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Question 1
Correct
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department by his parents who are worried that he may have croup. What clinical features would you expect to find in a child with croup?
Your Answer: Barking cough worse at night
Explanation:Croup is identified by a cough that sounds like a seal barking, especially worse during the night. Before the barking cough, there may be initial symptoms of a cough, runny nose, and congestion for 12 to 72 hours. Other signs of croup include a high-pitched sound when breathing (stridor), difficulty breathing (respiratory distress), and fever.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 2
Correct
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A 72-year-old man has been experiencing a worsening of his arthritis symptoms lately. His knees have been especially painful, and he has been using a hot water bottle in the evenings for relief. Upon examination, you observe pigmented areas with some redness on both of his knees.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Erythema ab igne
Explanation:Erythema ab igne is a condition that is frequently observed in older individuals. It typically occurs when they spend extended periods of time near a fire or utilize a hot water bottle in an attempt to relieve pain symptoms. This condition arises due to the harmful effects of heat on the skin, resulting in the appearance of reddened and pigmented areas. Fortunately, erythema ab igne tends to resolve on its own without any specific treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe vomiting for the past 10 hours. She informs you that she consumed Chinese takeout the night before. She is unable to tolerate any liquids by mouth, so you initiate an intravenous saline infusion.
What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate in a patient with severe vomiting?Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:During CPR of a hypothermic patient, it is important to follow specific guidelines. If the patient’s core temperature is below 30ºC, resuscitation drugs, such as adrenaline, should be withheld. Once the core temperature rises above 30ºC, cardiac arrest drugs can be administered. However, if the patient’s temperature is between 30-35ºC, the interval for administering cardiac arrest drugs should be doubled. For example, adrenaline should be given every 6-10 minutes instead of the usual 3-5 minutes for a normothermic patient.
Further Reading:
Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.
ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.
Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.
Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
Which ONE of the following is considered a positive prognostic factor in schizophrenia?Your Answer: Acute precipitating event
Explanation:Good prognostic factors in schizophrenia include an acute onset, which means that the symptoms appear suddenly and intensely. Additionally, the presence of a precipitating stressful event can also indicate a better prognosis. It is also beneficial if there is no family history of schizophrenia, but a family history of depression can be considered a positive factor. An older age of onset is another good prognostic factor, as it suggests a potentially milder course of the illness. Furthermore, if there is no history of previous episodes and the individual has normal intelligence, it can contribute to a better prognosis. A preponderance of affective symptoms, such as mood-related symptoms, is also considered favorable. It is important to note that the absence of loss of emotion and receiving prompt treatment are additional factors that can improve the prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease presents with symptoms suggestive of acute limb ischemia. After conducting a series of investigations, a thrombus is suspected as the likely underlying cause.
Which of the following characteristics is MOST INDICATIVE of a thrombus as the underlying cause rather than an embolus?Your Answer: Preceding history of claudication
Explanation:Acute limb ischaemia refers to a sudden reduction in blood flow to a limb, which puts the limb at risk of tissue death. This condition is most commonly caused by either a sudden blockage of a previously partially blocked artery by a blood clot or by an embolus that travels from another part of the body. Acute limb ischaemia is considered a medical emergency, and if not promptly treated with surgery to restore blood flow, it can lead to extensive tissue damage within six hours.
The classic signs of acute limb ischaemia are often described using the 6 Ps:
– Pain that is constant and persistent
– Absence of pulses in the ankle
– Pallor, cyanosis, or mottling of the skin
– Loss of power or paralysis in the affected limb
– Paraesthesia or reduced sensation, leading to numbness
– Feeling cold in the affected limbIt is important to be able to distinguish between ischaemia caused by a blood clot and ischaemia caused by an embolus. The following highlights the main differences:
Embolus Thrombus
– Onset is sudden, occurring within seconds to minutes – Onset is gradual, taking hours to days
– Ischaemia is usually severe due to the lack of collateral circulation – Ischaemia is less severe due to the presence of collateral circulation
– There is typically no history of claudication, and pulses may still be present in the other leg – There is often a history of claudication, and pulses may also be absent in the other leg
– Skin changes, such as marbling, may be visible in the feet. This can appear as a fine reticular blanching or mottling in the early stages, progressing to coarse, fixed mottling
– Skin changes are usually absent in cases of thrombus-induced ischaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her vehicle was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway blockage. Her cervical spine is immobilized in three places.
