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Question 1
Correct
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Which statement most accurately describes the action of increasing the gain in ultrasound imaging?
Your Answer: Amplifies the returning signal
Explanation:A higher frequency ultrasound comes with a better resolution of the digital image. Ultrasound with a frequency of 15 MHz is best used in imaging of superficial organs such as the thyroid gland, muscles, tendons and breasts whereas deep organs are better imaged using a lower frequency of 2-7MHz because of its ability for deeper penetration but lower resolution. These low frequency probes are also used to diagnose ascites, pleural effusions or can be used in echocardiography.
The US probe emits and then absorbs a reflected wave. Similar to brightness control, increasing the gain will amplify the return signal which is then attenuated by the tissue. This increases the signal to noise ratio.
A high frame rate, which basically means the number of times an image is updated onto the screen per second, improves the resolution of a moving 3D image which has become more accurate as the computing power has increased.Widening of the image field can be obtained by altering the penetration depth which is obtained by changing the frequency of the US beam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how this occurs, and that blood pressure is determined by multiple factors which include action by the heart, nervous system and the diameter of the blood vessels. This lady's cardiac output (CO) is 4L/min. Her exam today revealed a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 140 mmHg. Using these values, her systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is which of these?
Your Answer: 144mmHg‹…min‹…mL-1
Correct Answer: 35mmHg‹…min‹…mL-1
Explanation:Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.
Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.
Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.
Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume
Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 3
Correct
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In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?
Your Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale
Explanation:During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.
Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.
Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures. She is given emergency management of her symptoms before being referred to the neurologist who diagnoses her with new onset of tonic-clonic epilepsy. What is the most appropriate first line of treatment?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine should be offered as first line of treatment
Explanation:Tonic-clonic (Grand mal) epilepsy is characterised by a general loss of consciousness with violent involuntary muscle contractions.
The NICE guidelines for treatment indicates the use of sodium valproate and lamotrigine, but sodium valproate unsuitable in this case and she is a woman of reproductive age and it is known to have teratogenic effects. Lamotrigine is a more suitable choice, prescribed as 800mg daily.
NICE guidelines also advice an additional prescription of 5mg of folic acid daily for women on anticonvulsant therapy looking to get pregnant. It also warns of the need for extra contraceptive precaution as there is a possibly that the anticonvulsant agent can reduce levels of contraceptive agents.
Stimulation of the vagal nerve stimulation is only necessary in patients who are refractory to medical treatment and not candidates for surgical resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been diagnosed with adult respiratory distress syndrome and is being ventilated. His haemodynamic condition is improved using a pulmonary artery flotation. His readings are listed below: Haemoglobin concentration: 10 g/dL, Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 70%, Mixed venous oxygen tensions (PvO2): 50 mmHg. Estimate his mixed venous oxygen content (mL/100mL).
Your Answer: 9
Correct Answer: 9.5
Explanation:Mixed venous oxygen content (CvO2) is the oxygen concentration in 100mL of mixed venous blood taken from the pulmonary artery. It is usually 12-17 mL/dL (70-75%). It is represented mathematically as:
CvO2 = (1.34 x Hgb x SvO2 x 0.01) + (0.003 x PvO2)
Where,
1.34 = Huffner’s constant
Hgb = Haemoglobin level (g/dL)
SvO2 = % oxyhaemoglobin saturation of mixed venous blood
PvO2 = 0.0225 = mL of O2 dissolved per 100mL plasma per kPa, or 0.003 mL per mmHgTherefore,
CvO2 = (1.34 x 10 x 70 x 0.01) + (0.003 x 50)
CvO2 = 9.38 + 0.15 = 9.53 mL/100mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 6
Correct
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During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a bottle. He is admitted for treatment. Which feature, if present, suggests an injury to the femoral nerve?
Your Answer: Loss of knee reflex
Explanation:Femoral nerve lesion (L2,L3 and L4) is characterised by weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle. This results in weakness of extension of the knee, loss of sensation over the front of the thigh, and loss of the knee jerk reflex.
The skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, and the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L1,2).
The adductors of the hip are supplied by the obturator nerve (L2-4). This nerve also supplies sensation to the inner thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?
Your Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root
Explanation:The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.
Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.
The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.
The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.
The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.
Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 68-year old female is brought to the Emergency Room for abdominal pain. Medical history revealed that she is on long-term warfarin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. Upon further investigation, the patient is hypotensive at 80/60 mmHg, and an abdominal mass is palpable on the umbilical area. An initial diagnosis of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is made. Moreover, blood tests show an international normalised ratio (INR) of 4.2. Which of the following products should be initially transfused or administered to the patient to reverse the anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Prothrombin complex
Explanation:Warfarin prevents reductive metabolism of the inactive vitamin K epoxide back to its active hydroquinone form. Thus, warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors: X, IX, VII, II (prothrombin), and of the anticoagulants protein C and protein S. The therapeutic range for oral anticoagulant therapy is defined in terms of an international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the prothrombin time ratio (patient prothrombin time/mean of normal prothrombin time for lab)ISI, where the ISI exponent refers to the International Sensitivity Index and is dependent on the specific reagents and instruments used for the determination. A prolonged INR is widely used as an indication of integrity of the coagulation system in liver disease and other disorders, it has been validated only in patients in steady state on chronic warfarin therapy.
Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) is used to replace congenital or acquired vitamin-K deficiency warfarin-induced anticoagulant effect, particularly in the emergent setting.
Intravenous vitamin K has a slower onset of action compared to PCC, but is useful for long term therapy.
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) prepared from freshly donated blood is the usual source of the vitamin K-dependent factors and is the only source of factor V. The factors needed, however, are found in small quantities compared to PCC.
Cryoprecipitate is indicated for hypofibrinogenemia/dysfibrinogenemia, von Willebrand disease, haemophilia A, factor XIII deficiency, and management of bleeding related to thrombolytic therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?
Your Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium
Explanation:Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.
It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.
Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following is the smallest value of pressure?
Your Answer: 14.69 psi
Explanation:The SI unit of pressure is the pascal (Pa) and it is equal to one newton (N) per square meter (m2) or N/m2.
1 atmosphere (atm) is the equivalent of:
101325 Pa760 mmHg
1.01325 bar
1033.23 cmH2O.
14.69 pounds per square inch (psi)
1013.25 millibar (mbar) or hectopascals (hPa), and14.69 psi is equal to one atmosphere. The other values are equal to two atmospheres of pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed. He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?
Your Answer: L1
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.
The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following facts about IgE is true?
Your Answer: Is involved in type 2 hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals
Explanation:Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.
The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.
IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.
Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 21-year-old female was brought to the Emergency department with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. On clinical examination, the following were the findings: Pulse: 120 beats per minute, BP: 120/95 mmHg, Respiratory rate: 22 breaths per minute, Capillary refill time: three seconds, Cool peripheries. Which of the following best describes the cause for this clinical finding?
Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:Classification of hemorrhagic shock according to Advanced Trauma Life Support is as follows:
– Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%) in which there is no change in blood pressure, RR, or pulse pressure.
– Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss) where there is tachycardia, tachypnoea, and a decrease in pulse pressure.
– Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss) where clinical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state, and measurable fall in systolic pressure is seen. It almost always requires a blood transfusion.
– Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss) in which marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure, and markedly depressed mental state with cold and pale skin are seen.
Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse, and blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Correct
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The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:
Your Answer: intracellular>extracellular
Explanation:Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14LECF comprises:
Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
Extravascular fluid = 11LExtravascular fluids comprises:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
Transcellular fluid = 0.5L -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC. Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?
Your Answer: T10
Correct Answer: T8
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The cardiac muscle will primarily utilize which metabolic substrate to produce energy when at rest?
Your Answer: Glucose
Correct Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:Approximately 70% of the heart’s ATP requirement is met by cardiac mitochondria through beta-oxidation of fatty acids at rest. The remaining 30% is supplied by glucose.
Amino acids and ketones, in the presence of ketoacidosis, may supply at most 10% of the ATP requirement. And, when in high levels, lactate may also contribute to the ATP requirement of the heart, particularly during moments of high muscular activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia. A direct inguinal hernia passes through Hesselbach's triangle. What forms the medial edge of this triangle?
Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle
Explanation:The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach’s is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vesselsDirect inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following statements below would best describe the receptor response to an opioid mu receptor agonist such as fentanyl?
Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Agonists activate the receptor as a direct result of binding to it with a characteristic affinity. Moreover, intrinsic activity of an agonist to its receptor determines the ability to create a maximal response.
Responses to low doses of a drug usually increase in direct proportion to dose. As doses increase, however, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. The relationship formed between the dose and response when plotted graphically is hyperbolic. This also shows that even at low receptor occupancy, a maximal response may be produced.
