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  • Question 1 - According to probability, what is the most probable cause of a fall in...

    Incorrect

    • According to probability, what is the most probable cause of a fall in an elderly person? Please

      Your Answer: Visual disorder

      Correct Answer: Environmental hazards

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Falls in the Elderly: Environmental Hazards and Other Factors

      Falls are a common and serious problem among the elderly, with significant consequences such as increased morbidity, mortality, and nursing home placement. While there are many risk factors for falls, including muscle weakness, medication use, and cognitive impairment, environmental hazards are a major cause, accounting for 31% of falls. Loose rugs, poor lighting, and clutter are just a few examples of hazards that can contribute to falls.

      Other factors that contribute to falls include gait and balance disorders, dizziness and vertigo, and confusion. Postural hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, is also a common cause of falls, often due to medication use. Vasovagal syncope, a reflex-mediated autonomic failure, can also cause falls in the elderly.

      Visual impairment is another significant risk factor for falls, as it can affect perception of environmental elements. Individuals with visual impairment are almost twice as likely to fall compared to those with normal vision.

      To prevent falls, it is important to address all risk factors, including environmental hazards, through exercise, medication review, vision assessment, and home safety modifications. By understanding the causes of falls in the elderly, we can take steps to prevent them and improve the health and well-being of older adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 2 - Dr. Patel, a family physician, receives a Ted Baker wallet from a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Dr. Patel, a family physician, receives a Ted Baker wallet from a patient during the holiday season. The wallet is priced at £80 online. Dr. Patel had been extensively involved in the care of the patient who was suffering from osteoarthritis of the left shoulder. The patient required several joint injections and consultations to discuss oral analgesia. What should Dr. Patel do regarding the gift?

      Your Answer: Call up the patient and kindly refuse the gift

      Correct Answer: Call up the patient to thank them, accept the gift and not place the gift on the practice gift register

      Explanation:

      According to the NHS General Medical Services Contracts Regulations 2004, GPs are required to maintain a register of gifts worth £100 or more from patients or their relatives. The register should contain details such as the name and address of the patient, the nature and estimated value of the gift, and the name of the recipient. The register must be made available to NHS England upon request. However, if the GP believes that the gift is unrelated to the services provided or is unaware of the gift, it need not be included in the register.

      The GMC’s Good Medical Practice guidelines provide guidance on accepting gifts from patients. It states that doctors should not accept any gift or hospitality that may influence or appear to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. Doctors should also not encourage patients to offer gifts that may benefit them directly or indirectly. However, gifts may be accepted if they do not affect the doctor’s professional judgment and if the patient or their relatives have not been pressured or influenced to offer the gift.

      In this scenario, it would not be appropriate to decline the gift as it may offend the patient who is expressing gratitude for their care. It would also be unfair to ask the patient to provide cash instead of the gift. Offering longer appointment times as an advantage to patients who provide gifts would be considered unethical and unfair to other patients.

      As a doctor, it is important to adhere to the guidelines set forth by the GMC. One such guideline states that doctors should not accept any gifts, inducements, or hospitality from patients, colleagues, or others that could potentially influence or be perceived to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. It is crucial to maintain a professional and ethical relationship with patients, and accepting gifts can compromise this relationship. Therefore, doctors should always be mindful of the GMC’s guidance and avoid accepting any gifts that could potentially affect their judgment or decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman complains she has had pain in her left elbow, left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains she has had pain in her left elbow, left wrist, right knee and right ankle for the last week. She recently came back from Mexico where she had been on a two-week holiday with her friends. She confessed that while on holiday, she had unprotected sex. Examination shows tenderness and swelling of the tendons around the involved joints but no actual joint swelling. She also has a skin rash, which is vesico-pustular.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with arthritis-dermatitis syndrome, which is a symptom of disseminated gonococcal infection. This infection can manifest in two forms: bacteraemic and septic arthritis. The former is more common, with up to 60% of patients presenting with it. Symptoms can appear within one day to three months after initial infection, and up to 80% of women with gonorrhoea may not experience any genitourinary symptoms.

      The most common symptom of arthritis-dermatitis syndrome is migratory arthralgias, which are typically asymmetrical and affect the upper extremities more than the lower extremities. Pain may also occur due to tenosynovitis. The associated rash is painless and not itchy, consisting of small papules, pustules or vesicles. A pustule with an erythematous base on the hand or foot can be a helpful diagnostic clue.

      Symptoms may resolve spontaneously in 30-40% of cases or progress to septic arthritis in one or more joints. Unlike Staphylococcus aureus septic arthritis, gonococcal arthritis rarely leads to joint destruction.