Which two fundamental airway techniques are recommended by ATLS guidelines to clear the airway in trauma patients?Your Answer: Chin-lift and jaw-thrust manoeuvres
Explanation:The most recent ATLS guidelines recommend using either the jaw-thrust or chin-lift techniques as the initial approach to open the airway in trauma patients. It is important to avoid moving the head and neck in patients with suspected cervical spine injuries. However, if the patient is unconscious and does not have a gag reflex, temporarily placing an oropharyngeal airway can be beneficial.
To perform the chin-lift technique, gently place your fingers under the mandible and lift it upwards to bring the chin forward. Use your thumb to slightly depress the lower lip and open the mouth. Alternatively, you can place your thumb behind the lower incisors while gently lifting the chin. It is crucial not to hyperextend the neck during the chin-lift technique.
For the jaw thrust technique, place one hand on each side of the mandible and push it forward. This can be done in conjunction with a bag-mask device to achieve a good seal and provide adequate ventilation. Just like with the chin-lift technique, be cautious not to extend the patient’s neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of right sided facial droop and right sided facial pain extending from the mouth to the ear. Upon examination, you observe an inability to fully close the right eye or lift the right side of the mouth to smile. Additionally, you notice a cluster of small vesicles just below and lateral to the right commissure of the mouth.
What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Varicella zoster infection
Explanation:Ramsay Hunt syndrome occurs when the dormant herpes zoster virus in the facial nerve becomes active again. This leads to the development of a vesicular rash, which can appear on the external ear, auditory canal, face near the mouth, or inside the mouth. It is often referred to as shingles of the facial nerve, but it is more complex than that. The infection primarily affects the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve, but because the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) is close by in the bony facial canal, symptoms of CN VIII dysfunction like tinnitus and vertigo may also be present.
Further Reading:
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus within the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. It is characterized by several clinical features, including ipsilateral facial paralysis, otalgia (ear pain), a vesicular rash on the external ear, ear canal, face, and/or mouth, and vestibulocochlear dysfunction (such as vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, or hyperacusis). Flu-like symptoms may also precede the rash. It is important to note that symptoms can vary, and in some cases, the rash may be absent.
The diagnosis of Ramsay Hunt syndrome is usually made based on clinical presentation. Treatment typically involves the use of antiviral medications, such as aciclovir or famciclovir, as well as steroids. In cases where the patient is unable to close their eye, an eye patch and lubricants may be used to protect the eye. The typical medication prescription for an adult includes aciclovir 800 mg five times daily or famciclovir 500 mg three times a day for 7-10 days, along with prednisolone 50 mg for 10 days or 60 mg once daily for 5 days, followed by a gradual reduction in dose.
Complications of Ramsay Hunt syndrome can include postherpetic neuralgia, corneal abrasions, secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, and chronic tinnitus and/or vestibular dysfunction. It is important for individuals with this condition to receive appropriate medical management to minimize these complications and promote recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman suffers a gunshot wound to the chest in a domestic dispute. A FAST scan is performed, which shows the presence of intra-thoracic free fluid.
Which of the following organs is most likely to be injured in this case?Your Answer: Small bowel
Explanation:Low-velocity gunshot wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. On the other hand, high-velocity gunshot wounds transfer a greater amount of kinetic energy to the abdominal viscera. These types of wounds can cause more extensive damage in the surrounding area of the missile’s path due to temporary cavitation.
When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma as a result of gunshot wounds, certain organs are more commonly injured. The small bowel is affected in approximately 50% of cases, followed by the colon in 40% of cases. The liver is injured in around 30% of cases, while abdominal vascular structures are affected in about 25% of cases.
