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  • Question 1 - John is a 68-year-old man with a history of memory impairment and signs...

    Correct

    • John is a 68-year-old man with a history of memory impairment and signs of cognitive decline.
      Which ONE of the following signs is MOST indicative of a diagnosis of vascular dementia rather than Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Sudden onset

      Explanation:

      Vascular dementia is not as common as Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for about 20% of dementia cases compared to 50% for Alzheimer’s. Most individuals with vascular dementia have a history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and/or hypertension.

      There are notable differences in how these two diseases present themselves. Vascular dementia often has a sudden onset, while Alzheimer’s disease has a slower onset. The progression of vascular dementia tends to be stepwise, with periods of stability followed by sudden declines, whereas Alzheimer’s disease has a more gradual decline. The course of vascular dementia can also fluctuate, while Alzheimer’s disease shows a steady decline over time.

      In terms of personality and insight, individuals with vascular dementia tend to have relatively preserved personality and insight in the early stages, whereas those with Alzheimer’s disease may experience early changes and loss in these areas. Gait is also affected differently, with individuals with vascular dementia taking small steps (known as marche a petit pas), while those with Alzheimer’s disease have a normal gait.

      Sleep disturbance is less common in vascular dementia compared to Alzheimer’s disease, which commonly presents with sleep disturbances. Focal neurological signs, such as sensory and motor deficits and pseudobulbar palsy, are more common in vascular dementia, while they are uncommon in Alzheimer’s disease.

      To differentiate between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia, the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can be used. This scale assigns scores based on various features, such as abrupt onset, stepwise deterioration, fluctuating course, nocturnal confusion, preservation of personality, depression, somatic complaints, emotional incontinence, history of hypertension, history of strokes, evidence of associated atherosclerosis, focal neurological symptoms, and focal neurological signs. A score of 2 or greater suggests vascular dementia.

      Overall, understanding the differences in presentation and using tools like the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can help in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the baby is born prematurely with pale gray skin and cyanosis. The baby also has weak muscle tone, low blood pressure, and difficulty with feeding.

      Which of the following antibiotics is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Grey baby syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur in neonates, especially premature babies, as a result of the build-up of the antibiotic chloramphenicol. This condition is characterized by several symptoms, including ashen grey skin color, poor feeding, vomiting, cyanosis, hypotension, hypothermia, hypotonia, cardiovascular collapse, abdominal distension, and respiratory difficulties.

      During pregnancy, there are several drugs that can have adverse effects on the developing fetus. ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, if given in the second and third trimesters, can lead to hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence. Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness. High doses of aspirin can result in first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses of aspirin (e.g., 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome. Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the first trimester, may lead to phalangeal abnormalities, while their use in the second and third trimesters can result in fetal growth retardation. Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol, as mentioned earlier, can cause grey baby syndrome. Corticosteroids, if given in the first trimester, may cause orofacial clefts. Danazol, if administered in the first trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals. Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride, as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol, if given in the first trimester, may cause limb malformations, while its use in the third trimester increases the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate. Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia. Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate. Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You evaluate a 30-year-old female patient with sickle-cell disease. She presents with dyspnea...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 30-year-old female patient with sickle-cell disease. She presents with dyspnea and pain in her lower extremities.
      Which ONE statement about sickle-cell disease is accurate?

      Your Answer: Cholelithiasis is a recognised complication

      Explanation:

      HbAS is known as Sickle cell trait, while HbSS is the genotype for Sickle-cell disease. Sickle-shaped red blood cells have a shorter lifespan of 10-20 days compared to the normal red blood cells that live for 90-120 days. Cholelithiasis, a complication of sickle-cell disease, occurs due to excessive bilirubin production caused by the breakdown of red blood cells. The inheritance pattern of sickle-cell disease is autosomal recessive. The disease is caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin, resulting in the substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the sixth position. Individuals with one normal hemoglobin gene and one sickle gene have the genotype HbAS, which is commonly referred to as Sickle Cell trait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      67.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40 year old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing difficulty swallowing a food bolus. However, the patient successfully swallows the bolus while being evaluated by the triage nurse. During the examination, you observe an enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most appropriate test for evaluating thyroid function?