      Gout, reactive arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and tuberculous arthritis are all incorrect diagnoses. Gout typically presents as an acute monoarthritis, reactive arthritis is an autoimmune condition that develops in response to a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection, rheumatoid arthritis affects small joints symmetrically, and tuberculous arthritis usually involves only one joint, with the spine being the most common site of skeletal involvement in tuberculosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 4 - An 84-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and stiffness along with elevated inflammatory markers on blood tests. After being diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica, what medication's inadequate response would lead to considering an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If patients with polymyalgia rheumatica do not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. While alendronic acid is necessary for bone protection during long-term steroid use, it will not alleviate symptoms. Amitriptyline is better suited for chronic or neuropathic pain rather than inflammatory conditions. Aspirin and naproxen may provide some relief due to their anti-inflammatory properties, but the response will not be as significant as with prednisolone.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner, complaining of long-standing back pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner, complaining of long-standing back pain, with no red flags. On examination, he has tenderness bilaterally in the lower lumbar area and reduced lumbar spine range of movement. He is found to be positive for human leukocyte antigen B27 (HLA-B27) antigen and an X-ray of his sacroiliac joints shows bilateral erosions.
      Which single feature most supports a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis (AS) above another cause of back pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ankylosing Spondylitis: Diagnostic Indicators and Symptoms

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a type of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine and other joints. It is more commonly diagnosed in men aged 20-30 years. Symptoms of AS may take up to 8-10 years to become evident on an X-ray film, but when present, they are diagnostic. However, earlier in the disease course, indirect evidence of sacroiliitis and spondylitis may be detected, including sacroiliac joint tenderness and limited spinal movement, which are nonspecific. Advanced-stage AS is characterized by stiffness of the spine, kyphosis, and a stooped posture. This article discusses the diagnostic indicators and symptoms of AS, including back stiffness, limited lumbar spine motion, presence of HLA-B27 antigen, and tenderness in the lower lumbar area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 6 - You are evaluating a 55-year-old man with osteoarthritis. His symptoms are not adequately...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 55-year-old man with osteoarthritis. His symptoms are not adequately managed with regular paracetamol and a topical NSAID. During your discussion of treatment options, he mentions experiencing constipation with previous use of opioid analgesics. As a result, you decide to initiate a brief course of oral anti-inflammatory therapy on an as-needed basis. What is the most suitable initial NSAID to recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs and COX-2 Inhibitors: Balancing Thrombotic and GI Risks

      Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they carry different risks. COX-2 inhibitors have an increased risk of thrombotic events, while all NSAIDs are associated with potential serious gastrointestinal (GI) problems. However, there is variation in risk among different NSAIDs.

      Diclofenac at high doses and high dose ibuprofen are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen and lower doses of ibuprofen have not been shown to increase the risk of myocardial infarction. In terms of GI toxicity, azapropazone has the highest risk, ibuprofen the lowest, and naproxen and diclofenac are intermediate. Selective COX-2 inhibitors provide the lowest risk of serious GI toxicity.

      When choosing a pain reliever, the specific indication and patient factors should be considered. Etoricoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, should only be used if a specific indication to avoid a traditional NSAID is present. Ketorolac is licensed for short-term management of postoperative pain. The doses of diclofenac given in the options increase the risk of thrombotic events. The naproxen and ibuprofen doses given provide the lowest thrombotic risk, but ibuprofen has a better GI safety profile and is the cheapest option. Gastroprotection, such as proton-pump inhibitors, should also be considered based on patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of her right humerus for a few weeks. The pain radiates into her forearm and is aggravated by resisted dorsiflexion of her wrist. What is the most cost-effective management option for her in the long-term (12 months)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wait-and-see approach with analgesia

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: A Comparison of Effectiveness and Costs

      Tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness on the outer part of the elbow. In a randomized controlled trial, three treatment options were compared: physiotherapy, corticosteroid injections, and a wait-and-see policy with analgesia.

      At six weeks, corticosteroid injections showed the most significant improvement in symptoms, but the benefits were short-lived. At 52 weeks, physiotherapy was found to be superior to corticosteroid injections for all outcome measures. The wait-and-see policy also showed beneficial long-term effects compared with corticosteroid injections.

      While physiotherapy may be the most effective treatment option, it is also the most expensive. A wait-and-see policy with adequate advice and provision of analgesia may be enough for most patients, as nearly 90% of patients will recover within one year.

      Acupuncture and surgical release of the extensor origin are not recommended due to limited evidence. Clinicians should discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each option with their patients to determine the best course of treatment.

      Comparing Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: Which is Most Effective and Cost-Efficient?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old woman presents with malaise, joint pain and swelling, Raynaud's phenomenon, Sjögren...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with malaise, joint pain and swelling, Raynaud's phenomenon, Sjögren syndrome, muscle pain and sclerodactyly. Her immunology results show a positive ANA and high titre of anti-nRNP, but no antibodies to Ro (SSA), La (SSB), Jo-1 (RNA synthetase), PM-1 (nucleolar protein), double-stranded DNA, SCL-70 (topoisomerase) and centromere. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed connective tissue disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Mixed Connective Tissue Disorder and Other Conditions

      Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms and shared antibodies. One such disorder is mixed connective tissue disorder, which presents with undifferentiated connective tissue disorder and anti-nRNP antibodies along with Raynaud’s phenomenon. However, it is important to differentiate this disorder from others with similar features.

      Polymyositis and/or dermatomyositis, for example, are associated with anti-Jo-1 and anti-PM-1 antibodies. Sjögren syndrome, on the other hand, is commonly associated with SSA and SSB antibodies, which can also be seen in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Systemic sclerosis and/or CREST may present with anti-centromere or topoisomerase antibodies.

