an explanation, and further endocrine workup may be necessary if no cause is identified.
In conclusion, early recognition and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial in preventing further deterioration of the patient’s condition. Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness and promptly administer appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 57-year-old man who has been physically active throughout his life experiences a sudden onset of severe chest pain that spreads to his back, causing him to lose consciousness within minutes. He has a medical history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test showed no signs of cardiac disease. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tear in the aortic intima
Explanation:Aortic Dissection: A Probable Cause of Sudden Collapse with Acute Chest Pain
The given history suggests that aortic dissection is the most probable cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain radiating to the back. Although other conditions may also lead to sudden collapse, they do not typically present with acute chest pain radiating to the back in the presence of a recent normal exercise test. While acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a possible cause, it is not the most likely in this scenario.
References such as BMJ Best Practice, BMJ Clinical Review, and eMedicine support the diagnosis and management of aortic dissection. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this condition as a potential cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain and seek immediate medical attention. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis and prevent life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old asthmatic has been feeling unwell for the past day, experiencing a productive cough, fever, and occasional wheezing. Despite using his regular salbutamol inhaler, his shortness of breath has been worsening, prompting him to seek medical attention at the hospital.
After being assessed by a colleague, the patient has received four rounds of back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers, one round of ipratropium nebulisers, and intravenous hydrocortisone. However, the patient's condition is deteriorating, with increasing respiratory rate and speaking in words only. His chest is now silent, and his oxygen saturation is at 90% despite receiving 10 litres of oxygen.
What is the next recommended therapeutic intervention for this patient?Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate 2 g
Explanation:The British Thoracic Society guidelines should be followed for managing acute asthma, with patients stratified into moderate, severe, or life threatening categories. This patient has life threatening features and may require anaesthetic intervention for intubation and ventilation. Magnesium sulphate is the next important drug intervention. Adrenaline nebulisers have no role unless there are signs of upper airway obstruction. Aminophylline infusions are no longer recommended for initial stabilisation. Salbutamol inhalers can be used as a rescue measure in moderate exacerbations but have no role in severe or life threatening cases. Both prednisone and hydrocortisone are equally effective for steroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 23-year-old gardener experiences a sudden onset of breathlessness and right-sided chest pain while tending to the plants. He is quickly taken to the hospital, but his condition deteriorates during the examination conducted by a junior doctor.
The doctor notes a deviated trachea to the left and very faint breath sounds over the right lung. However, with the assistance of a senior doctor, the patient's condition improves rapidly.
What is the likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:Recognizing and Treating Tension Pneumothorax
Sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing in a previously healthy young man may indicate the presence of pneumothorax. It is important to be able to recognize and treat a tension pneumothorax if it occurs during a physical examination. There are many stories of patients developing tension pneumothorax while in the hospital, so it is crucial to be prepared.
The treatment for tension pneumothorax involves needle thoracocentesis in the second intercostal space. It is not necessary to obtain a chest X-ray before performing this procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is the most probable to be blocked?
Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:Localisation of Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart muscle. The location of the blockage determines the type of MI and the treatment required. An inferior MI is caused by the occlusion of the right coronary artery, which supplies blood to the bottom of the heart. This type of MI can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. It is important to identify the location of the MI quickly to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Proper diagnosis and management can improve the patient’s chances of survival and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued from a fire in his home by firefighters. He has extensive burns across most of his torso and lower limbs; however, on assessment, his airway is patent and he currently has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11. Paramedics have already been able to gain bilateral wide-bore access in both antecubital fossae. He weighs approximately 90 kg, and estimates from the paramedics are that 55% of his body is covered by burns, mostly second-degree, but with some areas of third-degree burns. His observations are:
Temperature 36.2 °C
Blood pressure 102/73 mmHg
Heart rate 112 bpm
Saturations 96% on room air
Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
What would be the most appropriate initial method of fluid resuscitation?Your Answer: Gelofusin 1 litre over 1 h
Correct Answer: Hartmann’s 2 litre over 1 h
Explanation:Fluid Management in Burn Patients: Considerations for Initial Resuscitation and Maintenance
Burn patients require careful fluid management to replace lost fluid volume and electrolytes. In the initial resuscitation phase, it is important to administer fluids rapidly, with warm intravenous fluids considered to minimize heat loss. Accurate fluid monitoring and titration to urine output is vital. While colloids such as Gelofusin may be used, crystalloids like Hartmann’s or normal saline are preferred. Maintenance fluids should be based on the modified Parkland formula, with electrolyte losses in mind. However, in the initial phase, replacing lost fluid volume takes priority over maintenance fluids based on oral intake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He has a blood pressure of 105/80 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and temperature of 38.0°C. What would be your initial step?