      Your Answer: TSH

      Explanation:

      The best single test to evaluate thyroid function is TSH. Goitres can be associated with either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism, although hypothyroidism is more common. According to NICE guidelines, when there is suspicion of hypothyroidism, it is recommended to first check the TSH level. If the TSH level is above the normal range, then the free thyroxine (FT4) should be checked on the same sample. Similarly, in cases of suspected hyperthyroidism, it is advised to first check the TSH level. If the TSH level is below the normal range, then the free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) should be checked on the same sample.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 48 year old welder is admitted to the emergency department with burns...

    Correct

    • A 48 year old welder is admitted to the emergency department with burns to the chest after sparks from the welding machine ignited some gasoline-soaked rags that were nearby on the ground, causing his T-shirt to catch fire. Upon examination, the patient presents with full thickness burns encircling the chest. What would be the primary complication you would be most worried about in this case?

      Your Answer: Impaired ventilation

      Explanation:

      Circumferential burns on the thorax can limit the expansion of the chest and hinder proper ventilation. When burns penetrate deeply, they can cause the formation of dead tissue called eschar, which is usually white or black in color. This eschar is contracted and inflexible compared to healthy tissue, leading to restricted movement and impaired breathing. In some cases, burns on the thorax can result in respiratory failure. Marjolin’s ulcer, a rare condition, refers to the development of squamous cell carcinoma in burnt or scarred tissue. Burn injuries often lead to the release of excess potassium into the bloodstream, which can cause hyperkalemia. Carbon monoxide poisoning typically occurs when someone inhales CO over a prolonged period, usually due to incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons. However, the history provided in this case does not align with prolonged exposure to carbon monoxide.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 10 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after falling...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after falling through the ice into a frozen lake. The patient struggled to climb out and spent approximately 5 minutes in the water. The patient then spent an additional 30 minutes in wet clothes with an air temperature of -3ºC waiting for help and transportation to the hospital. A core temperature reading is taken and documented as 26.3ºC. How would you best classify the patient?

      Your Answer: Severe hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in depressed myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old man with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue. His...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue. His arthritis is well managed with sulfasalazine. His blood test results are as follows:

      Hemoglobin (Hb): 9.8 g/dl (11.5-15.5 g/dl)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 80 fl (75-87 fl)
      Platelets: 176 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
      Serum Iron: 5 mmol/l (10-28 mmol/l)
      Total Iron-Binding Capacity (TIBC): 35 mmol/l (45-72 mmol/l)

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease

      Explanation:

      Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that can occur in various chronic conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, tuberculosis, malignancy, malnutrition, hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, chronic kidney disease, and chronic liver disease. The underlying mechanisms of this type of anaemia are complex and not fully understood, with multiple contributing factors involved. One important mediator in inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis is interleukin-6 (IL-6). Increased levels of IL-6 lead to the production of hepcidin, a hormone that regulates iron balance. Hepcidin prevents the release of iron from the reticulo-endothelial system and affects other aspects of iron metabolism.

      Anaemia of chronic disease typically presents as a normochromic, normocytic anaemia, although it can also be microcytic. It is characterized by reduced serum iron, reduced transferrin saturation, and reduced total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). However, the serum ferritin levels are usually normal or increased. Distinguishing anaemia of chronic disease from iron-deficiency anaemia can be challenging, but in iron-deficiency anaemia, the TIBC is typically elevated, and serum ferritin is usually low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman has been involved in a physical altercation outside a bar....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has been involved in a physical altercation outside a bar. She has been hit multiple times in the face and has a noticeable swelling on her right cheek. Her facial X-ray shows a zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture but no other injuries.

      Which of the following will be visible on her X-ray?

      Your Answer: Fracture of the zygomatic arch

      Explanation:

      Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures, also known as quadramalar or tripod fractures, make up around 40% of all midface fractures and are the second most common facial bone fractures after nasal bone fractures.

      These injuries typically occur when a direct blow is delivered to the malar eminence of the cheek. They consist of four components:

      1. Widening of the zygomaticofrontal suture
      2. Fracture of the zygomatic arch
      3. Fracture of the inferior orbital rim and the walls of the anterior and posterior maxillary sinuses
      4. Fracture of the lateral orbital rim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old individual presents on a Tuesday morning after being bitten by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old individual presents on a Tuesday morning after being bitten by a tick a few days ago while hiking in the woods. The tick was promptly removed and there have been no symptoms experienced since. After conducting some online research, the individual is extremely worried about the potential of acquiring Lyme disease.