Antagonists bind to receptors in the same affinity as agonists, but they have no intrinsic efficacy. They do not activate generation of signal. Instead, they interfere with the ability of the agonist to activate the receptor.
Partial agonists are similar to full agonists in that they have similar affinity to the target receptor, but they produce a lower response than full agonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen delivery to tissues?
Your Answer: Left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve
Explanation:Smoking is a major risk factor associated with perioperative respiratory and cardiovascular complications. Evidence also suggests that cigarette smoking causes imbalance in the prostaglandins and promotes vasoconstriction and excessive platelet aggregation. Two of the constituents of cigarette smoke, nicotine and carbon monoxide, have adverse cardiovascular effects. Carbon monoxide increases the incidence of arrhythmias and has a negative ionotropic effect both in animals and humans.
Smoking causes an increase in carboxyhaemoglobin levels, resulting in a leftward shift in which appears to represent a risk factor for some of these cardiovascular complications.
There are two mechanisms responsible for the leftward shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve when carbon monoxide is present in the blood. Carbon monoxide has a direct effect on oxyhaemoglobin, causing a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, and carbon monoxide also reduces the formation of 2,3-DPG by inhibiting glycolysis in the erythrocyte. Nicotine, on the other hand, has a stimulatory effect on the autonomic nervous system. The effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system last less than 30 min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except
Your Answer: The onset of action is unrelated to pKa
Correct Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility
Explanation:The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.
Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.
Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits. Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?
Your Answer: Sodium and potassium cations
Explanation:The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.
2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity
313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5
Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.
The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.
The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.
The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:
OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity
Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Correct
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Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?
Your Answer: The trunks of the brachial plexus emerge from the lateral border of scalenus anterior
Explanation:The ascending cervical artery lies media the phrenic nerve on scalenus anterior and can easily be mistaken for the phrenic nerve at operation.
The phrenic nerve passes across scalenus anterior and medius inferiorly.
The subclavian artery is separated from the vein by the scalenus anterior.
The brachiocephalic vein is formed at the medial border of scalenus anterior by the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.
Emerging from the lateral border of scalenus anterior are the trunks of the brachial plexus .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance?
Your Answer: After intravenous administration of crystalloids, the distribution of these fluids throughout the body depends on its osmotic activity
Explanation:When there is capillary leakage as seen in dependent oedema or ascites, oncotic pressure becomes a problem.
The intracellular sodium concentration is very sensitive to the extracellular sodium concentrations. When there is an imbalance, osmosis occurs resulting in shifts in water between the two compartments.
The microvascular endothelium relies upon osmosis and other processes as it is not freely permeable to water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Correct
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Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits?
Your Answer: Mapleson A is most efficient for spontaneous ventilation
Explanation:Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 25
Correct
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The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations currently in the UK is?
Your Answer: Teicoplanin
Explanation:The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis
Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.
Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?
Your Answer: Campylobacter
Explanation:Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.
Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.
Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are preparing to anaesthetize a 27-year-old woman for an acute diagnostic laparoscopy to rule out appendicitis. She has no medical history and does not take any medications on a regular basis. You're going to do a quick sequence induction. Which method of preoxygenation is the most effective and efficient?
Your Answer: Mapleson D circuit with a fresh gas flow of 100 ml/kg
Correct Answer: Mapleson A circuit with a fresh gas flow of 100 ml/kg
Explanation:Professor Mapleson classified non-rebreathing circuits based on the position of the APL valve, which controls fresh gas flow.
The Mapleson A (Magill) circuit is most effective in spontaneous breathing, requiring only 70-100 ml/kg (the patient’s minute volume) of fresh gas flow. The patient inhales fresh gas from the reservoir bag and tubing during inspiration. During expiration, the patient adds dead space gas (gas that hasn’t been exchanged) to the tubing and reservoir bag in addition to the fresh gas flow. At the patient’s end, alveolar gas is vented through the APL valve. During the expiratory pause, the fresh gas flow causes more gas to be released.
The Mapleson A is inefficient during controlled ventilation. Venting occurs during inspiration rather than during the expiratory phase, as it does during spontaneous ventilation. As a result, unless a high fresh gas flow of >20 L/minute is used, alveolar gas is rebreathed.
During spontaneous ventilation, the Mapleson D circuit is inefficient.
The oxygen concentration in a Hudson mask is insufficient to allow for adequate pre-oxygenation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 28
Correct
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One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery is the injury to orbital structures within the tendinous ring. The structure which passes through the superior orbital fissure and tendinous ring to enter the orbit is?