Your Answer: Urgent surgical consult
Correct Answer: IV normal saline
Explanation:Management of Sickle Cell Crisis in Septic Patients Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 8-10% of the African population. When a patient with sickle cell disease presents with sepsis and tachycardia, the first step in management is to administer a fluid bolus. Intravenous fluids and analgesia, usually with opiates, are the mainstay of treatment for sickle cell crisis. However, analgesia should be managed in a step-wise manner. In addition to fluid and pain management, antibiotics should be considered to cover potential infections such as Haemophilus influenzae type b, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and Pneumococcus. Ceftriaxone, erythromycin, and cefuroxime are examples of antibiotics that can be used. It is important to note that patients with sickle cell disease may also develop appendicitis, like any other young patient. Therefore, a surgical consult may be necessary. Despite the severity of sickle cell disease, the prognosis is good. Approximately 50% of patients survive beyond the fifth decade.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department after taking 60 of his father's fluoxetine tablets about four hours ago.
Which of the following symptoms is consistent with his reported ingestion?Your Answer: Vomiting
Explanation:Safety and Adverse Effects of Fluoxetine Overdose
Fluoxetine, an SSRI, is considered safe in overdose and has minimal adverse effects compared to tricyclic antidepressants. However, there have been rare reports of tachycardia occurring alongside symptoms such as tremors, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. If pupillary constriction or respiratory suppression is present, it may suggest an opiate overdose. On the other hand, a prolonged QRS complex is consistent with a tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Despite these potential symptoms, fluoxetine remains a relatively safe option for treating depression and anxiety disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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As the ward cover foundation year doctor, you receive a fast bleep at 2 am for a patient experiencing a tonic clonic seizure. The nurse informs you that the patient, who is in for neuro observations, sustained a head injury six hours ago in the Emergency Department. The patient currently has an IV cannula, but the nurse has already administered PR diazepam as prescribed on the drug chart. The seizure has been ongoing for about 8 minutes now.
Fifteen minutes ago, the patient's neuro observations were as follows: HR 70, BP 135/65 mmHg, RR 18, O2 97% on room air, and BM 7.0.
What would be your next course of drug therapy for this patient, who is slightly older than the previous case?Your Answer: Diazepam 10 mg IV
Correct Answer: Lorazepam 4 mg IV
Explanation:Management Algorithm for Seizures
It is crucial to have knowledge of the management algorithm for seizures to prevent prolonged seizures that can lead to cerebral damage and hypoxia. The first line of management is a benzodiazepine, which can be repeated if there is no improvement after five minutes of ongoing fitting. Intravenous administration is preferred, but if an IV line is not available, the rectal route is recommended for ease and speed of treatment. Rectal diazepam is commonly prescribed on the PRN section of the drug chart for nursing staff who cannot administer IV drugs.
In cases where an IV line is present and seizures persist, an IV benzodiazepine such as lorazepam is preferred due to its quick onset and shorter duration of action. Buccal midazolam is now being used in children as a quick and easy route of administration that avoids distressing PR administration. If seizures continue despite two doses of benzodiazepines, phenytoin should be initiated, and senior and expert help is required. If seizures persist, intubation and ventilation may be necessary.
It is important to remember to obtain an early blood sugar test as hypoglycemic patients may remain refractive to antiepileptic therapies until their sugars are normalized. The acronym ABC then DEFG (Do not ever forget glucose) can help in remembering the order of management steps. Proper management of seizures can prevent further complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department and has a witnessed seizure in the resuscitation room. His blood glucose is recorded as 1.0 mmol/L. He does not have diabetes, nor other significant medical history. He is given 50 ml of 50% dextrose and he slowly recovers over the next one hour. A serum cortisol concentration later returns as 800 nmol/L (120-600). What investigation would be most relevant for this man?
Your Answer: Electrocardiogram
Correct Answer: Prolonged 72 hour fast
Explanation:Diagnosis of Spontaneous Hypoglycaemia
The patient’s medical history and biochemical evidence suggest a diagnosis of spontaneous hypoglycaemia, with the most likely cause being an insulinoma. However, it is important to rule out the possibility of drug administration, and a sulphonylurea screen should be conducted. The patient has presented with symptomatic hypoglycaemia, despite not being diabetic and not having received insulin or a sulphonylurea. There is no indication of alcohol or drug misuse, nor is there any evidence of sepsis.