      What is the MOST suitable course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Organise ELISA test for Lyme disease

      Correct Answer: Reassurance only, no need to test or treat

      Explanation:

      According to the current NICE guidance, it is not recommended to diagnose Lyme disease in individuals who do not show any symptoms, even if they have been bitten by a tick. Therefore, there is no need to conduct tests or provide treatment in such cases. It is important to reassure these patients that the majority of ticks do not transmit Lyme disease. However, it is advised that they remain vigilant for any potential symptoms and return for re-evaluation if necessary. The ‘Be Tick Aware’ campaign by Public Health England can serve as a helpful resource for further information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman develops hypothyroidism secondary to the administration of a medication for...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman develops hypothyroidism secondary to the administration of a medication for a thyroid condition.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to thyroxine and has the ability to bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. This medication has the potential to cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, although hypothyroidism is more commonly observed, affecting around 5-10% of patients.

      There are several side effects associated with the use of amiodarone. These include the formation of microdeposits in the cornea, increased sensitivity to sunlight resulting in photosensitivity, feelings of nausea, disturbances in sleep patterns, and the development of either hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism. In addition, there have been reported cases of acute hepatitis and jaundice, peripheral neuropathy, lung fibrosis, and QT prolongation.

      It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when considering the use of amiodarone as a treatment option. Regular monitoring and close medical supervision are necessary to detect and manage any adverse reactions that may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman with a known history of asthma presents with a headache,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a known history of asthma presents with a headache, nausea, and abdominal pain. Her heart rate is elevated at 117 bpm. She currently takes a salbutamol inhaler and theophylline for her asthma. She had visited the Emergency Department a few days earlier and was prescribed an antibiotic.
      Which antibiotic was most likely prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.

      Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.

      Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.

      Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.

      There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.

      The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.

      Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      281.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old type 1 diabetic arrives at the emergency department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old type 1 diabetic arrives at the emergency department complaining of a worsening sore throat, fever, and overall feeling of illness. The patient reports that the symptoms began a week ago. During the examination, the patient's temperature is measured at 38.3ºC, bilateral posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is observed, and there is exudate on both tonsils. Additionally, tenderness is noted in the right upper quadrant. Glandular fever is suspected.

      What would be the most suitable approach for conducting further investigations?

      Your Answer: Send blood for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) viral serology

      Explanation:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      82.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35 year old male intravenous drug user who frequently visits the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male intravenous drug user who frequently visits the emergency department presents with abdominal pain. Upon examination, the patient exhibits clinical signs of jaundice. The patient reveals that he was diagnosed with hepatitis B approximately 10 months ago but did not follow up on the recommended treatment. You decide to repeat his hepatitis serology.

      What findings would be anticipated in a patient with chronic hepatitis B infection?

      Your Answer: Anti-HBc positive and HBsAg positive

      Explanation:

      In a patient with chronic hepatitis B, the typical serology results would show positive anti-HBc and positive HBsAg. This indicates that the patient has a long-term infection with hepatitis B. The presence of IgG anti-HBc indicates that the infection will persist for life, while IgM anti-HBc will only be present for about 6 months.

      If a patient has positive anti-HBs but all other serological markers are negative, it suggests that they have been previously immunized against hepatitis B. On the other hand, if a patient has positive anti-HBs along with positive anti-HBc, it indicates that they have developed immunity following a past infection.

      In the case of an acute hepatitis B infection that has been cleared more than 6 months ago, the serology results would typically show positive anti-HBc but negative HBsAg. This indicates that the infection has been successfully cleared by the immune system.

      Further Reading:

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.

      Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.

      Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.

      In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.

      Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      14.3
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  • Question 14 - A 25 year old female has been brought into the emergency department (ED)...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old female has been brought into the emergency department (ED) in the early hours of the morning after being discovered unresponsive in a parking lot behind a nightclub by the authorities. The paramedics initiated cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which has been ongoing since the patient's arrival in the ED. The patient's core temperature is recorded at 28ºC. You contemplate the most effective Rewarming strategy to employ. Which method of Rewarming is known for producing a rapid increase in core body temperature?