Please note that these statistics have been obtained from the most recent edition of the ATLS manual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 9
Correct
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You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. He describes a sensation in which his train of thought is abruptly cut off completely. During the consultation, you observe that his speech is frequently interrupted by prolonged periods of silence, lasting for a minute or two.
Which ONE of the following thought disorders is he exhibiting?Your Answer: Thought blocking
Explanation:Thought blocking is a distressing phenomenon where one’s train of thought is abruptly halted. This occurrence is observed in various psychiatric disorders, such as schizophrenia. It manifests as sudden pauses in a person’s speech, lasting from a few seconds to even a minute or more.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman comes in with a swollen, red, and hot left knee. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.6°C. The knee feels warm to touch and is stiff, making it impossible for the patient to move it.
Which of the following antibiotics would be the most suitable to prescribe for this situation?Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is septic arthritis, which occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint and causes pus formation. The clinical features of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty in moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and overall feeling of being unwell.
The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria can also be responsible. These include Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea (typically seen in sexually active young adults with macules or vesicles on the trunk), and Escherichia coli (common in intravenous drug users, the elderly, and seriously ill individuals).
According to the current recommendations by NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) and the BNF (British National Formulary), the treatment for septic arthritis involves using specific antibiotics. Flucloxacillin is the first-line choice, but if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is suspicion of MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus), vancomycin is recommended. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic.
The suggested duration of treatment for septic arthritis is 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 11
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient comes in with an arthropathy affecting his right knee. After sending a joint aspirate to the laboratory, a diagnosis of pseudogout is made. What type of crystals would you anticipate observing in the presence of pseudogout?
Your Answer: Positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals
Explanation:Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.
Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a known history of lumbar radiculopathy causing neuropathic pain presents with an increase in his symptoms. He describes the pain as a severe burning sensation on the right side of his lower back and leg. You discuss his treatment options.
Which of the following pharmacological therapies is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for the management of neuropathic pain? Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:The first line of treatment for neuropathic pain includes options such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. The dosage should be adjusted based on how the individual responds to the medication and their ability to tolerate it. If the initial treatment does not provide relief or is not well tolerated, one of the remaining three medications can be considered as an alternative option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 13
Correct
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You assess a patient who is experiencing difficulty in closing their right eye due to a nerve injury. Currently, the eye is dry and necessitates regular administration of eye drops. Your consultant informs you that the orbicularis oculi muscle is solely responsible for closing the eye and suggests that if the symptoms cannot be improved, the patient may require surgical closure of the eye.
Which nerve has been affected in this scenario?Your Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The orbicularis oculi muscle encircles the eye socket and extends into the eyelid. It is composed of two parts: the orbital part, which forcefully closes the eye, and the palpebral part, which gently closes the eye. The innervation of the orbicularis oculi muscle is provided by the facial nerve. In the event of facial nerve damage, the orbicularis oculi muscle loses its functionality. As the sole muscle responsible for closing the eyelids, this can have significant clinical implications. The inability to shut the eye can lead to dryness of the cornea and the development of exposure keratitis. While mild cases can be managed with regular use of eye drops, severe cases may require surgical closure of the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who is being treated for a urinary tract infection comes back after 48 hours because her symptoms have not improved. Regrettably, the lab has not yet provided the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent. Her blood tests today indicate that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute. She has been taking trimethoprim 200 PO BD for the past two days.
What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) who are not pregnant, it is recommended to consider either a back-up antibiotic prescription or an immediate antibiotic prescription. This decision should take into account the severity of symptoms and the risk of developing complications, which is higher in individuals with known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or weakened immune systems. The evidence for back-up antibiotic prescriptions is limited to non-pregnant women with lower UTIs where immediate antibiotic treatment is not deemed necessary. It is also important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria. Ultimately, the preferences of the woman regarding antibiotic use should be taken into account.
If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, it is crucial to review the choice of antibiotic once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.