To confirm a diagnosis of spontaneous hypoglycaemia, a prolonged fast is necessary. If the patient experiences hypoglycaemia during the fast, insulin and C peptide levels should be measured to confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s cortisol response during the hypoglycaemic episode (cortisol 800) rules out hypoadrenalism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old runner experiences chest pain and collapses while jogging. He is brought to the Emergency department within an hour. Upon arrival, he is conscious and given a sublingual nitrate which provides some relief. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 120/85 mmHg. An ECG reveals 3 mm of ST segment elevation in leads II, III, AVF, V5 and V6. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Admission with initiation of aspirin, clopidogrel, thrombolysis, and low molecular weight heparin
Correct Answer: Admission for cardiac catheterisation and percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
Explanation:Initial and Long-Term Treatment for Inferolateral ST-Elevation MI
The patient’s history and ECG findings suggest that they are experiencing an Inferolateral ST-elevation MI. The best initial treatment for this condition would be percutaneous coronary intervention. It is likely that the patient would have already received aspirin in the ambulance.
For long-term treatment, the patient will require dual antiplatelet therapy, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, a statin, a beta blocker, and an ACE-inhibitor. These medications will help manage the patient’s condition and prevent future cardiac events.
It is important to follow the NICE guideline for Acute Coronary Syndrome to ensure that the patient receives the appropriate treatment and care. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help improve the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman is discovered by her roommates in a confused, drowsy, and sweaty state in her bedroom. She is unable to provide a clear medical history. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.3°C, a heart rate of 110 bpm, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and appears to be short of breath with a respiratory rate of 30. There is no stiffness in her neck, and her chest sounds clear upon auscultation. An arterial blood gas test taken with 15 l/min oxygen shows a pH of 7.29 (7.35-7.45), Pa O2 of 37 kPa (11-14), PaCO2 of 2.1 kPa (4.5-6), and lactate of 2.4 mmol/L (0.1-2.5). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aspirin overdose
Explanation:Signs of Aspirin Toxicity
Aspirin toxicity can be identified through several symptoms such as fever, sweating, tachypnoea, and acidosis. These signs indicate that the body is experiencing an overdose of aspirin. The presence of confusion is a clear indication of severe overdose. On the other hand, hypoxia is expected in severe asthma and Legionella pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after being assaulted. He states that he was hit in the nose, resulting in swelling, deformity, and a small nosebleed. He also reports difficulty breathing through his left nostril. Upon examination, there is no active bleeding, but there is some deviation of the nasal bones to the left and no septal haematoma. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an ENT follow up appointment for within the next one week
Explanation:Emergency Admission for Isolated Nasal Injuries
Isolated nasal injuries are a common occurrence that often presents in the Emergency department. However, emergency admission is rarely necessary for these cases. There are only three exceptions to this rule, which are patients with a septal haematoma, a compound nasal fracture, or associated epistaxis.
It is important to note that nasal bone x-rays are not required for diagnosis, as it can be determined entirely through clinical examination. For uncomplicated cases, patients are best reviewed after five days in the ENT clinic when associated swelling has subsided. This allows for a better assessment of whether manipulation of the fracture is necessary.
Traumatic epistaxis can be a serious complication and may require packing if there is active bleeding. It is crucial to monitor patients with this condition closely and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. Overall, while isolated nasal injuries are common, emergency admission is only necessary in specific cases, and proper diagnosis and management are essential for optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital by the police after being found unconscious on the street. He appears disheveled and smells strongly of alcohol. Despite attempts to gather information about his medical history, none is available. Upon examination, his temperature is 35°C, blood pressure is 106/72 mmHg, and pulse is 52 bpm. He does not respond to commands, but when a venflon is attempted, he tries to grab the arm of the medical professional and makes incomprehensible sounds while keeping his eyes closed. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale: A Simple and Reliable Tool for Assessing Brain Injury
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing the severity of brain injury. It is simple to use, has a high degree of interobserver reliability, and is strongly correlated with patient outcomes. The GCS consists of three components: Eye Opening (E), Verbal Response (V), and Motor Response (M). Each component is scored on a scale of 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating better function.