      Your Answer: Cardiopulmonary bypass

      Explanation:

      Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) is the most efficient technique for warming up a patient who is experiencing hypothermia. While other methods may also be suitable and may have already been initiated by the paramedic team, CPB stands out as the most effective approach.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.

      ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.

      Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.

      Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an acute myocardial infarction and she is immediately taken to the cath lab. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
      Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Anteroseptal

      Correct Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.

      For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.

      In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.

      Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.

      In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. He is agitated, confused, and experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 115 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. Obtaining a history from him is challenging as he is mumbling. Further questioning reveals that he has ingested an anticholinergic drug.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Atropine

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Patients who present with an anticholinergic toxidrome can be difficult to manage due to the agitation and disruptive behavior that is typically present. It is important to provide meticulous supportive care to address the behavioral effects of delirium and prevent complications such as dehydration, injury, and pulmonary aspiration. Often, one-to-one nursing is necessary.

      The management approach for these patients is as follows:

      1. Resuscitate using a standard ABC approach.
      2. Administer sedation for behavioral control. Benzodiazepines, such as IV diazepam in 5 mg-10 mg increments, are the first-line therapy. The goal is to achieve a patient who is sleepy but easily roused. It is important to avoid over-sedating the patient as this can increase the risk of aspiration.
      3. Prescribe intravenous fluids as patients are typically unable to eat and drink, and may be dehydrated upon presentation.
      4. Insert a urinary catheter as urinary retention is often present and needs to be managed.
      5. Consider physostigmine as the specific antidote for anticholinergic delirium in carefully selected cases. Physostigmine acts as a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, temporarily blocking the breakdown of acetylcholine. This enhances its effects at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors, thereby reversing the effects of the anticholinergic agents.

      Physostigmine is indicated in the following situations:

      1. Severe anticholinergic delirium that does not respond to benzodiazepine sedation.
      2. Poisoning with a pure anticholinergic agent, such as atropine.

      The dosage and administration of physostigmine are as follows:

      1. Administer in a monitored setting with appropriate staff and resources to manage adverse effects.
      2. Perform a 12-lead ECG before administration to rule out bradycardia, AV block, or broadening of the QRS.
      3. Administer IV physostigmine 0.5-1 mg as a slow push over 5 minutes. Repeat every 10 minutes up to a maximum of 4 mg.
      4. The clinical end-point of therapy is the resolution of delirium.
      5. Delirium may reoccur in 1-4 hours as the effects of physostigmine wear off. In such cases, the dose may be cautiously repeated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      140.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing sudden difficulty breathing. Shortly after her arrival, she loses consciousness. The cardiac monitor displays ventricular fibrillation, confirming cardiac arrest.
      Which of the following statements about cardiac arrest during pregnancy is correct?

      Your Answer: Early tracheal intubation should be performed

      Explanation:

      Cardiac arrest during pregnancy is a rare occurrence, happening in approximately 16 out of every 100,000 live births. It is crucial to consider both the mother and the fetus when dealing with cardiac arrest in pregnancy, as the best way to ensure a positive outcome for the fetus is by effectively resuscitating the mother.

      The main causes of cardiac arrest during pregnancy include pre-existing cardiac disease, pulmonary embolism, hemorrhage, ectopic pregnancy, hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, amniotic fluid embolism, and suicide. Many cardiovascular problems associated with pregnancy are caused by compression of the inferior vena cava.

      To prevent decompensation or potential cardiac arrest during pregnancy, it is important to follow these steps when dealing with a distressed or compromised pregnant patient:

      – Place the patient in the left lateral position or manually displace the uterus to the left.
      – Administer high-flow oxygen, guided by pulse oximetry.
      – Give a fluid bolus if there is low blood pressure or signs of hypovolemia.
      – Re-evaluate the need for any medications currently being administered.
      – Seek expert help and involve obstetric and neonatal specialists early.
      – Identify and treat the underlying cause.

      In the event of cardiac arrest during pregnancy, in addition to following the standard guidelines for basic and advanced life support, the following modifications should be made:

      – Immediately call for expert help, including an obstetrician, anesthetist, and neonatologist.
      – Start CPR according to the standard ALS guidelines, but adjust the hand position slightly higher on the sternum.
      – Ideally establish IV or IO access above the diaphragm to account for potential compression of the inferior vena cava.
      – Manually displace the uterus to the left to relieve caval compression.
      – Tilt the table to the left side (around 15-30 degrees of tilt).
      – Perform early tracheal intubation to reduce the risk of aspiration (seek assistance from an expert anesthetist).
      – Begin preparations for an emergency Caesarean section.