The following antibiotics are recommended for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and older:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if low risk of resistance*)Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice treatment for at least 48 hours, or if first-choice treatment is not suitable):
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Pivmecillinam 400 mg initial dose taken orally, followed by 200 mg taken orally three times daily for 3 days
– Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose*The risk of resistance may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (although this was not used), and in younger individuals in areas where local epidemiology data indicate low resistance rates. Conversely, the risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older individuals in residential facilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes in with a fever, difficulty breathing, and a cough with phlegm. During the examination, you notice crackling sounds in his lower left lung. You diagnose him with community-acquired pneumonia.
Which of the following statements is accurate about the CURB-65 scoring system?Your Answer: A serum urea of 7.5 mmol/l scores 1 point
Explanation:The CURB criteria, also referred to as the CURB-65 criteria, is a clinical prediction rule that has been scientifically proven to predict mortality in cases of community-acquired pneumonia. These criteria consist of five factors: confusion of new onset (AMTS <8), urea level greater than 7 mmol/l, respiratory rate exceeding 30 per minute, blood pressure below 90 mmHg systolic or 60 mmHg diastolic, and age over 65 years. Based on the score obtained from these criteria, the risk level can be determined. A score of 0-1 indicates a low-risk situation, where outpatient treatment is recommended. A score of 2-3 suggests a moderate risk, and either inpatient treatment or an ambulatory care pathway is recommended. A score of 4-5 indicates a high risk, requiring hospitalization and potentially critical care involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Correct
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A 38-year-old man from East Africa comes in with a fever, night sweats, a cough, and haemoptysis. He has a confirmed diagnosis of HIV and a CD4 count of 115 cells/mm3.
What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism in this scenario?Your Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:The co-epidemic of tuberculosis and HIV is a significant global health challenge at present. According to the WHO, there were 10 million new cases of tuberculosis in 2019, with approximately 11% of these cases being co-infected with HIV. Tuberculosis is the most common contagious infection in individuals with compromised immune systems due to HIV, often leading to death.
Tuberculosis is caused by an infection with the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. While it primarily affects the lungs, it can also impact various other parts of the body. The disease is spread through aerosol transmission, meaning it is transmitted through droplets in the air.
The primary symptoms of tuberculosis infection include a chronic cough, coughing up blood (haemoptysis), fever, night sweats, and weight loss. In individuals who have not been previously affected, tuberculosis can cause a primary lesion known as the Ghon focus. This lesion typically develops in the upper lobes of the lungs.
In 15-20% of cases, the infection spreads to extrapulmonary sites such as the pleura, central nervous system, lymphatics, bones, joints, and genitourinary system. Extrapulmonary tuberculosis that affects the spine is known as Pott’s disease, primarily affecting the lower thoracic and upper lumbar vertebrae. Cervical tuberculous lymphadenopathy, also known as scrofula, is characterized by cold abscesses without erythema or warmth.
Only a small percentage of patients, around 5-10%, go on to develop post-primary tuberculosis, also known as reactivation tuberculosis. This typically occurs a year or two after the primary infection and is more likely to happen in individuals with a weakened immune system. Reactivation tuberculosis often involves the lung apex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Correct
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A 32-year-old triathlete is brought in by ambulance after collapsing during a triathlon event. Due to a summer heatwave, several participants have been admitted with heat-related illnesses. The patient is diagnosed with heat stroke and is in critical condition with a low GCS and signs of organ damage. You decide to transfer the patient to a critical care unit.
Which of the following cooling methods would be the LEAST suitable option for this patient?Your Answer: Cold water immersion
Explanation:There are various cooling techniques that are recommended, but currently, there is limited conclusive evidence on which approach is the most effective. Some possible methods include simple measures such as consuming cold beverages, using fans, applying ice water packs, and spraying tepid water. Cold water immersion therapy can also be beneficial, but it requires the patient to be stable and cooperative, making it impractical for very ill individuals. For patients who are in a more critical condition, advanced cooling techniques like administering cold intravenous fluids, using surface cooling devices (SCD), employing intravascular cooling devices (ICD), or utilizing extracorporeal circuits may be utilized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with right eye pain and sensitivity to light. She reports that the eye pain worsens when she reads or uses her computer. Her eye is excessively watery. During the examination, her right pupil is constricted, and there is noticeable redness around the iris. Her visual acuity is measured and found to be 6/6. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis and takes a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Episcleritis
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the middle layer of the eye, which includes the iris and the ciliary body. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent damage and vision loss due to the development of conditions like glaucoma, cataract, or retinal edema.