      Therefore, a thorough understanding of the specific antibodies associated with each autoimmune disorder is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of antiphospholipid syndrome presents with a swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of antiphospholipid syndrome presents with a swollen and painful leg. Doppler ultrasound confirms a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She had a previous DVT 6 months ago and was taking warfarin (with a target INR of 2-3) when the DVT occurred. How should her anticoagulation be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifelong warfarin, increase target INR to 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      Although there is limited evidence available, many clinicians would recommend raising the target INR to 3-4 for patients who have experienced another thrombosis while maintaining an INR of 2-3. For further information, please refer to the BCSH guidelines.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.

      Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis and high blood pressure presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis and high blood pressure presents to the GP for a follow-up on recent test results. He follows a vegetarian diet and enjoys gardening. On examination, he has joint deformities in his fingers but is otherwise unremarkable. His DEXA scan T-score was -2.5. The table below shows his blood test results.

      Calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 14 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 250 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.22 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 150 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the initial treatment that should be started?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium replacement

      Explanation:

      Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to correct hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency. Therefore, calcium replacement is the correct choice for this patient. If dietary intake is inadequate, calcium should be prescribed when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. As this patient is vegan and hypocalcemic, it is likely that her dietary intake is insufficient, making calcium replacement necessary.

      While alendronate is a suitable first-line bisphosphonate, it cannot be initiated until the patient’s hypocalcemia is corrected.

      Dietary and lifestyle advice alone is not appropriate for this patient, as she requires correction of her hypocalcemia and osteopenia. However, such advice may be given in conjunction with pharmacological measures.

      Pamidronate is an intravenous bisphosphonate that may be used by a specialist if first-line bisphosphonates are not tolerated or contraindicated.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following medications has been linked to a higher likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications has been linked to a higher likelihood of atypical stress fractures in the proximal femoral shaft?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      An elevated risk of atypical stress fractures is linked to the use of bisphosphonates.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 12 - You see a 40-year-old man who has presented with a three week history...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 40-year-old man who has presented with a three week history of right shoulder pain.
      He has recently been doing some home renovations and wonders if this has caused the problem as he has been quite busy with manual labor. He localizes the pain to the tip of the shoulder and says it radiates to the outer aspect of his upper arm. He reports that the pain is worse when he has to lift his arm above shoulder level and has noticed pain with brushing his teeth and putting on his shirt.
      On examination the joint is cool and stable. He is systemically well. You are able to demonstrate a painful arc. There is normal power with no neurovascular deficit in the arm.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate imaging to perform at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No imaging

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Shoulder Injuries

      When a patient presents with rotator cuff tendinitis, a clinical diagnosis is the most appropriate approach. Imaging is not necessary at this point unless there are atypical symptoms or the initial management strategies are ineffective. However, if further imaging is needed, there are several modalities available for assessing shoulder injuries.

      Ultrasound (US) is the preferred investigation for assessing the rotator cuff and surrounding soft tissues. It can also guide injections and is reserved for cases that do not respond to first-line treatment and clinically guided injection. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is an alternative to US and is useful for assessing complex injuries and bony abnormalities after major trauma. It can also exclude rare conditions that are obscured by acromial arch and bone abnormalities when other investigations and treatments fail to establish a diagnosis.

      X-ray is used as a preoperative assessment and is indicated for persistent shoulder pain that is unresponsive to conservative management. It can exclude calcific tendinitis and diagnose conditions unrelated to the rotator cuff. However, it is important to evaluate the benefits of imaging to limit unnecessary requests that waste resources and may expose the patient to unnecessary radiation.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man wakes up on a Monday morning unable to extend his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man wakes up on a Monday morning unable to extend his wrist. He had consumed a large amount of alcohol the night before. What could be the probable reason for his weakness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The cause of this man’s condition, known as ‘Saturday night palsy’, is the compression of the radial nerve against the humeral shaft. It is likely that this was caused by sleeping on a hard chair with his arm hanging over the back.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 14 - A 7-year-old girl has fallen off the monkey bars and is now not...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has fallen off the monkey bars and is now not using her right arm. Her mother brings her to the minor injury department and an X-ray is taken. The X-ray shows a non-displaced fracture of the distal third of the humerus. There is no neurovascular involvement.
      What is the most appropriate management option in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immobilising sling

      Explanation:

      Management of Clavicle Fracture: Immobilising Sling and Analgesia

      When a patient presents with an uncomplicated clavicle fracture, the correct management is to use an immobilising sling. This allows the fracture to heal in the correct position and reduces the patient’s pain during the healing process. Without immobilisation, the fracture could become displaced, leading to poor healing and loss of function. Analgesia and reassurance are also important to manage the patient’s pain and anxiety.

      It is important to note that a closed reduction is only necessary if the bones are out of alignment, and an open reduction and internal fixation are only indicated if there is neurovascular compromise. In this case, neither procedure is required as the fracture is non-displaced and there is no neurovascular compromise.