The Eye Opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to verbal or painful stimuli. The Verbal Response component evaluates the patient’s ability to speak and communicate appropriately. The Motor Response component assesses the patient’s ability to move their limbs in response to verbal or painful stimuli.
The GCS score is calculated by adding the scores for each component.
When providers use the GCS in connection with a head injury, they tend to apply scoring ranges to describe how severe the injury is. The ranges are:
- 13 to 15: Mild traumatic brain injury (mTBI). Also known as a concussion.
- 9 to 12: Moderate TBI.
- 3 to 8: Severe TBI.
The GCS score is an important prognostic indicator, as it can help predict patient outcomes and guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to his right thumb. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm laceration on the ulnar aspect of the thumb. The neurovascular supply is intact, and there is no evidence of injury to other structures. What is the suitable local anaesthetic to use for exploring the wound and suturing the laceration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lidocaine 1% - 20 ml
Explanation:Anaesthetics for Wound Management in the Emergency Department
For wound management in the Emergency department, 1% lidocaine is the most commonly used anaesthetic for cleaning, exploring, and suturing wounds. However, adrenaline should not be used in areas supplied by end arteries, such as fingers and toes.
The maximum dose of plain lidocaine in a healthy adult is 3 mg/kg or 200 mg (20 ml of 1%). It is important to note that 1% lidocaine is equivalent to 10 mg/ml. On the other hand, if lidocaine with adrenaline is used, the maximum dose is 7 mg/kg or 500 mg (50 ml of 1%). The duration of action for plain lidocaine is 30-60 minutes, while lidocaine with adrenaline lasts approximately 90 minutes.
Another topical anaesthetic that can be used is ethyl chloride, which is sprayed onto the skin and causes rapid cooling. However, it is very short-acting and lasts less than 60 seconds, making it inadequate for providing sufficient analgesia in most cases.
In summary, the choice of anaesthetic for wound management in the Emergency department depends on the location and severity of the wound, as well as the patient’s overall health. It is important to follow the recommended maximum doses and duration of action to ensure safe and effective pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse in charge to assess a patient who is experiencing acute shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain 8 days after undergoing total knee replacement surgery. The patient is a 66-year-old builder with a medical history of COPD and high cholesterol. He has a BMI of 35 and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. His vital signs are as follows: regular heart rate of 115 beats per minute, blood pressure of 135/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. What is the most effective diagnostic test to perform on this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram
Explanation:Diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism in Postoperative Patients
In postoperative patients who become acutely unwell, pulmonary embolism (PE) must be considered and excluded as a crucial diagnosis. After initial resuscitation, diagnostic tests such as arterial blood gas sampling, full blood count, and C-reactive protein count are likely to be performed. However, these tests cannot confirm a specific diagnosis and may be abnormal in various conditions such as PE, pneumonia, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), pneumothorax, or cardiac events.
D-dimer is often used to assess the risk of PE, but in patients with major risk factors such as surgery and minor risk factors such as obesity, a negative D-dimer cannot rule out PE. Chest X-ray can reveal underlying chest pathology, but it is rarely diagnostic for PE. The wedge-shaped infarcts that are often associated with PE are not common. However, a chest X-ray can determine whether a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is possible or whether a computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is required.
In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), there is already an underlying V/Q mismatch, making it difficult to diagnose PE with a low probability result. Therefore, a CTPA is necessary to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of PE. Patients with suspected PE should be placed on a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) until a definitive diagnosis is made. In conclusion, clinicians must have a high degree of suspicion for PE in postoperative patients and use a diagnostic rationale to exclude other potential diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a pulse of 120 beats per min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and a peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% predicted. He has received back-to-back nebulisers of salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 0.5 mg for the past 45 minutes and is currently on face mask oxygen. Additionally, he has been given hydrocortisone 100 mg IV, and the intensive care team has been notified.
An arterial blood gas test was performed on high-flow oxygen, revealing a pH of 7.42 (7.36-7.44), PaCO2 of 5.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), PaO2 of 22 kPa (11.3-12.6), base excess of -2 mmol/L (+/-2), and SpO2 of 98.
What is the recommended next step in therapy for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnesium 1-2 g IV
Explanation:Treatment for Life Threatening Asthma
This patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, which requires immediate treatment. A normal PaCO2 in an asthmatic can indicate impending respiratory failure. The initial treatment involves administering β2-agonists, preferably nebuliser with oxygen, and repeating doses every 15-30 minutes. Nebulised ipratropium bromide should also be added for patients with acute severe or life threatening asthma. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Intravenous magnesium sulphate can be used if the patient fails to respond to initial treatment. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy. Steroids should also be given early in the attack to reduce mortality and improve outcomes.