      A perimortem Caesarean section should be performed within 5 minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest. This delivery will alleviate caval compression and increase the chances of successful resuscitation by improving venous return during CPR. It will also maximize the chances of the infant’s survival, as the best survival rate occurs when delivery is achieved within 5 minutes of the mother’s cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      165.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 9 month old male is brought to the emergency department by worried...

    Correct

    • A 9 month old male is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. They inform you that the patient has been slightly under the weather for the past couple of days with a runny nose, a slight fever, and an occasional dry cough. However, overnight, the cough has worsened and now sounds like a harsh barking cough.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Croup is usually preceded by symptoms such as cough, runny nose, and nasal congestion. These symptoms typically occur 12 to 72 hours before the onset of a distinctive barking cough. The barking cough, which resembles the sound of a seal, is particularly severe at night. It is important to note that the cough may be preceded by prodromal upper respiratory tract symptoms, including cough, runny nose, and nasal congestion, within a timeframe of 12 to 72 hours.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      48.7
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to evaluate the patient and initiate her treatment.

      Which of the following is the most suitable INITIAL treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional features may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.

      The condition is caused by capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These changes can be visualized using MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

      Patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy should receive parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Oral thiamine should be administered after the parenteral therapy.

      It is important to note that in patients with chronic thiamine deficiency, the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine can trigger the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old arrives at the emergency department complaining of fatigue, a severe sore...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old arrives at the emergency department complaining of fatigue, a severe sore throat, and swollen neck glands that have persisted for more than a week. He visited his primary care physician yesterday and was prescribed amoxicillin. However, today he woke up with a rash all over his body and his throat has not improved. During the examination, a widespread non-blanching maculopapular rash is observed.

      What is the probable underlying cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      Explanation:

      In cases of acute glandular fever, certain antibiotics like ampicillin and amoxicillin can potentially cause severe rashes that affect the entire body and specifically the extremities. The exact cause of these rashes is still unknown. If there is uncertainty in the diagnosis and the clinician wants to cover the possibility of streptococcal tonsillitis, it is recommended to use phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) as the preferred treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      201.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient has been diagnosed with septic arthritis in their left knee. The...

    Correct

    • A patient has been diagnosed with septic arthritis in their left knee. The joint aspirate reveals the presence of Escherichia coli.

      Which of the following patient populations is at the highest risk for developing septic arthritis caused by Escherichia coli?

      Your Answer: Intravenous drug users

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint, causing it to become purulent. The main symptoms of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and systemic upset. The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria such as Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea, and Escherichia coli can also be responsible.

      According to the current recommendations by NICE and the BNF, the initial treatment for septic arthritis is flucloxacillin. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is a suspicion of MRSA infection, vancomycin is the recommended choice. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or a Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred treatment. The suggested duration of treatment is typically 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 14-year-old girl presents with a sudden onset of a painful throat that...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past day. She has no history of a cough and no symptoms of a cold. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is clear evidence of pus on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen and red. No swollen lymph nodes are felt in the front of her neck.
      Based on the FeverPAIN Score used to evaluate her sore throat, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Treat immediately with empiric antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Two scoring systems are suggested by NICE to aid in the evaluation of sore throat: The Centor Clinical Prediction Score and The FeverPAIN Score.

      The FeverPAIN score was developed from a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and above. The score was tested in a trial that compared three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, or a combination of the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. Utilizing the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in the prescription of antibiotics (both reduced by one third). The inclusion of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.

      The score comprises of five factors, each of which is assigned one point: Fever (Temp >38°C) in the last 24 hours, Purulence, Attended rapidly in under three days, Inflamed tonsils, and No cough or coryza.