      Overall, the management of a clavicle fracture involves immobilisation, pain management, and careful monitoring for any complications.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 15 - You encounter a 44 year old woman who complains of a painful, swollen...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 44 year old woman who complains of a painful, swollen left calf that has been bothering her for the past 2 days. Upon examination, she appears to be stable hemodynamically and has oxygen saturation levels of 98% on air. Her left leg is visibly inflamed, measuring 3 cm larger in diameter than her right leg, and she experiences tenderness along the deep venous system. After conducting a thorough history and physical examination, you calculate her two level Wells score to be 3. Given this score, what would be the most appropriate next step in her management, taking into account local resources?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan within the next four hours

      Explanation:

      If the patient has symptoms and signs of a left leg DVT and a 2-level DVT Wells score of ≥ 2 points, a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be arranged within 4 hours. It is important to rule out pulmonary embolus, but hospital admission may not be necessary if this is unlikely. If a scan cannot be done within 4 hours, a D-dimer test may be performed with interim treatment dose LMWH. NICE guidelines recommend a scan within 4 hours for a score of 3.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban nor rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man has rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
    What is the single correct statement about...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
      What is the single correct statement about his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP) is typically normal in non-infected patients with active disease

      Explanation:

      There are some inaccuracies in the given explanation about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Firstly, C-reactive protein (CRP) is not a reliable indicator of disease activity in SLE, but it can help distinguish between a lupus flare and infection. Secondly, neutropenia is less common than lymphopenia in SLE. Thirdly, while SLE can lead to various pulmonary complications, severe pulmonary fibrosis is uncommon. Fourthly, rheumatoid factor can be positive in up to 40% of SLE patients. Lastly, the low-dose combined oral contraceptive pill is not contraindicated in SLE, but caution should be exercised in women with certain antibodies and alternative methods of contraception may be preferred.

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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of a dull ache and numbness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of a dull ache and numbness in her right hand. She reports that her symptoms are more severe at night and she has to hang her arm out of bed and shake it to get relief. On examination, forced flexion of the wrist and pressure over the proximal wrist crease with thumbs reproduces the paraesthesia in her thumb, index finger, and middle finger. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Local corticosteroid injection

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that affects many people, and it can be quite debilitating. However, there are several treatment options available to help manage the symptoms. It is important to note that anti-inflammatories may exacerbate symptoms, and there is no significant evidence behind using a diuretic or amitriptyline as a treatment option. Instead, treatment options include avoiding precipitating causes, simple advice about minimizing activities that trigger symptoms, nocturnal wrist splintage, and corticosteroid injection. Referral for nerve conduction studies is appropriate in some cases where there is diagnostic doubt, but if there is a clear clinical diagnosis, further investigation is not needed, and treatment can be initiated. Corticosteroid injection is a first-line treatment option and can be performed based on a clinical diagnosis in primary care by an adequately trained and competent clinician. Surgery, which would not be an appropriate initial management, would clearly need referral to secondary care. By understanding these treatment options, individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome can work with their healthcare provider to find the best approach for managing their symptoms.

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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of pain in her right ankle. She twisted her ankle while stepping off a curb, resulting in an inversion injury to the right ankle. What is the most significant feature that would require an ankle X-ray to check for a fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tenderness of the lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for X-rays in Ankle Injuries

      The Ottawa ankle rules are a reliable tool for determining whether an ankle injury requires an X-ray. If there is pain in the medial or lateral malleolus, an X-ray is necessary if there is bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or an inability to bear weight for four steps. Bruising and swelling of the ankle joint do not necessarily indicate the need for an X-ray, as they can occur in both bony and soft-tissue injuries. Ankle joint instability may suggest a ligamental injury, but an X-ray is not always necessary unless there are other indications. Pain on walking may occur with both types of injuries, but an inability to walk for four steps immediately after the injury or at the time of assessment would warrant an X-ray. The initial management of soft-tissue injuries is rest, ice, compression, and elevation, with physiotherapy or surgery as needed for more severe cases.

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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man presents with chronic back pain, which worsened one week ago....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with chronic back pain, which worsened one week ago. He has been wheelchair-bound for six months because of severe osteoporosis with multiple lumbosacral spine fractures. He has severe asthma, which has required large doses of glucocorticoids for many years. The patient reports a progressive loss of height and kyphosis over the past year. Other medications include salbutamol and ipratropium inhalers and long-acting theophylline 300 mg twice a day. Significant physical findings include bilateral cataracts, multiple ecchymoses and a prolonged expiratory phase with bilateral wheezes. Calcium and phosphate are in the middle of the normal range.
      Which of the following treatments would be the first choice in this patient for treatment of his bone disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisphosphonate therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis in Chronic Asthma Patients on Glucocorticoid Therapy

      Chronic use of glucocorticoid therapy for asthma can lead to significant osteoporosis. Bisphosphonates are the first-line therapy for improving bone mass in the lumbar spine and hip. While daily preparations were associated with significant gastrointestinal side effects, weekly and monthly options are now available with less propensity for adverse effects. An IV infusion is also a potential delivery option for bisphosphonates. Testosterone replacement is not indicated in this situation, as there is no indication of androgen deficiency. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation alone are inadequate as treatments for osteoporosis. Long-term calcitonin therapy is not recommended due to increased risk of osteosarcoma.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old female patient visits her GP for a follow-up on her metacarpophalangeal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient visits her GP for a follow-up on her metacarpophalangeal joint pain. She has been taking ibuprofen which has provided some relief. Upon examination, the doctor observes swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal joint on one side, indicating synovitis. The patient's vital signs are normal and she doesn't have a fever. Blood tests are ordered and the patient is scheduled for a subsequent review.