There are various causes of anterior uveitis, including eye trauma from being hit or having a foreign object in the eye. It can also be associated with inflammatory disorders such as ankylosing spondylitis.
The clinical features of anterior uveitis are characterized by a red and sore eye, accompanied by pain that worsens when the ciliary muscles contract. Other symptoms include watering of the eye, blurred vision, sensitivity to light (photophobia), and a constricted or distorted pupil. The visual acuity may be normal or reduced.
Overall, anterior uveitis is a condition that requires prompt attention and treatment to prevent further complications and preserve vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Whilst assessing a patient in the Emergency Department, you observe a pansystolic murmur.
Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a pansystolic murmur?Your Answer: Aortopulmonary shunt
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Aortic stenosis leads to the presence of a murmur during the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is most audible at the right second intercostal space and can be heard extending into the right neck.
Mitral regurgitation, on the other hand, produces a high-pitched murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart and can be heard radiating into the axilla.
Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by a blowing murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is most clearly heard at the lower left sternal edge.
Ventricular septal defect results in a harsh murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is best heard at the third or fourth left intercostal space and can be heard radiating throughout the praecordium.
Aortopulmonary shunts are an extremely rare cause of a murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Correct
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You review the X-ray's of a young patient and they confirm a zygomatic fracture.
All of the following are reasons for immediate referral to the ophthalmologist or maxillofacial surgeons EXCEPT for which one?Your Answer: Otalgia
Explanation:If a patient with a zygoma fracture experiences visual disturbance, limited eye movements (especially upward gaze), or shows a teardrop sign on a facial X-ray, it is important to refer them urgently to ophthalmology or maxillofacial surgeons.
Further Reading:
Zygomatic injuries, also known as zygomatic complex fractures, involve fractures of the zygoma bone and often affect surrounding bones such as the maxilla and temporal bones. These fractures can be classified into four positions: the lateral and inferior orbital rim, the zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and the zygomatic arch. The full extent of these injuries may not be visible on plain X-rays and may require a CT scan for accurate diagnosis.
Zygomatic fractures can pose risks to various structures in the face. The temporalis muscle and coronoid process of the mandible may become trapped in depressed fractures of the zygomatic arch. The infraorbital nerve, which passes through the infraorbital foramen, can be injured in zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures. In orbital floor fractures, the inferior rectus muscle may herniate into the maxillary sinus.
Clinical assessment of zygomatic injuries involves observing facial asymmetry, depressed facial bones, contusion, and signs of eye injury. Visual acuity must be assessed, and any persistent bleeding from the nose or mouth should be noted. Nasal injuries, including septal hematoma, and intra-oral abnormalities should also be evaluated. Tenderness of facial bones and the temporomandibular joint should be assessed, along with any step deformities or crepitus. Eye and jaw movements must also be evaluated.
Imaging for zygomatic injuries typically includes facial X-rays, such as occipitomental views, and CT scans for a more detailed assessment. It is important to consider the possibility of intracranial hemorrhage and cervical spine injury in patients with facial fractures.
Management of most zygomatic fractures can be done on an outpatient basis with maxillofacial follow-up, assuming the patient is stable and there is no evidence of eye injury. However, orbital floor fractures should be referred immediately to ophthalmologists or maxillofacial surgeons. Zygomatic arch injuries that restrict mouth opening or closing due to entrapment of the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle also require urgent referral. Nasal fractures, often seen in conjunction with other facial fractures, can be managed by outpatient ENT follow-up but should be referred urgently if there is uncontrolled epistaxis, CSF rhinorrhea, or septal hematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man has developed drug-induced lupus after starting a new medication.
What is the PRIMARY cause of this?Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Hydralazine
Explanation:The drugs that have the highest association with the development of drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. While some of the other medications mentioned in this question have also been reported to cause drug-induced lupus, the strength of their association is much weaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 22
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed a new diuretic medication. Upon reviewing her blood test results, you observe the presence of hyperkalemia.
Which of the following diuretics is most likely to be the cause?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Spironolactone is a medication used to treat conditions such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, hepatic cirrhosis with ascites and edema, and Conn’s syndrome. It functions as a competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist, primarily working in the distal convoluted tubule. In this area, it hinders the reabsorption of sodium ions and enhances the reabsorption of potassium ions. Spironolactone is commonly known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.
The main side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, particularly when renal impairment is present. In severe cases, hyperkalemia can be life-threatening. Additionally, there is a notable occurrence of gastrointestinal disturbances, with nausea and vomiting being the most common. Women may experience menstrual disturbances, while men may develop gynecomastia, both of which are attributed to the antiandrogenic effects of spironolactone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A toddler is brought in with a rash and a high fever. You suspect a potential diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, which of the following symptoms is MOST indicative of this condition?Your Answer: Poor feeding
Correct Answer: Decreased level of consciousness
Explanation:NICE has emphasized that there are particular symptoms and signs that may indicate specific diseases as the underlying cause of a fever. For instance, bacterial meningitis may be suggested if the following symptoms and signs are present: neck stiffness, bulging fontanelle, decreased level of consciousness, and convulsive status epilepticus. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a ‘lump’ in her right breast. She is very worried that she may have breast cancer. On examination, she has a painless, well-defined mass that can be felt separate from the breast tissue. The mass is transilluminating.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Epididymal cyst
Explanation:Epididymal cysts are commonly observed in men who are over the age of 40. They often appear in multiple numbers and can be found on both sides. These cysts are typically well-defined, soft to the touch, and can be illuminated when light is passed through them. Since they develop in the epididymis, they can be felt as separate from the testis, which helps to differentiate them from hydroceles. In most cases, these cysts cause no significant issues and do not require any treatment. However, larger cysts can become bothersome and may need to be drained or surgically removed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. He is agitated, confused, and experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 115 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. Obtaining a history from him is challenging as he is mumbling. Further questioning reveals that he has ingested an anticholinergic drug.
What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Patients who present with an anticholinergic toxidrome can be difficult to manage due to the agitation and disruptive behavior that is typically present. It is important to provide meticulous supportive care to address the behavioral effects of delirium and prevent complications such as dehydration, injury, and pulmonary aspiration. Often, one-to-one nursing is necessary.
The management approach for these patients is as follows:
1. Resuscitate using a standard ABC approach.
2. Administer sedation for behavioral control. Benzodiazepines, such as IV diazepam in 5 mg-10 mg increments, are the first-line therapy. The goal is to achieve a patient who is sleepy but easily roused. It is important to avoid over-sedating the patient as this can increase the risk of aspiration.
3. Prescribe intravenous fluids as patients are typically unable to eat and drink, and may be dehydrated upon presentation.
4. Insert a urinary catheter as urinary retention is often present and needs to be managed.
5. Consider physostigmine as the specific antidote for anticholinergic delirium in carefully selected cases. Physostigmine acts as a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, temporarily blocking the breakdown of acetylcholine. This enhances its effects at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors, thereby reversing the effects of the anticholinergic agents.Physostigmine is indicated in the following situations:
1. Severe anticholinergic delirium that does not respond to benzodiazepine sedation.
2. Poisoning with a pure anticholinergic agent, such as atropine.The dosage and administration of physostigmine are as follows:
1. Administer in a monitored setting with appropriate staff and resources to manage adverse effects.
2. Perform a 12-lead ECG before administration to rule out bradycardia, AV block, or broadening of the QRS.
3. Administer IV physostigmine 0.5-1 mg as a slow push over 5 minutes. Repeat every 10 minutes up to a maximum of 4 mg.
4. The clinical end-point of therapy is the resolution of delirium.
5. Delirium may reoccur in 1-4 hours as the effects of physostigmine wear off. In such cases, the dose may be cautiously repeated. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman came in ten days ago with a fever, tenderness in the suprapubic area, and discharge from the vagina. The doctors diagnosed her with pelvic inflammatory disease and started her on antibiotics. She initially got better, but now she is back with intense pain in her lower abdomen and a temperature of 39.5°C.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tubo-ovarian abscess
Explanation:This patient is highly likely to have developed a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA), which is a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease. TOA occurs when a pocket of pus forms in the fallopian tube and/or ovary. If the abscess ruptures, it can lead to sepsis and become life-threatening.