It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or if the patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Additionally, all patients who are transferred to an intensive care unit should be accompanied by a doctor who can intubate if necessary. In this case, if the patient fails to respond to magnesium, intubation and ventilation may be necessary. It is crucial to discuss the patient’s condition with ITU colleagues during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.
The patient's SaO2 levels are at 91% even with 15 L of oxygen, and her pO2 is at 8.2 kPa (10.5-13). There is widespread expiratory wheezing throughout her chest.
The medical team administers IV hydrocortisone, 100% oxygen, and 5 mg of nebulised salbutamol and 500 micrograms of nebulised ipratropium, but there is little response. Nebulisers are repeated 'back-to-back,' but the patient remains tachypnoeic with wheezing, although there is good air entry.
What should be the next step in the patient's management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV Magnesium
Explanation:Acute Treatment of Asthma
When dealing with acute asthma, the initial approach should be SOS, which stands for Salbutamol, Oxygen, and Steroids (IV). It is also important to organize a CXR to rule out pneumothorax. If the patient is experiencing bronchoconstriction, further efforts to treat it should be considered. If the patient is tiring or has a silent chest, ITU review may be necessary. Magnesium is recommended at a dose of 2 g over 30 minutes to promote bronchodilation, as low magnesium levels in bronchial smooth muscle can favor bronchoconstriction. IV theophylline may also be considered, but magnesium is typically preferred. While IV antibiotics may be necessary, promoting bronchodilation should be the initial focus. IV potassium may also be required as beta agonists can push down potassium levels. Oral prednisolone can wait, as IV hydrocortisone is already part of the SOS approach. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended for the acute management of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of progressive diffuse myalgia and weakness that had been ongoing for three months. She reported experiencing difficulty walking up and down stairs due to weakness in her shoulder muscles and thighs. Her medical history included hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she took atenolol and simvastatin regularly. On examination, there were no abnormalities in the cranial nerves or detectable neck weakness. However, there was general myalgia in the upper limbs and proximal weakness of 3/5 with preserved distal power. A similar pattern of weakness was observed in the lower limbs with preserved tone, reflexes, and sensation.
The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, ESR (Westergren), serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, serum creatinine, plasma lactate, serum creatine kinase, fasting plasma glucose, serum cholesterol, plasma TSH, plasma T4, and plasma T3. Urinalysis was normal.
Based on these findings, what is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Statin-induced myopathy
Explanation:Statins and Muscle Disorders
Myalgia, myositis, and myopathy are all known side effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, commonly known as statins. The risk of these muscle disorders increases when statins are taken in combination with a fibrate or with immunosuppressants. If therapy is not discontinued, rhabdomyolysis may occur, which can lead to acute renal failure due to myoglobinuria. Inclusion body myositis is a type of inflammatory myopathy that causes weakness in a distal and asymmetric pattern. On the other hand, McArdle’s disease is an autosomal recessive condition that typically presents in children with painful muscle cramps and myoglobinuria after intense exercise. This condition is caused by a deficiency in myophosphorylase, which impairs the body’s ability to utilize glucose. There are no additional neurological symptoms to suggest a mitochondrial disorder, and the plasma lactate level is normal. Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What virus is described as a picornavirus with a single stranded RNA genome, transmitted through faecal-oral route, and has no chronic sequelae?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Hepatitis A
Hepatitis A is a type of picornavirus that is responsible for approximately 40% of hepatitis cases worldwide. Unlike other hepatitis viruses, it has a single stranded RNA genome. The virus is commonly spread through poor sanitation and overcrowding, typically through the faecal-oral route. It can survive for months in both fresh and saltwater, and shellfish from polluted water can have a high infectivity rate.
Early symptoms of hepatitis A can be similar to the flu, but some patients, particularly children, may not show any physical symptoms. The incubation period for the virus is typically two to six weeks, after which patients may experience general symptoms such as fever, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and jaundice. Fatigue and abdominal pain are also common symptoms.
Diagnosis of hepatitis A is done by detecting HAV-specific IgM antibodies in the blood. Unfortunately, there is no medical treatment for hepatitis A. Patients are advised to rest and avoid fatty foods and alcohol. Symptomatic treatment, such as antiemetics, may be given if necessary.