      What would be the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to refer any patient who presents with new synovitis to a rheumatologist urgently for evaluation. This is because the patient may have an inflammatory joint disease that requires immediate attention. The rheumatologist can conduct blood tests to check for related auto-immune antibodies, including Antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor, while the patient is being referred.

      In case the patient is febrile or has risk factors for septic arthritis, such as intravenous drug use, it would be useful to organise joint aspiration. However, it is best to leave this decision to the rheumatologist.

      It is not advisable to reassure the patient and avoid referring them to a specialist. Early identification and treatment of inflammatory arthropathy can prevent long-term functional impairment.

      Referring the patient to rheumatology is necessary and should be done urgently. Delaying the referral can lead to the loss of hand function and other debilitating effects of untreated inflammatory arthritis.

      Referring the patient to the emergency department is not required unless the patient is febrile and hypotensive.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.

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  • Question 21 - What structure is at highest risk of injury in a fracture of the...

    Incorrect

    • What structure is at highest risk of injury in a fracture of the neck of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The nerve supply to deltoid

      Explanation:

      Deltoid Muscle and Nerve Supply

      The deltoid muscle, located in the shoulder, is innervated by the circumflex humeral (axillary) nerve. While it is not a common occurrence, injury to this nerve can result in complications with the deltoid muscle. In fact, it is the most likely complication of this type of injury. It is important to be aware of this potential complication in order to properly diagnose and treat any issues that may arise.

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  • Question 22 - John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged for a routine DEXA scan. The DEXA results are as follows:

      Spine (L2-4) T: -2.6 Z: -1.7
      Left femur T: -1.5 Z: -0.9
      Right femur T: -2.3 Z: -1.5

      What is your interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The results of the DEXA scan show that the spine has osteoporosis with a T-score below -2.5, while the left and right femur have osteopenia with T-scores between -1 and -2.5. It is important to note that osteoporosis is diagnosed when the T-score is below -2.5, while osteopenia is diagnosed when the T-score is between -1 and -2.5. The z score takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, but the T score is used to determine the presence of osteoporosis and osteopenia.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

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  • Question 23 - A 54-year-old man who recently began taking simvastatin is experiencing muscle pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man who recently began taking simvastatin is experiencing muscle pain and fatigue. He is an avid runner and takes aspirin as his only other medication. His creatine kinase level is 305 iu/l (normal range 0-160 iu/l), but his renal function is normal. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce to a lower dose of statin

      Explanation:

      Managing Myalgia in Statin Therapy: CK and TSH Testing and Treatment Options

      Myalgia, or muscle pain, is a common side effect of statin therapy, particularly in patients who exercise. If a patient presents with suspected statin myopathy, healthcare providers should measure their creatine kinase (CK) and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and provide appropriate advice based on the results.

      If the CK level is greater than five times the upper limit of normal, other potential causes (such as drug interactions) should be ruled out, and the statin should be discontinued. If the CK level is less than five times the upper limit of normal, the myalgia is typically not significant and may be related to exercise.

      However, if the patient is symptomatic despite a non-significant elevation in CK levels, alternative statins or a lower dose should be considered. If these options are not effective, ezetimibe may be prescribed.

      In summary, managing myalgia in statin therapy involves careful monitoring of CK and TSH levels and adjusting treatment accordingly to minimize discomfort and ensure patient safety.

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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a four week history of shoulder pain. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a four week history of shoulder pain. There has been no obvious precipitating injury and no previous experience. The pain is worse on movement and there is a grating sensation if she moves the arm too quickly. She also gets pain at night, particularly when she lies on the affected shoulder.

      On examination there is no obvious erythema or swelling. Passive abduction is painful between 60 and 120 degrees. She is unable to abduct the arm herself past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are preserved. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis

      Explanation:

      The individual is exhibiting a typical symptom known as the painful arc, which is indicative of shoulder impingement. This condition is often caused by supraspinatus tendonitis.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

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  • Question 25 - A 37-year-old woman with painful swollen metacarpo-phalangeal joints on both hands for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman with painful swollen metacarpo-phalangeal joints on both hands for the last three weeks presents in surgery.
      What is the most appropriate investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis

      When a patient is suspected to have rheumatoid arthritis, urgent referral to secondary care is necessary. While investigations may be carried out in primary care, they should not delay the referral process. The most appropriate investigation for this condition is rheumatoid factor, which is positive in 60-70% of people with rheumatoid arthritis. However, in this question, CRP or ESR are the most appropriate investigations for the initial acute phase. These are inflammatory markers that may support the clinical suspicion if elevated.