      Based on the score, the recommendations are as follows:
      – Score 0-1 = 13-18% likelihood of streptococcus infection, antibiotics are not recommended.
      – Score 2-3 = 34-40% likelihood of streptococcus infection, consider delayed prescribing of antibiotics (3-5 day ‘backup prescription’).
      – Score 4-5 = 62-65% likelihood of streptococcus infection, use immediate antibiotics if severe, or a 48-hour short ‘backup prescription.’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man comes in with complaints of fever, muscle pain, migratory joint...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man comes in with complaints of fever, muscle pain, migratory joint pain, and a headache. He reports that these symptoms began a week after he returned from a hiking trip in the Rocky Mountains. He does not have a rash and cannot remember being bitten by a tick. After researching online, he is extremely worried about the potential of having contracted Lyme disease.

      What would be the most suitable test to investigate this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: ELISA test for Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE regarding Lyme disease state that a diagnosis can be made based on clinical symptoms alone if a patient presents with the erythema chronicum migrans rash, even if they do not recall a tick bite. For patients without the rash, a combination of clinical judgement and laboratory testing should be used.

      In cases where a diagnosis is suspected but no rash is present, the recommended initial test is the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for Lyme disease. While waiting for the test results, it is advised to consider starting antibiotic treatment.

      If the ELISA test comes back positive or equivocal, an immunoblot test should be performed and antibiotic treatment should be considered if the patient has not already started treatment.

      If Lyme disease is still suspected in patients with a negative ELISA test conducted within 4 weeks of symptom onset, the ELISA test should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. For individuals with symptoms persisting for 12 weeks or more and a negative ELISA test, an immunoblot test should be conducted. If the immunoblot test is negative (regardless of the ELISA result) but symptoms continue, a referral to a specialist should be considered.

      to the NICE guidance on Lyme disease.

      Further reading:
      NICE guidance on Lyme disease
      https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng95

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      13.4
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  • Question 24 - A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a car while crossing the street. The patient is breathing rapidly and clinical examination shows a flail segment. What is the most suitable initial intervention to relieve respiratory distress?

      Your Answer: Positive pressure ventilation

      Explanation:

      To relieve the patient’s respiratory distress, the most suitable initial intervention would be positive pressure ventilation. This involves providing mechanical assistance to the patient’s breathing by delivering air or oxygen under pressure through a mask or endotracheal tube. This helps to improve oxygenation and ventilation, ensuring that the patient’s lungs are adequately supplied with oxygen and carbon dioxide is effectively removed. Positive pressure ventilation can help stabilize the patient’s breathing and alleviate the respiratory distress caused by the flail segment.

      Further Reading:

      Flail chest is a serious condition that occurs when multiple ribs are fractured in two or more places, causing a segment of the ribcage to no longer expand properly. This condition is typically caused by high-impact thoracic blunt trauma and is often accompanied by other significant injuries to the chest.

      The main symptom of flail chest is a chest deformity, where the affected area moves in a paradoxical manner compared to the rest of the ribcage. This can cause chest pain and difficulty breathing, known as dyspnea. X-rays may also show evidence of lung contusion, indicating further damage to the chest.

      In terms of management, conservative treatment is usually the first approach. This involves providing adequate pain relief and respiratory support to the patient. However, if there are associated injuries such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, specific interventions like thoracostomy or surgery may be necessary.

      Positive pressure ventilation can be used to provide internal splinting of the airways, helping to prevent atelectasis, a condition where the lungs collapse. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are part of the resus team treating a 42-year-old female patient. Due...

    Correct

    • You are part of the resus team treating a 42-year-old female patient. Due to deteriorating GCS, your consultant advises you to prepare for rapid sequence induction. You contemplate which induction agent is most appropriate for this patient. What side effect of etomidate prevents its use in septic patients?

      Your Answer: Adrenal suppression

      Explanation:

      Etomidate is not recommended for use in septic patients because it can suppress adrenal cortisol production, leading to increased morbidity and mortality in sepsis cases. However, it is a suitable choice for haemodynamically unstable patients who are not experiencing sepsis, as it does not cause significant hypotension like other induction agents. Additionally, etomidate can be beneficial for patients with head injuries and elevated intracranial pressure, as it reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with facial swelling that worsens when she eats....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with facial swelling that worsens when she eats. You suspect she may have sialolithiasis.
      Which salivary gland is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Submandibular gland

      Explanation:

      Sialolithiasis is a medical condition characterized by the formation of a calcified stone, known as a sialolith, within one of the salivary glands. The submandibular gland, specifically Wharton’s duct, is the site of approximately 90% of these occurrences, while the parotid gland accounts for most of the remaining cases. In rare instances, sialoliths may also develop in the sublingual gland or minor salivary glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper lip, and his hands. He has a confirmed diagnosis of hereditary angioedema.
      Which of the following statements about hereditary angioedema is correct?