The initial imaging modality of choice is transabdominal and endovaginal ultrasound. This imaging technique often reveals multilocular complex retro-uterine/adnexal masses with debris, septations, and irregular thick walls. These masses can be present on both sides.
Urgent hospital admission is necessary, and the usual management involves draining the abscess and administering intravenous antibiotics. The abscess drainage can be guided by ultrasound or CT scanning.
In some cases, laparotomy or laparoscopy may be required to drain the abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department after an explosion occurred in her garage. The patient reports inhaling fumes and experiencing symptoms of nausea and dizziness since then. While triaging the patient, law enforcement officers arrive to interview her and inform you that the patient seemed to be operating a methamphetamine lab in her garage, which contained various dangerous chemicals. Your plan is to initiate decontamination procedures. Which of the following methods has been proven to eliminate up to 90% of the contamination?
Your Answer: Removal of patient clothing to underwear
Explanation:To remove contaminated material, it is recommended to remove and dispose of clothing. It is important to seal the clothing and treat it as hazardous waste. If wet decontamination is being utilized, patients should shower using warm water and detergent.
Further Reading:
Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.
When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.
To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.
Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.
Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.
After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 28
Correct
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A 45 year old woman arrives at the emergency department, expressing discomfort and experiencing intense aching in her shoulder joints. She reports feeling unwell shortly after completing SCUBA diving approximately 2-3 hours ago. Decompression illness is suspected. What would be the most suitable approach to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Oxygen
Explanation:Patients with decompression illness should avoid taking analgesics as they can potentially harm the patient. Instead, oxygen is the preferred method of analgesia and has been shown to improve prognosis. Symptoms of decompression illness can often be resolved by simply breathing oxygen from a cylinder. It is important to note that Entonox should never be administered to patients with suspected decompression illness as the additional inert gas load from the nitrous oxide can worsen symptoms. NSAIDs should also be avoided as they can exacerbate micro-hemorrhages caused by decompression illness. In cases of decompression illness, patients will typically be treated with recompression in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber. However, it is important to be cautious with the use of oxygen as it can cause pulmonary and neurological toxicity at certain pressures. Therefore, there is a risk of oxygen toxicity developing in patients undergoing recompression, and opioids should be avoided as they are believed to increase this risk.
Further Reading:
Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.
Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.
Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.
Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.
Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.
Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You conduct a medication review on a 68-year-old man with a history of angina. He is currently prescribed 10 mg bisoprolol once daily and GTN spray as needed. However, he continues to experience symptoms.
Which ONE medication should be avoided in this patient?Your Answer: Ranolazine
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Beta-blockers, like bisoprolol, and verapamil have a strong negative effect on the force of ventricular contraction. When these medications are taken together, they can significantly reduce ventricular contraction and lead to a slow heart rate, known as bradycardia. Additionally, the risk of developing AV block is increased. In certain situations, this combination can result in severe low blood pressure or even a complete absence of heart rhythm, known as asystole. Therefore, it is important to avoid using these medications together to prevent these potentially dangerous effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 30
Correct
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A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department after a fall. The patient is accompanied by her children who inform you that there have been several falls in recent weeks. These falls tend to happen in the morning when the patient gets out of bed and appear to have worsened since the GP altered the patient's usual medication. You suspect orthostatic hypotension. What is the minimum blood pressure drop upon standing that is necessary to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: 20 mmHg systolic or 10 mmHg diastolic
Explanation:To diagnose orthostatic hypotension, there needs to be a decrease in systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mmHg (or 30 mmHg for individuals with hypertension) and/or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing. This confirms the presence of orthostatic hypotension.
Further Reading:
Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.
When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.
During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.
There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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