Overall, the symptoms and transmission of hepatitis A is important in preventing its spread. Proper sanitation and hygiene practices, as well as avoiding contaminated water and food, can help reduce the risk of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old female presents with a five day history of fever, cough and malaise. She recently returned from a holiday in southern Spain and has since developed a non-productive cough with chills that have worsened. The patient has a history of smoking 10 cigarettes per day but no other medical history. On examination, she has a temperature of 40°C, blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg, and a pulse of 106 bpm. Chest examination reveals inspiratory crackles at the left base only, with a respiratory rate of 28/min. Baseline investigations show haziness at the left base on CXR, Hb 128 g/L (115-165), WCC 5.5 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 210 ×109/L (150-400), Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Creatinine 100 µmol/L (60-110), Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Glucose 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Legionnaires disease
Explanation:Legionnaires Disease: A Community-Acquired Pneumonia
This patient’s medical history and symptoms suggest that they have contracted a community-acquired pneumonia. However, despite the obvious infection, their white cell count appears relatively normal, indicating that they may have an atypical pneumonia. Further investigation reveals that the patient recently traveled to Spain and is experiencing hyponatremia, which are both indicative of Legionnaires disease. This disease is caused by the Legionella pneumophila organism and is typically spread through infected water supplies, such as air conditioning systems.
To diagnose Legionnaires disease, doctors typically look for the presence of urinary antigen before any rise in serum antibody titres. Fortunately, the organism is sensitive to macrolides and ciprofloxacin, which can be used to treat the disease. Overall, it is important for doctors to consider Legionnaire’s disease as a potential cause of community-acquired pneumonia, especially in patients with a recent history of travel and hyponatremia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is referred following a collapse at home. He is currently taking diclofenac for persistent low back pain. Upon examination, he appears pale and has a pulse of 110 beats per minute. His blood pressure is 110/74 mmHg while sitting and drops to 85/40 mmHg when standing. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digital rectal examination
Explanation:Syncopal Collapse and Possible Upper GI Bleed
This patient experienced a syncopal collapse, which is likely due to hypovolemia, as evidenced by her postural drop in blood pressure. It is possible that she had an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed caused by gastric irritation from her non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. A rectal examination that shows melaena would confirm this suspicion.
To determine the cause of her condition, a full blood count is necessary. Afterward, appropriate fluid resuscitation, correction of anemia, and an upper GI endoscopy should be performed instead of further cardiological or neurological evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a scalp laceration she sustained while playing basketball.
Upon examination, it is found that she has a clean incised wound on her scalp that is approximately 2 cm in length.
What is the most appropriate method of managing this wound?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tissue adhesive glue
Explanation:Tissue Adhesive Glue for Scalp Wounds in Children
Tissue adhesive glue is a highly effective method for closing scalp wounds, especially in children. This technique is suitable for wounds that are clean and less than 3 cm in length. However, it should not be used for wounds around the eyes or over joints. Unlike other methods such as staples or sutures, tissue adhesive glue can be performed without the need for local anesthesia, making it less distressing for patients. Therefore, it is the preferred closure technique for scalp wounds.
On the other hand, steristrips are not appropriate for scalp wounds as they do not adhere well to the skin due to the presence of hair. In summary, tissue adhesive glue is a safe and efficient method for closing scalp wounds in children, providing a less painful and more comfortable experience for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has been ongoing for eight hours. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine and atenolol, and type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet. Upon examination, the patient displays watering of the right eye, a slight droop of the eyelid, and displacement of the eye to the right. The left eye appears to have a full range of movements, and the pupil size is the same as on the left. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes
Explanation:Causes of Painless Partial Third Nerve Palsy
A painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. This condition is thought to be due to a microangiopathy that leads to the occlusion of the vasa nervorum. On the other hand, an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery is associated with a painful third nerve palsy, and pupillary dilation is typical. Cerebral infarction, on the other hand, does not usually cause pain. Hypertension, which is a common condition, would normally cause signs of CVA or TIA. Lastly, cerebral vasculitis can cause symptoms of CVA/TIA, but they usually cause more global neurological symptoms.
In summary, a painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. Other conditions such as aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery, cerebral infarction, hypertension, and cerebral vasculitis can also cause similar symptoms, but they have different characteristics and causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the condition to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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