      Other investigations, such as Antinuclear antibodies, HLA-B27 testing, plain radiograph, and total immunoglobulin E levels, are not useful in this case. ANAs may suggest connective tissue diseases, but they are not a useful test at this stage. HLA-B27 testing may be appropriate for reactive arthritis or ankylosing spondylitis, but these diseases do not present similarly to rheumatoid arthritis. Plain radiograph may be useful early in the course of the disease, but it is unlikely to be arranged by a general practitioner if urgent referral to secondary care has been made. Total immunoglobulin E levels are measured in allergic disease and are not relevant to rheumatoid arthritis.

      Investigations for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis: What to Consider and What to Avoid

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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of widespread pain, stiffness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of widespread pain, stiffness, and subjective weakness in her shoulders bilaterally. She reports taking longer to get dressed in the morning, sometimes up to 45 minutes due to her symptoms. There is no complaint of scalp tenderness or jaw claudication.

      During examination, there is no objective weakness identified in her upper and lower limbs. No erythema or swelling is visible in her shoulders. Passive motion of her shoulders bilaterally improves her pain.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Upon examination, there is no actual weakness observed in the limb girdles of a patient with polymyalgia rheumatica. Any perceived weakness is likely due to myalgia, which is pain-induced inhibition of muscles.

      The most probable diagnosis for a patient with gradual onset and symmetrical symptoms, such as this woman, is polymyalgia rheumatica. Although the patient reports subjective weakness, it is most likely due to pain rather than actual objective weakness, which is typical of this condition. If there were any visible deformities or true weakness, it would suggest a different diagnosis.

      Rotator cuff tendinopathy would not typically present with symmetrical features or significant morning stiffness.

      Cervical myelopathy would likely reveal objective weakness during examination, along with other potential symptoms such as clumsiness and numbness/paraesthesia.

      Fibromyalgia is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient in this age group and would not typically present with morning stiffness.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old builder presents with a two week history of deteriorating pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old builder presents with a two week history of deteriorating pain in both feet that feels as though he is walking on gravel, and a sore lower back.

      He returned from a holiday in Spain two months ago and had been aware of a transient urethral discharge for which he has received no treatment.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis

      Reactive arthritis, previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, is a condition characterized by a triad of symptoms. These include sero-negative arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The painful feet reflect a plantar fasciitis, while sacroiliitis is often present.

      Reactive arthritis is known to occur after gastrointestinal infections with Shigella or Salmonella. It can also occur following a nonspecific urethritis. On the other hand, gonococcal arthritis tends to occur in patients who are systemically unwell and have features of septic arthritis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and causes of reactive arthritis is crucial in its diagnosis and management. Proper identification and treatment of the underlying infection can help alleviate the symptoms and prevent complications.

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  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old woman with polymyalgia rheumatica was started on prednisolone 15 mg daily...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with polymyalgia rheumatica was started on prednisolone 15 mg daily and had a great therapeutic response. The steroid dose has now been reduced to 10 mg daily, and the plan is to continue tapering the prednisolone dose by 1 mg per month, aiming to discontinue prednisolone in one year's time. Routine bloods are normal except for mild anaemia and a significant elevation in erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
      What is the best approach to osteoporosis prophylaxis for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alendronic acid and calcium carbonate and vitamin D

      Explanation:

      Bone Protective Therapy for Patients on Long-Term Corticosteroids

      Patients on long-term corticosteroids are at an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, even at low doses of 5 mg daily. The loss of bone mineral density is most significant in the first few months of therapy, but fracture risk decreases rapidly after stopping. Patients over 65 years of age or with a prior fragility fracture are considered high risk and should begin bone protective therapy at the start of corticosteroid treatment.

      Bisphosphonate monotherapy is not sufficient for long-term steroid patients, and combination therapy with calcium and vitamin D is necessary. Alendronic acid is a commonly prescribed bisphosphonate for bone protection. Calcium carbonate is also important in preventing osteoporotic fractures when combined with alendronic acid and vitamin D.

      A dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is not necessary before starting bone protection treatment for long-term corticosteroid patients. However, a DEXA scan is recommended for patients over 50 years of age with a history of fragility fracture or those under 40 years of age with a major risk factor for fragility fracture.

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  • Question 29 - What is the minimum steroid dosage that a patient should be on before...

    Incorrect

    • What is the minimum steroid dosage that a patient should be on before being considered for osteoporosis prevention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Equivalent of prednisolone 7.5 mg or more each day for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

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  • Question 30 - What is the true statement regarding falls in the elderly from the given...

    Incorrect

    • What is the true statement regarding falls in the elderly from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50% of people over the age of 80 have had a fall in the previous 12 months

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes and Risks of Falls in the Elderly

      As people age, the risk of falling increases significantly. In fact, around 30% of those over 60 years old experience a fall each year, with this number rising to 50% for those over 80. While simple trips account for 50% of falls, 30% are idiopathic, meaning the cause is unknown. However, dizziness, cardiovascular issues, and drug use can also contribute to falls.

      Neurological diseases like Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s, as well as previous cerebrovascular disease, are common causes of falls in those who have these conditions. Even patients in stroke rehabilitation wards have a high risk of falling, with up to 50% experiencing a fall. Unfortunately, falls often result in injury, with up to 70% causing harm and 10% resulting in fractures.

      Interestingly, female sex is a risk factor for falls, and certain medications like hypnotics, antidepressants, blood pressure-lowering drugs, and anticonvulsants have been linked to a higher risk of falling. By understanding the causes and risks of falls in the elderly, we can take steps to prevent them and keep our loved ones safe.

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  • Question 31 - A 68-year-old gentleman comes to see you for the result of his x...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old gentleman comes to see you for the result of his x ray. He was seen by a colleague two weeks ago with knee pain and was referred for plain films of his right knee.

      The x ray report states: 'loss of joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis and subchondral cyst formation'.

      What is the underlying cause of his knee pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Radiological Features of Joint Diseases

      Osteoarthritis is a joint disease that can be identified through four core features on plain x-ray examination. These features include loss of joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cyst formation. All of these features are present on the x-ray, making osteoarthritis the correct diagnosis.

      Chondrocalcinosis, on the other hand, is characterized by calcium deposition in structures such as the cartilage. In gout, x-rays may only show soft tissue swelling, but chronic inflammation can lead to punched out lesions in juxta-articular bone. Late-stage gout is characterized by tophi formation and joint space narrowing.

      In rheumatoid arthritis, plain films can show soft tissue swelling, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and loss of joint space. As the disease progresses, the destructive nature of the disease can lead to bony erosions, subluxation, and massive deformity. Septic arthritis, an infective process, can be identified through early plain film radiographic findings of soft tissue swelling around the joint and a widened joint space from joint effusion. With the progression of the disease, joint space narrowing can occur as articular cartilage is destroyed.

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  • Question 32 - You see a 75-year-old male patient with back pain. He reports having lower...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 75-year-old male patient with back pain. He reports having lower back pain for the past year, which has gradually worsened. The pain now radiates bilaterally to his buttocks, thighs, and legs, with the left leg being worse than the right. He describes the pain as 'cramping' and 'burning'. Walking for more than a few minutes causes weakness and numbness in his legs, which improves when he sits down and leans forward. Standing exacerbates the symptoms, and he has lost his independence and now uses a walking aid. His wife has noticed a more stooped posture than 12 months ago.

      The patient's medical history includes hypertension, which is controlled with medication. He has never smoked and has a normal BMI. On examination, he has a wide-based gait, and neurological examination of his lower limbs is normal. Peripheral pulses feel normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation and examination findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      A patient who experiences gradual leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness while walking, with a normal clinical examination, is most likely suffering from spinal stenosis. This condition is characterized by symptoms that are relieved by sitting and leaning forward, and worsened by walking, especially on flat surfaces. Although physical examination findings are often normal in patients with lumbar spinal stenosis, it is important to rule out other conditions such as vascular claudication. Sciatica, which typically presents with unilateral leg pain, is less likely to be the cause of these symptoms.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

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  • Question 33 - Samantha is a 75-year-old woman who visited her GP complaining of stiffness and...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 75-year-old woman who visited her GP complaining of stiffness and pain in her shoulders and hips. After diagnosis with polymyalgia rheumatica, she was prescribed 15mg prednisolone daily. However, when she returned to her GP a month later, she reported no relief from her symptoms. What should be the next step in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a specialist

      Explanation:

      According to CKS, if the patient’s symptoms do not improve with a 10 mg dose of prednisolone, the GP may consider increasing the dose to 20 mg. However, doubling the dose is not recommended.

      While physiotherapy may provide some relief, it is important to determine the underlying diagnosis.

      The GP should not initiate immunosuppressant therapy.

      Although NSAIDs can help manage pain, they will not aid in reaching a definitive diagnosis.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 34 - Which of the following tumors is most likely to spread to the bone...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tumors is most likely to spread to the bone in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Metastasis to the bone is most frequently observed in cases of primary tumours of the prostate.

      Bone Metastases: Common Tumours and Sites

      Bone metastases occur when cancer cells from a primary tumour spread to the bones. The most common tumours that cause bone metastases are prostate, breast, and lung cancer, with prostate cancer being the most frequent. The most common sites for bone metastases are the spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, and long bones.

      Aside from bone pain, other features of bone metastases may include pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, and raised levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Pathological fractures occur when the bone weakens due to the cancer cells, causing it to break. Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is too much calcium in the blood, which can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and confusion. ALP is an enzyme that is produced by bone cells, and its levels can be elevated in the presence of bone metastases.

      A common diagnostic tool for bone metastases is an isotope bone scan, which uses technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates that accumulate in the bones. The scan can show multiple irregular foci of high-grade activity in the bones, indicating the presence of metastatic cancer. In the image provided, the bone scan shows multiple osteoblastic metastases in a patient with metastatic prostate cancer.

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  • Question 35 - You are asked to go and review Sarah, an 82-year-old nursing home resident...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to go and review Sarah, an 82-year-old nursing home resident with pains in her legs.

      Sarah has a 40-pack-year smoking history and has recently been diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment.

      For the last 48 hours, the staff at the nursing home have noticed Sarah is very uncomfortable when getting out of her bed. The nursing staff mention that she has now started to require assistance to transfer into her chair from the bed as she reports the pain makes her legs 'give way'.

      Sarah describes severe pains in her legs, mainly located at the back of her thighs but sometimes moving down into her lower legs and feet. She describes the pain as ‘electric shocks’.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cauda equina syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with bilateral sciatica is cauda equina syndrome. This condition may be caused by malignant spread, which is more likely in patients with a history of smoking and advanced age, increasing the risk of prostate cancer. Bilateral claudication, Guillain-Barré syndrome, osteoarthritis, and peripheral neuropathy are less likely diagnoses as they do not present acutely with bilateral sciatica symptoms.

      Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. This can lead to permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness, as well as urinary and bowel incontinence. It is important to consider CES in any patient who presents with new or worsening lower back pain.

      The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically occurring at L4/5 or L5/S1. Other causes include tumors, infections, trauma, and hematomas. CES may present in a variety of ways, including low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation or pins-and-needles in the perianal area, and decreased anal tone. Urinary dysfunction, such as incontinence, reduced awareness of bladder filling, and loss of urge to void, is also a possible symptom.

      It is crucial to recognize that there is no one symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude CES. However, checking anal tone in patients with new-onset back pain is good practice, even though studies show that it has poor sensitivity and specificity for CES. In case of suspected CES, an urgent MRI is necessary. The management of CES involves surgical decompression.

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  • Question 36 - A 72-year-old man has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed a calcium and vitamin D supplement. He expresses concern about potential side effects. What adverse effect has been associated with the use of calcium supplementation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      An association has been found between calcium supplementation and a higher likelihood of experiencing a heart attack.

      Calcium and Vitamin D Supplementation for Osteoporosis: Potential Risks and Recommendations

      Osteoporosis is a common condition that affects postmenopausal women, and calcium and vitamin D supplementation are often prescribed to prevent fractures. However, the 2008 NICE guidelines recommend that clinicians ensure patients have adequate calcium intake and vitamin D levels before prescribing supplements. While it may seem logical to prescribe a combined calcium and vitamin D supplement, recent studies have raised concerns about the potential risks of calcium supplements.

      A meta-analysis published in the BMJ in 2010 suggested that calcium supplements may increase the risk of ischaemic heart disease. Although this study was criticized for not considering vitamin D co-prescription, subsequent analyses of this study and two others have confirmed the association. A study published in Heart in 2012 found that patients taking calcium supplements had a significantly increased risk of myocardial infarction compared to those with high calcium intake through dietary means.

      Despite these findings, major guideline bodies have not yet provided clear recommendations on how to proceed. For now, it is recommended to encourage patients to aim for a dietary calcium intake of around 1,000mg/day and prescribe a standalone vitamin D supplement (usually 10mcg/day). This approach may help prevent fractures while minimizing potential risks associated with calcium supplementation.

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  • Question 37 - An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures due to osteoporosis is worried about her own risk. What is the best method to evaluate her risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assess her using the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Although radiographs can reveal osteopenia, they are insufficient for accurately assessing the extent of osteopenia/osteoporosis. Normal calcium and phosphate levels are observed in osteoporosis.

      The tool for Birmingham Hip Score doesn’t exist.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 38 - A 44-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports feeling a snapping sensation in his hip accompanied by deep groin and hip pain. The patient participated in a football game the previous weekend. He has no prior history of such symptoms and is not on any regular medication. Upon further inquiry, he admits to consuming alcohol regularly, with an average of 70 units per week.

      During the examination, the man's large body habitus is noticeable. He can bear weight and move around the room with ease. However, his range of motion is restricted by pain, particularly during external rotation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetabular labral tear

      Explanation:

      Acetabular labral tear is a condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of trauma, while older adults may develop it due to degenerative changes. The main symptoms of this condition include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking sensations.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 39 - What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Heberden’s Nodules: Bony Swellings in Osteoarthritis

      Heberden’s nodules are bony swellings that typically develop around the distal interphalangeal joints, particularly in the second and third fingers. These nodules are caused by calcific spurs of the articular cartilage at the base of the terminal phalanges in osteoarthritis. This condition is more common in females and usually occurs in middle age. Heberden’s nodules can cause pain and stiffness in the affected joints, and may limit hand function. Proper management of osteoarthritis can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 40 - Mrs Patel is a 75-year-old woman who presents with a burning pain in...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Patel is a 75-year-old woman who presents with a burning pain in her buttock when walking. The pain radiates down her leg. She doesn't complain of any back pain. She finds that sitting helps ease the pain. In addition, she did find that leaning forwards on the shopping trolley at the supermarket made it easier to walk. On examination of her lower legs, there was no focal neurology and foot pulses were palpable.

      What investigation is most likely to be useful in diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      When spinal stenosis is suspected in a patient, the preferred imaging method is an MRI. It is important to differentiate between spinal stenosis and peripheral vascular disease, such as intermittent claudication. The absence of normal foot pulses suggests that peripheral vascular disease is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The fact that the patient experiences relief when leaning forward is a characteristic symptom of spinal stenosis. Nerve conduction studies are not used to diagnose spinal stenosis, but rather peripheral neuropathy. To diagnose peripheral vascular disease, possible investigations include an arterial duplex scan, ankle brachial pressure index, and angiogram.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

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