Your Answer: Superior division of oculomotor nerve
Explanation:From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
1. Lacrimal nerve
2. Frontal nerve
3. Superior ophthalmic vein
4. Trochlear nerve
5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
6. Nasociliary nerve*
7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
8. Abducent nerve*
9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.
The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 29
Correct
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The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation:
Your Answer: It is used to calculate the potential difference across a membrane when the individual ions are in equilibrium
Explanation:The Nernst equation is used to calculate the membrane potential at which the ions are in equilibrium across the cell membrane.
The normal resting membrane potential is -70 mV (not + 70 mV).
The equation is:
E = RT/FZ ln {[X]o
/[X]i}Where:
E is the equilibrium potential
R is the universal gas constant
T is the absolute temperature
F is the Faraday constant
Z is the valency of the ion
[X]o is the extracellular concentration of ion X
[X]i is the intracellular concentration of ion X. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents for transsphenoidal surgery following a diagnosis of pituitary macroadenoma. Which of the following is the most common visual field defect caused by such lesions?
Your Answer: Homonymous hemianopia
Correct Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation:Pituitary tumours that compress the optic chiasma primarily affect the neurones that decussate at this location. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by neurones that emerge from the nasal half of the retina and transmit the temporal half of the visual field.
The axons of ganglion cells in the retina form the optic nerve.
It exits the orbit through the optic foramen and projects to the thalamic lateral geniculate body. The optic chiasma forms above the sella turcica as the nasal fibres decussate along the way. The optic radiation travels from the lateral geniculate body to the occipital cortex.
Lesions at various points along this pathway cause the following visual field defects:
Scotoma implies partial retinal or optic nerve damage.
Monocular vision loss occurs when the optic nerve is completely damaged.
Pathology at the optic chiasma causes bitemporal hemianopia.
Cortical blindness with occipital cortex pathology and homonymous hemianopia with lesions compromising the optic radiation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 31
Correct
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A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is?
Your Answer: Level 3
Explanation:Level 1 – High-quality randomised controlled trial with statistically significant difference or no statistically significant difference but narrow confidence intervals (prospective controlled)
Level 2 – Prospective comparative study (prospective uncontrolled)
Level 3 – Case-control study, retrospective comparative study (retrospective controlled)
Level 4 – Case series (retrospective uncontrolled)
Level 5 – Expert opinion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the best associated option with Kaplan-Meier survival plot?
Your Answer: An accurate prediction of increasing survival with time after treatment.
Correct Answer: An estimate of decreasing survival with time after an event.
Explanation:Also known as the €œproduct limit estimate”, the Kaplan-Meier survival plot is used to estimate the true survival function from the collected data.
Using this plot, probabilities of occurrence of an event at a certain point in time can be computed. The successive probabilities are multiplied by any earlier computed probabilities to get the final estimate. For a given population, the survival probability at any particular time on the plot = (number of subjects living at the start – number of subjects who died)/number of subjects living at the start.
The description of a scatter plot is a graphical representation using Cartesian coordinates to display values for more than two variables for data set. It is used for to assess the relationship between 2 different variables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools. The initial diagnosis was upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient was placed on temporary nil per os (NPO) for the next 24 hours, his weight was 110 kg, and the required volume of intravenous fluid for the him was 3 litres. His electrolytes and other biochemistry studies were normal. If you were to choose the intravenous fluid regimen that would closely mimic his basic electrolyte and caloric requirements, which one would be the best answer?
Your Answer: 3000 mL Hartmann's
Correct Answer: 3000 mL 0.45% N. saline with 5% dextrose, each bag with 40 mmol of potassium
Explanation:The patient in the case has a fluid volume requirement of 30 mL/kg/day. His basic electrolyte requirement per day is:
Sodium at 2 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 220 mmol/day
Potassium at 1 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 110 mmol/dayHis energy requirement per day is:
35 kcal/kg/day x 110 kg = 3850 kcal/day
One gram of glucose in fluid can provide approximately 4 kilocalories.
The following are the electrolyte components of the different intravenous fluids:
Fluid Na (mmol/L) K (mmol/L)
0.9% Normal saline (NSS) 154 0
0.45% NSS + 5% dextrose 77 0
0.18% NSS + 4% dextrose 30 0
Hartmann’s 131 5
5% dextrose 0 01000 mL of 5% dextrose has 50 g of glucose
Option B is inadequate for his sodium and caloric requirements (30 mmol of Na+ and 560 kcal). It is adequate for his K+ requirement (120 mmol of K+).
Option C is in excess of his Na+ requirement (462 mmol of Na+). Moreover, it does not provide any K+ replacement.
Option D is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal) and K+ requirement (60 mmol of K+). Moreover it does not provide any Na+ replacement.
Option E is in excess of his Na+ requirement (393 mmol of Na+), and is inadequate for his potassium requirement (15 mmol of K+)
Option A has adequate amounts for his Na+ (231 mmol of Na+) and K+ (120 mmol of K+) requirements. It is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements about dopamine is false except:
Your Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier.
Correct Answer: Infusions may increase splanchnic blood flow.
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no Central nervous system effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?
Your Answer: 0.9% N. Saline
Correct Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose
Explanation:The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.
Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.
0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
Tonicity – hypertonic
Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 1070.9% N. Saline:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 05% Dextrose:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 170Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 0Hartmann’s solution:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 9 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 36
Correct
-
What is the name of the space between the vocal cords?
Your Answer: Rima glottidis
Explanation:The rima glottidis is a narrow, triangle-shaped opening between the true vocal cords.
The vocal folds (true vocal cords) control sound production. The apex of each fold projects medially into the laryngeal cavity.
Each vocal fold includes these vocal ligaments:
Vocalis muscle (most medial part of thyroarytenoid muscle)
The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes and rima glottidis.
The rima glottidis is the narrowest potential site within the larynx, as the vocal cords may be completely opposed, forming a complete barrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Vasoconstricts mesenteric vessels
Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2€“1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 38
Correct
-
If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous technique with target-controlled infusions of propofol and remifentanil, what safety precaution is the most vital in this a scenario?
Your Answer: Cannula access site clearly visible and regularly checked
Explanation:According to the Safe Anaesthesia Liaison Group, the most important factor to consider the cannula access, and if the patient is properly receiving the total intravenous anaesthesia. The cannula access must be regularly checked for kinks, leaks and disconnections.
Below are the safety precautions and policies to be followed for total intravenous anaesthesia among children and adults:
When administering TIVA, a non-return valve must be used on any intravenous fluid line;
When using equipment, it is essential that clinical staff know its limitations and uses;
Sites of intravenous infusions should be visible so they may be monitored for disconnection, leaks or perivenous infusion into the subcutaneous tissues; and,
Organisations must give preference to clearly labelled intravenous connectors and valves. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature except:
Your Answer: The semiconductor is incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit
Correct Answer: Resistance of the bead increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?
Your Answer: Right vagus nerve
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.
The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.
The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.
No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is not true regarding Adrenaline?
Your Answer: Acts on β 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation
Correct Answer: Exerts its effect by decreasing intracellular calcium
Explanation:Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.
They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (α1, α2, β1, β2, β3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).
May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding the dose of propofol?
Your Answer: 2-3 mg/kg
Correct Answer: 1-2mg/kg
Explanation:Propofol is a short-acting medication used for starting and maintenance of general anaesthesia, sedation for mechanically ventilated adults, and procedural sedation.
The dose of propofol is 1-2 mg/kg.Dose of some other important drugs are listed below:
Thiopental dose: 3-7 mg/kg
Ketamine dose: 1-2 mg/kg
Etomidate dose: 0.3 mg/kg
Methohexitone dose: 1.0-1.5 mg/kg -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the prostate gland. What is the direct blood supply of the prostate?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Inferior vesical artery
Explanation:The prostate gland is primarily supplied by the inferior vesical artery, which branches off from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. The inferior vesical artery supplies the base of the bladder, the distal ureters, and the prostate. The branches to the prostate communicate with the corresponding vessels of the opposite side.
The inferior vesical artery branches into two main arteries:
1. Urethral artery – supplies the transition zone and is the main arterial supply for the adenomas in BPH
2. Capsular artery – supplies the glandular tissueThe venous drainage of the prostate is from the prostatic venous plexus, which drains into the paravertebral veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true with regards to the cardiac action potential?
Your Answer: The absolute refractory period begins with large influx of potassium ions. Offsets action of sodium channels.
Correct Answer: Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close causes the relative refractory period to start
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 45
Correct
-
With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric outlet obstruction is admitted to the surgical ward. The serum biochemical results listed below are available: Sodium 128 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Chloride 50 mmol/L (95-107), Urea 12 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Creatinine 180 µmol/L (60-110). Which of the following do you think you are most likely to encounter?
Your Answer: The standard base excess will be higher than actual base excess
Explanation:Hydrochloric acid is lost when you vomit for a long time (HCl). As a result, the following can be expected, in varying degrees of severity:
Hypokalaemia
Hypochloraemia
Increased bicarbonate to compensate for chloride loss and metabolic alkalosisThe alkalosis causes potassium to move from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment at first. Long-term vomiting and dehydration cause potassium to be excreted by the kidneys in order to conserve sodium. Dehydration can cause urea and creatinine levels to rise.
The actual base excess is always greater than the standard base excess.
The actual base excess (BE) is a measurement of a base’s contribution to a blood gas picture’s metabolic component. It’s the amount of base that needs to be added to a blood sample to bring the pH back to 7.4 after the respiratory component of a blood gas picture has been corrected (PaCO2 of 40 mmHg or 5.3 kPa). The BE has a normal range of +2 to 2. A large positive BE indicates a severe metabolic alkalosis, while a large negative BE indicates a severe metabolic acidosis. As a result, the actual BE in vitro is unaffected by CO2.
In vivo, however, standard BE is not independent of pCO2 because blood with haemoglobin acts as a better buffer than total ECF.
As a result, it is impossible to tell the difference between compensating for a respiratory disorder and compensating for the presence of a primary metabolic disorder.
The differences between in vitro and in vivo behaviour can be mostly eliminated if the BE is calculated for a haemoglobin concentration of 50 g/L (the ‘effective’ or virtual value of Hb if it was distributed throughout the extracellular space) rather than the actual haemoglobin. Because haemoglobin has a lower buffering capacity, the standard BE is higher than the actual BE. It reflects the BE better in the extracellular space rather than just the intravascular compartment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 46
Correct
-
A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar and water for 48 hours. What would be his expected respiratory quotient at the end of the study?
Your Answer: 1
Explanation:The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed while food is being metabolized:
RQ = CO2 eliminated/O2 consumed
Most energy sources are food containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Examples include fat, carbohydrates, protein, and ethanol. The normal range of respiratory coefficients for organisms in metabolic balance usually ranges from 1.0-0.7.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate with no significant fat, protein or ethanol content.
The RQ for carbohydrates is = 1.0
The RQ for the rest of the compounds are:
Fats RQ = 0.7
The chemical composition of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that fats contain considerably fewer oxygen atoms in proportion to atoms of carbon and hydrogen.Protein RQ = 0.8
Due to the complexity of various ways in which different amino acids can be metabolized, no single RQ can be assigned to the oxidation of protein in the diet; however, 0.8 is a frequently utilized estimate. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 47
Correct
-
An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape. The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance. End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes). Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa. Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%. Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?
Your Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial€“end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.
The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.
Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.
There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: At higher rates of infusion, α effects predominate leading to increased systemic vascular resistance and venous return
Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential. What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?
Your Answer: Euler's number
Correct Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x
Explanation:The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).
A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.
Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.
A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
In the adrenal gland:
Your Answer: There is a portal system between cortex and medulla
Correct Answer: Catecholamine release is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission
Explanation:The adrenal (suprarenal) gland is composed of two main parts: the adrenal cortex, which is the largest and outer part of the gland, and the adrenal medulla. The adrenal cortex consists of three zones: 1. Zona glomerulosa (outermost layer) is responsible for the production of mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which regulates blood pressure and electrolyte balance. 2. Zona fasciculata (middle layer) is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids, predominantly cortisol, which increases blood sugar levels via gluconeogenesis, suppresses the immune system, and aids in metabolism. It also produces 11-deoxycorticosterone and corticosterone in addition to cortisol. 3. Zona reticularis (innermost layer) is responsible for the production of gonadocorticoids, mainly dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), which serves as the starting material for many other important hormones produced by the adrenal gland, such as oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and cortisol. It is also responsible for administering these hormones to the reproductive regions of the body.
The adrenal medulla majorly secretes epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine in small quantity. Both hormones have similar functions and initiate the flight or fight response.
Catecholamine is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission through changes in sympathetic nervous system (T5 – T11), being increased during stress and hypoglycaemia.
Blood supply to the adrenal gland is by these three arteries: superior suprarenal arteries, middle suprarenal artery and inferior suprarenal artery. Venous drainage is via the suprarenal vein to the left renal vein or directly to the inferior vena cava on the right side. There is no portal (venous) system between cortex and medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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