      Your Answer: Long-term prophylaxis can be achieved with tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Hereditary angioedema is a condition caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor, a protein that is part of the complement system. It is typically inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Symptoms usually start in childhood and continue sporadically into adulthood. Attacks can be triggered by minor surgical procedures, dental work, and stress. The main clinical signs of hereditary angioedema include swelling of the skin and mucous membranes, with the face, tongue, and extremities being the most commonly affected areas. There is often a tingling sensation before an attack, sometimes accompanied by a non-itchy rash.

      Angioedema and anaphylaxis resulting from C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency do not respond to adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma, both of which contain C1 esterase inhibitor. In situations that may trigger an attack, short-term prophylaxis can be achieved by administering C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma infusions prior to the event. For long-term prevention, androgenic steroids like stanozolol or antifibrinolytic drugs such as tranexamic acid can be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      109.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You are following up on a 21-year-old patient you saw who was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • You are following up on a 21-year-old patient you saw who was admitted following a paracetamol overdose. Which of the following is a poor prognostic indicator and indication for liver transplant in paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer: INR >3 24 hours following overdose

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      A pH level in the arteries that is below 7.30 on or after the second day following a paracetamol overdose is considered a poor indicator of prognosis. Additionally, a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) of over 100 seconds (indicated by an international normalized ratio (INR) of over 6.5), along with a high plasma creatinine level of over 300 μmol/L and grade 3 or 4 hepatic encephalopathy, are also poor prognostic indicators and may indicate the need for a liver transplant. Furthermore, an increase in PT between the third and fourth day after the overdose is also considered a poor prognostic indicator.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A teenager presents following a fall. You observe that they are dressed very...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents following a fall. You observe that they are dressed very casually and have a strong smell of alcohol. Looking at their medical records, you notice that they have had multiple similar presentations in the past few months. You decide to administer a screening questionnaire to assess for potential alcohol dependency.
      According to the current NICE guidelines, which of the following screening tests is recommended for this purpose?

      Your Answer: CAGE

      Correct Answer: AUDIT

      Explanation:

      The Alcohol Use Disorder Identification Test (AUDIT) has been developed by the World Health Organization as a straightforward screening tool to detect early signs of hazardous and harmful drinking, as well as mild dependence. This assessment is more comprehensive than the CAGE questionnaire and is currently recommended by NICE for identifying alcohol misuse.

      NICE, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, suggests the use of specific assessment tools to evaluate the nature and severity of alcohol misuse. These tools include AUDIT for identification and as a routine outcome measure, SADQ or LDQ for assessing the severity of dependence, CIWA-Ar for evaluating the severity of withdrawal symptoms, and APQ for understanding the nature and extent of problems resulting from alcohol misuse.

      For more information on this topic, you can refer to the NICE guidance titled Alcohol-use disorders: diagnosis, assessment and management of harmful drinking and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      7.1
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old patient has arrived at the emergency department following an accident at...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient has arrived at the emergency department following an accident at a construction site. The skin has been lacerated by a dropped piece of stainless steel sheeting with a sharp edge. The plan is to suture the wound after infiltrating the area with local anesthesia. In the suture room, you find Lidocaine 1% with Adrenaline (Epinephrine) 1:200,000 and Bupivacaine 0.5% available. What is a contraindication to using local anesthesia combined with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: Area to be infiltrated is in periphery

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is known to cause vasoconstriction, which is the narrowing of blood vessels. As a result, it is not recommended to use adrenaline in areas such as the peripheries, end arteries, and flap lacerations because it can increase the risk of ischemia, which is a lack of blood supply to tissues. Additionally, there are certain contraindications to using adrenaline locally, including conditions like pheochromocytoma, hypertension, and arteriosclerosis. It is important to be cautious of these factors as adrenaline’s vasoconstrictive effects can also lead to an elevation in blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Elderly Care / Frailty (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (3/5) 60%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Trauma (2/2) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (3/4) 75%
Maxillofacial & Dental (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (2/2) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (2/2) 100%
Allergy (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed