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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?
Your Answer: Absence of erythema surrounding lesions
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum (MC), is a viral infection of the skin that results in small, raised, pink lesions with a dimple in the center with little to no surrounding erythema. They may occasionally be itchy or sore. They may occur singularly or in groups. Any area of the skin may be affected, with abdomen, legs, arms, neck, genital area, and face being most common. Onset of the lesions is around 7 weeks after infection. It usually goes away within a year without scarring.
Chickenpox lesions in the early stages may be mistaken for molluscum. However, the presence of associated macules and later vesicles and pustules help to differentiate them. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30 yr. old male presented with exercise related syncope and dyspnoea for 2 weeks. His father passed away at the age of 40, due to sudden cardiac death. His ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy with widespread T wave inversions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cardiac angiogram
Correct Answer: Transthoracic echo
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy which is suggestive by the history, positive family history and ECG findings. Two-dimensional echocardiography is diagnostic for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. In general, a summary of echocardiography findings includes abnormal systolic anterior leaflet motion of the mitral valve, LV hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement, small ventricular chamber size, septal hypertrophy with septal-to-free wall ratio greater than 1.4:1, mitral valve prolapse and mitral regurgitation, decreased midaortic flow, and partial systolic closure of the aortic valve in midsystole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?
Your Answer: Confusion
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:
It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:
Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)
Nausea and vomiting: 50%
Vertigo: 50%
Confusion: 30%
Subjective weakness: 20%
Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death
Cherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.
Management
• 100% oxygen
• Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
• COHb levels > 20-25%
• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
• Loss of consciousness
• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder visits the office for a review. He is reluctant to try cognitive behavioural therapy. Which medication could be useful in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.
PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.
PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
-Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
-Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
-Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.
Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) therapy was initially developed in 1987 for the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is guided by the Adaptive Information Processing model. EMDR is an individual therapy typically delivered one to two times per week for a total of 6-12 sessions, although some people benefit from fewer sessions. Sessions can be conducted on consecutive days.
Drug treatments (paroxetine, mirtazapine, amitriptyline or phenelzine) should be considered for the treatment of PTSD when a sufferer expresses a preference to not engage in trauma-focused psychological treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced renal reabsorption
Explanation:Throughout pregnancy the tubular reabsorption of glucose is less effective than in the non-pregnant state, this leads to glycosuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old marketing manager presents with a persistent watery left eye for the past 4 days. On examination there is erythema and swelling of the inner canthus of the left eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dacryocystitis
Explanation:Dacryocystitis is an infection of the lacrimal sac, secondary to obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct at the junction of lacrimal sac. It causes pain, redness, a watering eye (epiphora), and swelling and erythema at the inner canthus of the eye. Management is with systemic antibiotics. IV antibiotics are indicated if there is associated periorbital cellulitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill
Explanation:The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.
Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.
The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.
Other options:
The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful.
There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course.
Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure.
There are multiple different types of combined pills. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Each one of the following statements regarding atrial natriuretic peptide are true, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secreted mainly by the left atrium
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a 28-amino acid peptide that is synthesized, stored, and released by atrial myocytes in response to atrial distension, angiotensin II stimulation, endothelin, and sympathetic stimulation (beta-adrenoceptor mediated). ANP is synthesized and secreted by cardiac muscle cells in the walls of the atria in the heart. The main physiological actions of natriuretic peptides is to reduce arterial pressure by decreasing blood volume and systemic vascular resistance. It causes a reduction in expanded extracellular fluid (ECF) volume by increasing renal sodium excretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show: Hb: 130g/l Platelets: 359*109/L, WBC: 10*109/L, CRP: 89mg/l Which of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence prednisolone
Explanation:Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which among the following is most likely to be beneficial to a patient with schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Among the given options, cognitive-behavioural therapy is the most likely to benefit a patient with schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.
Clinical features:
Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
Thought echo
Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviourThought disorder:
Thought insertion
Thought withdrawal
Thought broadcastingPassivity phenomena:
Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by othersOther features of schizophrenia include
Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
Decreased speech
Neologisms: made-up words
Catatonia
Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).Treatment:
For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old musician presented with a two-day history of sudden-onset occipital headache associated with nausea and vomiting. The next day, his right hand became weak for a few hours. On the same day he had an episode of sensory disturbance in his right upper limb consisting of tingling in his hand that spread up the arm, to his shoulder lasting less than two minutes in total. On the day of admission he had a similar episode of sensory disturbance lasting 30 seconds in total. On examination he had bilateral papilledema, no neck stiffness and an otherwise normal neurological examination. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venous sinus thrombosis
Explanation:Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis (CVST) is associated with headache (>90% of cases), seizures, focal weakness (40%) and papilledema (40%), all seen in this patient.
Risk factors for CVST include genetic or acquired prothrombotic disorders, pregnancy, the oral contraceptive pill, vasculitis, malignancy, dehydration and infection. However, there are multiple other associated factors.
Diagnosis is normally confirmed with magnetic resonance venography (MRV). Treatment is with anticoagulation, initially with heparin and subsequently with warfarin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Hepatitis C is what kind of virus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A variable RNA virus
Explanation:Hepatitis C is a single-stranded positive sense RNA virus. It is variable because of the high rate of error of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and the pressure from the host immune system has caused HCV to evolve and develop seven genetic lineages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CSF analysis
Explanation:This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to insulin deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets
Explanation:Insulin is produced by the beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas while Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the culmination of lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. As beta-cell mass declines, insulin secretion decreases until the available insulin is no longer adequate to maintain normal blood glucose levels. After 80-90% of the beta cells are destroyed, hyperglycaemia develops and diabetes may be diagnosed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a 22 year old man with seropositive rheumatoid arthritis who is planning to start a family?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Prednisolone although has many undesirable side effects it may be considered relatively safe compared to the drugs that are provided here. Prolonged treatment with sulphasalazine may depress semen quality and cause irreversible infertility. Methotrexate and leflunomide both inhibit purine/pyrimidine synthesis (the former by inhibiting folate metabolism) and are contraindicated in pregnancy or while trying to conceive. In males, a temporary or permanent decrease in sperm count may occur with cyclophosphamide. Because the recovery of fertility after cyclophosphamide therapy is variable, sperm banking should be considered before treatment is begun.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.
Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.
Contraindications
– Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
– Hypotension
– Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:
Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic Neuropathy
Nasal congestion
Flushing
Gastrointestinal side-effects
Headache -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents with a painless lump in the left breast associated with nipple discharge. The skin over the lump has an orange peel skin appearance. According to the patient, the lump has increased in size, with time. Diagnosis of breast cancer is strongly suspected. Which of the following would be most useful in monitoring the prognosis of breast cancer, in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymph node metastases
Explanation:The prognosis of breast cancer depends chiefly on the extent of nodal metastases.
The breast cancer TNM staging system is the most common way that doctors use to stage breast cancer. TNM stands for Tumour, Node, Metastasis. The results are combined to determine the stage of cancer for each person. There are five stages: stage 0 (zero), which is non-invasive ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), and stages I through IV (1 through 4), which are used for invasive breast cancer.
Staging can be clinical or pathological. Clinical staging is based on the results of tests done before surgery, which may include physical examinations, mammogram, ultrasound, and MRI scans. Pathologic staging is based on what is found during surgery to remove breast tissue and lymph nodes. In general, pathological staging provides the most information to determine a patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the mechanism of action of bivalirudin in acute coronary syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reversible direct thrombin inhibitor
Explanation:Bivalirudin is a competitive, direct thrombin inhibitor. It inhibits both free and clot-bound thrombin and thrombin-induced platelet aggregation. Thrombin enables fibrinogen conversion to fibrin during the coagulation cascade. So inhibition of fibrinogen conversion to fibrin inhibits thrombus development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 34 yr. old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for the past 2 weeks. On examination there was a mid-systolic murmur which is best heard at the apex and double apical impulse. His ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). What is the risk factor which would be most indicative of the potential for sudden death in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Degree of left ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:The history is suggestive of hypertrophic obstructive cardiac myopathy. The degree of left ventricular hypertrophy is strongly associated with sudden cardiac death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the usual outcome measure of cohort studies
Explanation:Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group). The relative risk is mistaken by some, with the odds ratio and absolute risk. Relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without the exposure. Thus to calculate the relative risk, we must know the exposure status of all individuals (either exposed or not exposed). This implies that relative risk is only appropriate for cases where the exposure status and incidence of disease can be accurately determined such as prospective cohort studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female known with schizophrenia is being reviewed in the emergency department. Her mother claims that she has been 'staring' for the past few hours but has now developed abnormal head movements and has gone 'cross-eyed'. On examination, the patient's neck is extended and positioned to the right. Her eyes are deviated upwards and are slightly converged. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is an oculogyric crisis, that is most appropriately managed with procyclidine or benztropine (antimuscarinic).
An oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction to certain drugs or medical conditions.
Features include:
Restlessness, agitation
Involuntary upward deviation of the eyesCauses:
Phenothiazines
Haloperidol
Metoclopramide
Postencephalitic Parkinson’s diseaseManagement:
Intravenous antimuscarinic agents like benztropine or procyclidine, alternatively diphenhydramine or ethopropazine maybe used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dalteparin
Explanation:Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.
Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
Other options are not indicated for use. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain for one hour. His ECG confirmed the diagnosis of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and he was treated with thrombolysis. Two days later he developed sudden onset breathlessness and became unwell. On examination he had bibasal crepitation and a systolic murmur at the apex which radiated to the axilla. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured papillary muscle
Explanation:The most likely cause for acute breathlessness is due to papillary muscle rupture which causes mitral regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following listed below is not a recognised feature of anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced growth hormone levels
Explanation:Physiological abnormalities in anorexia include:
– Hypokalaemia – from diuretic or laxative use
– Low FSH, LH, oestrogens and testosterone – most consistent endocrine abnormality was low serum luteinizing and follicle stimulating hormone (LH and FSH) levels associated with depressed serum oestradiol levels.
– Raised cortisol and growth hormone
– Impaired glucose tolerance – lack of glucose precursors in the diet or low glycogen stores. Low blood glucose may also be due to impaired insulin clearance
– Hypercholesterolemia
– Hypercarotenaemia
– Low T3 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27 year-old ballet instructor presents with 1-day history of left-sided facial weakness and an increased sensitivity to noise in her left ear. She is very anxious because 2 years ago she had some problems with her vision and was told that multiple sclerosis was a possibility. Her medical history is significant only for type 1 diabetes mellitus managed with insulin, and she is also taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, she has a lower motor neuron lesion of the left VII (facial) nerve with Bell's phenomenon present and difficulty closing her left eye. There is no objective hearing loss and no sensory signs. Examination of the auditory meatus and canal is unremarkable. The remainder of the neurological examination appears normal. The next management step in her care should be:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eye patch and artificial tears
Explanation:From the given history and physical examination findings, this patient has Bell’s palsy. There is no evidence to suggest involvement of any other cranial nerves, which might raise suspicion of a cerebello-pontine angle space-occupying lesion. With her history of possible optic neuritis, there is a possibility that the lesion is in fact a manifestation of multiple sclerosis, although this should be differentiated by examination of an upper motor neuron lesion (with sparing of the forehead facial muscles because of bilateral innervation). In light of her diabetes and the limited evidence of benefit from corticosteroid use, the most sensible first management step for her would be meticulous eye care to avoid corneal ulceration, as a result of the difficulty she is having closing her left eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 20 yr. old male presented after an episode where he had collapsed. This was the second time he has collapsed during the past 3 weeks. His father passed away at the age of 40 due to sudden cardiac death. Echocardiography showed evidence of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. His 24 hr ECG revealed several short runs of non sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT). Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Implantable cardiovertor defibrillator
Explanation:This patient has a high risk of sudden cardiac death due to a strong family history and non sustained VT. So the most appropriate management is implantable cardiovertor defibrillator.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 21 year old patient presents with multiple itchy wheals on his skin. The wheals are of all sizes and they are exacerbated by scratching. The symptoms started after a viral infection and can last up to an hour. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urticaria
Explanation:Urticaria is a group of disorders that share a distinct skin reaction pattern, namely the occurrence of itchy wheals anywhere on the skin. Wheals are short-lived elevated erythematous lesions ranging from a few millimetres to several centimetres in diameter and can become confluent. The itching can be prickling or burning and is usually worse in the evening or night time. Triggering of urticaria by infections has been discussed for many years but the exact role and pathogenesis of mast cell activation by infectious processes is unclear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old HIV positive man is referred to gastroenterology due to jaundiced sclera. Liver function tests are as follows: Albumin 34 g/l ALP 540 iu/l Bilirubin 67 µmol/L, ALT 45 iu/l What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:HIV can cause strictures in the biliary tract (see source for details of the disease). This makes the diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis most likely given the clinical presentation and lab values. Due to its association with HIV this is more likely than all of the other answer choices. Know this association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 57 year old homeless man presents with fever and a productive cough which has green sputum with streaks of blood. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with evidence of cavitation. He is a known alcoholic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klebsiella Pneumoniae
Explanation:Infection with Klebsiella organisms occurs in the lungs, where they cause destructive changes. Necrosis, inflammation, and haemorrhage occur within lung tissue, sometimes producing a thick, bloody, mucoid sputum described as currant jelly sputum.
The illness typically affects middle-aged and older men with debilitating diseases such as alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic bronchopulmonary disease. An increased tendency exists toward abscess formation, cavitation, empyema, and pleural adhesions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old designer is requesting the combined oral contraceptive pill. During the history taking, she states that in the past she has had migraines with aura. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is contraindicated. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke
Explanation:SIGN produced guidelines in 2008 on the management of migraines. Key points include that if patients have migraines with aura then the combined oral contraceptive (COC) is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke (relative risk 8.72).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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